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DBMS Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

All super keys are candidate keys

b)

All candidate keys are super keys

c)

Primary key is always a super key, but may contain NULL

d)

A primary key can be duplicated

2.

In ER diagram, a weak entity must have:

a)

Its own primary key

b)

A partial key and a total participation relationship

c)

A multi-valued key

d)

A key consisting of only foreign attributes

3.

If a relation has multiple candidate keys, which key becomes the primary key?

a)

The first one created

b)

The longest one

c)

The most frequently used one chosen by DBA

d)

Automatically selected by DBMS

4.

Which of the following violates physical data independence?

a)

Reorganizing file structure on disk

b)

Changing indexes

c)

Changing storage format of records

d)

Deleting a column from a table

5.

Which among the following is NOT a responsibility of DBA?

a)

Backup and recovery

b)

Performance tuning

c)

Writing client-side front-end code

d)

Granting privileges

6.

A super key that has no proper subset which is also a super key is called:

a)

Primary key

b)

Candidate key

c)

Composite key

d)

Foreign key

7.

In which DB architecture level can multiple user views exist?

a)

Physical level

b)

Logical level

c)

External level

d)

Internal level

8.

In DBMS, data inconsistency arises mainly due to:

a)

Data normalization

b)

Multiple copies of same data stored independently

c)

Foreign keys

d)

Views

9.

A foreign key can be:

a)

Null if not part of a primary key relationship

b)

Always unique

c)

Always composite

d)

Used only between two weak entities

10.

Which of the following does NOT describe the three-schema architecture correctly?

a)

Separates user applications from physical database

b)

Ensures both physical & logical data independence

c)

Improves security by removing DBA roles

d)

Includes external, conceptual and internal schemas

11.

What is a “view” in the context of a DBMS?

a)

A physical table storing data

b)

A virtual table derived from one or more base tables

c)

A backup file of the database

d)

A graphic user interface module

12.

Which of these statements about a file-processing system is true compared to a DBMS?

a)

It supports ad-hoc queries easily

b)

It offers data independence

c)

It has fixed program-data dependence

d)

It automatically enforces referential integrity

13.

Which database architecture tier is typically responsible for business logic (application layer) in a three-tier architecture?

a)

Tier-1

b)

Tier-2

c)

Tier-3

d)

Tier-0

14.

Which of the following is not a correct pairing of language and its purpose in DBMS?

a)

DDL – define database schema

b)

DML – insert, delete, update data

c)

DCL – manipulate data from tables

d)

DQL – query data from tables

15.

The term “instance” of a database refers to:

a)

The schema of the database

b)

The design of the tables

c)

The data stored in the database at a particular moment

d)

The user interface for the database

16.

What is “schema” in context of a database?

a)

The current content (data) of the database

b)

The storage location of files on disk

c)

The structure or design of the database (tables, relationships)

d)

The backup file format

17.

In an ER diagram, which of the following cannot be represented directly as an attribute?

a)

Multivalued attribute

b)

Derived attribute

c)

Composite attribute

d)

Relationship attribute of many-to-many associations

18.

Which of the following causes data redundancy the most in file processing systems?

a)

Centralized control of data

b)

Independent storage of data by different applications

c)

Normalized structure of records

d)

Use of indexing

19.

In DBMS, which statement about integrity constraints is INCORRECT?

a)

They ensure correctness and validity of data

b)

They may prevent insertion or deletion of invalid data

c)

They guarantee that database is always normalized

d)

They help maintain consistency across relationships

20.

Consider two entities Student and Course with a many-to-many relationship. What must be added to implement this in a relational model?

a)

A view between the two tables

b)

A composite table (junction table) containing foreign keys

c)

A weak entity for Student

d)

A single merged table combining all attributes

21.

SELECT COUNT(*)

a)

Throw error

b)

0

c)

1

d)

*

22.

SELECT 'VIKAS' + 1 --output of this query would be.

a)

Throw error

b)

'VIKAS'

c)

VIKAS

d)

VIKAS1

23.

SELECT COUNT(*) + COUNT(*)

a)

Throw error

b)

0

c)

1

d)

2

24.

Which SQL clause is used to filter records?

a)

ORDER BY

b)

WHERE

c)

GROUP BY

d)

DISTINCT

25.

Which command is used to remove a table?

a)

DELETE

b)

ERASE

c)

DROP

d)

REMOVE

26.

Which join returns only matching records from both tables?

a)

LEFT JOIN

b)

RIGHT JOIN

c)

INNER JOIN

d)

FULL JOIN

27.

Which of the following is a DDL command?

a)

UPDATE

b)

INSERT

c)

CREATE

d)

DELETE

28.

8- SELECT 1 WHERE NULL = NULL

a)

NULL

b)

1

c)

No rows

d)

Error

29.

SELECT MAX(1,3,4)

a)

Throw error

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

30.

Select Count(SELECT CountryID FROM Country)

a)

Throw error

b)

Will display count of country table

c)

0

d)

1

31.

Given R(A, B, C, D) with FDs: A → B, B → C, C → D. Which is the highest normal form of R?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

BCNF

32.

If a decomposition of R into R1 and R2 is lossless, which condition must be true?

a)

R1 ∩ R2 → R1

b)

R1 ∩ R2 → R2

c)

(R1 ∩ R2) → R1 or R2

d)

Both R1 and R2 must be in BCNF

33.

Consider R(A, B, C) with MVD A →→ B. Which decomposition is correct for 4NF?

a)

R1(A, B), R2(A, C)

b)

R1(B, C), R2(A, C)

c)

R1(A, B, C)

34.

Which situation indicates that the relation is not in BCNF even though it is in 3NF?

a)

A non-key attribute determines another non-key attribute

b)

A composite key has a partial dependency

c)

A non-prime attribute determines a key attribute

d)

A determinant is not a candidate key

35.

You decompose a table into 3NF, but some FDs are not preserved. What is the consequence?

a)

Join becomes lossy

b)

Query optimization becomes harder

c)

You cannot enforce all constraints without joins

d)

MVDs will vanish

36.

Relation R(A, B, C, D) has FD: AB → C and C → D. What is the candidate key?

a)

AB

b)

ABC

c)

ABD

d)

A

37.

Which of the following indicates the need for 4NF?

a)

Partial dependency

b)

Transitive dependency

c)

Attribute depends on many independent multi-valued facts

d)

Candidate keys are not unique

38.

In a schema R(A, B, C, D), if A → B and C → D, which decomposition ensures BCNF without losing FDs?

a)

R1(A, B), R2(C, D)

b)

R1(A, C), R2(B, D)

c)

R1(A, B, C), R2(C, D)

d)

R1(A, C, D), R2(B)

39.

Which design choice is preferable when FD preservation is more important than BCNF compliance?

4 lines
40.

If a decomposition is dependency-preserving but lossy, what does it imply?

a)

Some FDs are lost

b)

Some original tuples cannot be recovered by join

c)

Extra tuples appear after join

d)

The decomposed tables are not in 1NF

41.

Which of the following is a multi-valued dependency?

a)

A →→ B

b)

A → B

c)

A ↔ B

d)

A ⊆ B

42.

A decomposition is lossless if and only if:

a)

No redundancy is removed

b)

The join of decomposed relations gives original relation

c)

All FDs remain preserved

d)

Data duplication occurs

43.

Which condition ensures a lossless-join decomposition for R(A,B,C)?

a)

A →→ B

b)

A → C or C → A

c)

AB → C

d)

C → B only

44.

Which of the following indicates redundancy in a database?

a)

Functional dependency

b)

Partial dependency

c)

Atomic values

d)

Primary key

45.

Normalization is a process used to:

a)

Increase redundancy

b)

Reduce anomalies

c)

Increase file size

d)

Reduce access speed

46.

Which of the following anomalies can normalization reduce?

a)

Insertion, deletion, update

b)

Deadlock

c)

Indexing

d)

Encryption

47.

In alternative design approaches, ER modeling is used for:

a)

Network administration

b)

Conceptual schema design

c)

File system design

d)

Concurrency control

48.

If a relation has attributes that depend on non-key attributes, it violates:

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

BCNF

49.

A dependency A → B holds if:

a)

Two tuples with same A have same B

b)

Two tuples with same B have same A

c)

A and B are always equal

d)

A is a key

50.

Normalization using MVDs helps remove:

a)

Full dependencies

b)

Partial dependencies

c)

Transitive dependencies

d)

Repeating groups in multiple rows

51.

Which of the following ensures uniqueness of each row in a relational table?

a)

Domain Constraint

b)

Tuple Constraint

c)

Key Constraint

d)

Referential Integrity

52.

Referential Integrity ensures:

a)

Every row has a unique primary key

b)

Foreign key value must match an existing primary key value

c)

Data must be of correct type

d)

No two rows can be identical

53.

Which relational algebra operator is used to rename attributes?

a)

Rename (ρ or Rho)

b)

Select (σ or Sigma)

c)

Project (π or Pi)

d)

Join (⨝)

54.

SQL is considered a:

a)

Procedural language

b)

Object-oriented language

c)

Non-procedural language

d)

Low-level programming language

55.

Which SQL command category does UPDATE belong to?

a)

DDL

b)

DCL

c)

TCL

d)

DML

56.

Which SQL operator is used to combine rows from two tables and remove duplicates?

a)

UNION ALL

b)

UNION

c)

INTERSECT

d)

MINUS

57.

A cursor in SQL is used to:

a)

Store triggers

b)

Define constraints

c)

Process query results row-by-row

d)

Update indexes

58.

Which JOIN returns records only when matching values exist in both tables?

a)

LEFT JOIN

b)

FULL JOIN

c)

INNER JOIN

d)

CROSS JOIN

59.

In Relational Calculus, Tuple Relational Calculus (TRC) uses:

a)

Variables that range over domains

b)

Variables that range over tuples

c)

Procedural expressions

d)

Algebraic operations

60.

10. Which of the following describes a trigger?

a)

A database object that automatically executes a specified action in response to certain events.

b)

A type of user interface element used to start a program.

c)

A command used to retrieve data from a database.

d)

A tool for monitoring network traffic.