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Psych Dino

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who studied unconscious and conscious behavior?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

Ivan Pavlov

d)

John B. Watson

2.
Psychologists study human _______________________ by observing and measuring how people act. 
a)
behavior
b)
natural
c)
bilogy
d)
none of the above
3.

Estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind, we presume such events are common.

a)

availability heuristic

b)

representativeness heuristic

c)

functional fixedness

d)

mental set

4.

Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?

a)

the scientific study of behavior and mental processes

b)

the scientific study of mental processes

c)

the scientific study of behavior

d)

the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes

5.

What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?

a)

the unconscious mind

b)

free will

c)

brain psychology

d)

external consequences

6.

The part of the brain associated with Decision Making and Social Judgments

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Amygdala

c)

Striatum

d)

Hippocampus

7.

The part of the brain associated with the formation of Memories.

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Amygdala

c)

Striatum

d)

Hippocampus

8.

The teenage brain is known to have a structure that includes...

a)

A Highly Developed Frontal Lobe and Under Developed Striatum

b)

An Underdeveloped Frontal Lobe and Highly Developed Striatum

c)

An Underdeveloped Frontal Lobe and Underdeveloped Striatum

d)

A Highly Developed Frontal Lobe and Highly Developed Striatum

9.

Myelination is the process where...

a)

Fat builds around neural pathways to speed them up when they are used repeatedly.

b)

When neural networks are eliminated because they are not used.

c)

New neurons are developed in the brain.

d)

a person has lost the functioning of one part of their brain.

10.
Damage to the prefrontal cortex would most likely result in
a)
diminished planning abilities
b)
death
c)
blindess
d)
coma
11.
A person has a stroke on her occipital lobe.  What might happen to her?
a)
reduced planning abilities
b)
deafness
c)
coma
d)
blindness
12.
A tumor on the temporal lobe would most affect the career of 
a)
an architect
b)
a musician
c)
a professor
d)
a researcher
13.
Controls hearing, and language comprehension
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
14.
Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
15.

Which controls personality, short term memory, & speech

a)

frontal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

temporal lobe

d)

occipital lobe

16.
The visual cortex is located in the
a)
occipital lobe
b)
temporal lobe
c)
frontal lobe
d)
parietal lobe
17.
Which letter on the illustration represents the parietal lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
18.
Which letter on the illustration represents the occipital lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
19.
Which letter on the illustration represents the temporal lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
20.
Which letter on the illustration represents the frontal lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
21.
The brain's "sensory switchboard":  directs sensory messages to proper area of the brain
a)
thalamus
b)
hypothalamus
c)
hippocampus
d)
reticular formation
22.
Carries messages between the body and the brain:
a)
cerebellum
b)
corpus callosum
c)
spinal cord
d)
special thalamus
23.
Known as the "Little brain" and is in charge of balance and coordinating movements:
a)
Thalamus
b)
Reticular Formation
c)
Hypothalamus
d)
Cerebellum
24.
The red portion is the ________
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
d)
Diencephalon
25.

Which part of the brain controls your blood pressure and heart rate?

a)

brain stem

b)

occipital lobe

c)

cerebellum

d)

frontal lobe

26.

Who has a bigger frontal lobe?

a)
b)
27.

Who has bigger olfactory bulbs?

a)
b)
28.
The brain is a jellylike mass of fat and protein. 
a)
True 
b)
False
29.
Human brains aren't fully developed until a person reaches their mid-twenties. 
a)
True 
b)
False
30.
We only use about 10% of our brain. 
a)
True 
b)
False 
31.

Which of these is a physical

response to fear?

a)

drowsiness

b)

hunger

c)

rapid breathing

d)

thirst

32.

A phobia is a fear that is ...

a)

about something life threatening.

b)

easy to overcome.

c)

out of proportion to the danger.

d)

only mildly upsetting.

33.

The amygdala ...

a)

keeps track of experiences that trigger strong emotions.

b)

calms people down.

c)

relaxes our muscles.

d)

helps people overcome fears.

34.

What is the unreasonable fear of spiders?

a)

Aerophobia

b)

Arachnophobia

c)

Agoraphobia

d)

Claustrophobia

35.

What's the name of the most common treatment for phobias?

a)

Shock Therapy

b)

Group Therapy

c)

Exposure Therapy

d)

Psychoanalysis

36.
Which of these things would NOT happen if a person has a phobia of storms? 
a)
Might be afraid to go to school if the weather person predicts a storm is in the forecast. 
b)
If the sky gets gray he/she may feel great distress and fear from the cloudy skies. 
c)
Be nervous, but know that it is just a storm.
37.

A fear can be healthy if

a)

it stops someone for doing something that would not harm them.

b)

it cautions a person to stay safe around something that could be dangerous.

c)

it is unnecessary and causes more caution that the situation calls for.

d)

doesn't allow you to overcome it.

38.
Is a phobia a sign of weakness?
a)
No, a response the brain has learned in an attempt to protect that person
b)
Yes, because it stops them from doing something in life. 
39.

Fill in the blank with the correct words:

"___________ just make you feel slightly nervous, while __________ are intense and can make you feel sick and out of control."

a)

Fears, phobias

b)

Phobias, fears

c)

Anxiety, fears

d)

Anxiety, phobias

40.
locus of control
a)
Allport
b)
Myers Briggs
c)
Eyesneck
d)
Rotter
41.
a)
Allport
b)
Myers Briggs
c)
Eyesneck
d)
Rotter
42.
there is a sucker born every minute
a)
barnum effect
b)
spotlight effect
c)
cocktail party effect
43.
The most widely used projective test, a set of 10 inkblots, seeks to identify people's inner feelings by analyzing their interpretations of the blots
a)
Thematic Apperception Test
b)
Rorschach Inkblot test
44.

Personality is best defined as an individual's

a)

characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting.

b)

most noticeable characteristics.

c)

biologically inherited temperament.

d)

hidden thoughts and emotions.

45.

"Methods used to avoid recognizing ideas or emotions that may cause personal anxiety" is the definition for...

a)

Fighting

b)

Defense mechanisms

c)

Thinking

d)

Creative solutions

46.

What is the most important stage in the hierarchy of needs according to Maslow?

a)

Self-Esteem

b)

Love and Belonging

c)

Self-Actualization

d)

Safety and Security

47.
This personality type tries  to meet the desires of the id in a way that is socially acceptable in the world. It deals with the reality.
a)
Selfie
b)
Id
c)
Superego
d)
Ego
48.
The "Id" is defined as which part of your human personality?
a)
Based on morals and judgments about  right and wrong 
b)
Dealing with reality
c)
Needing to look good
d)
Meeting basic needs
49.
This situation is a good example of which defense mechanism? "It's OK to post hurtful comments online because everyone does it."
a)
Denial
b)
Reaction Formation
c)
Rationalization
d)
Compensation
50.
This situation is a good example of which defense mechanism? "Stomping your feet and slamming your bedroom door after you and your parents get into a fight."
a)
Denial
b)
Compensation
c)
Reaction Formation
d)
Regression
51.

Putting someone down and making them feel awful, when you really feel bad about yourself is an example of which defense mechanism?

a)

Compensation

b)

Projection

c)

Rationalization

d)

Undoing

52.

Which of the following best describes the circadian rhythm?

a)

the pattern of emotional ups and downs we routinely experience

b)

a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle

c)

the cycle of five distinct stages that we experience during a normal night's sleep

53.

Why is REM sleep considered a paradox?

a)

our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular

b)

we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily

c)

our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move

54.

During which stage of the sleep cycle do humans dream?

a)

NREM-1

b)

NREM-2

c)

NREM-3

d)

REM

55.

When would someone typically walk or talk in their sleep?

a)

NREM-1

b)

NREM-2

c)

NREM-3

d)

REM

56.

How often does the human sleep cycle repeat itself?

a)

About every 90 minutes

b)

About every 4 hours

c)

Every 1.5 days

57.

Which of the following describes the hidden underlying meaning of a dream, according to Freud?

a)

Manifest Content

b)

Latent Content

58.

Which sleep disorder is characterized by temporary cessations of breathing during sleep and repeated momentary awakenings?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Sleep Apnea

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Night Terrors

59.

Which sleep disorder is characterized by persistent problems of falling asleep and/or staying asleep?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Sleep Apnea

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Night Terrors

60.

Somnambulism, or sleep walking, is a fairly common form of parasomnia. In what stage would this NOT occur?

a)

Stage 2

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 3

d)

REM

61.

Caffeine, cocaine, and amphetamines speed up the central nervous system. These would be labeled as...

a)

stimulants

b)

depressants

c)

opiates

d)

hallucinogens

62.

Consciousness is...

a)

A state of awareness.

b)

A state of total inactivity.

c)

A state of denial.

d)

A state of existence.

63.

An altered state of consciousness when you become highly suggestible...

a)

Biofeedback

b)

Hypnosis

c)

Posthypnotic Suggestion

d)

Dreaming

64.

Bad dreams that the sleeper does not remember, but startles them awake...

a)

Nightmares

b)

Daydreaming

c)

Night Terrors

d)

Sleep Walking

65.

Bad dreams that have a vivid, movie-like quality.

a)

Nightmares

b)

Daydreaming

c)

Night Terrors

d)

Sleep Walking

66.

Permanent feelings of sleepiness and fatigue...

a)

Insomnia

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Night Terrors

d)

Sleep Apnea

67.

True or False: daydreaming is a myth.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

True or False: dreams occur in real time.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

True or False: we rarely incorporate our lives into our dreams.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

True or False: lack of dreaming can be the result of not enough sleep.

a)

True

b)

False.

71.

Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one's hunger, thirst, and other bodily needs?

a)

psychological

b)

social

c)

esteem

d)

physiological

72.

Motivation is defined by psychologists as

a)

an impulse to accomplish something of significance.

b)

rigidly patterned behavior characteristic of all people.

c)

a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior toward a goal.

d)

the cause of behavior.

73.

For a thirsty person, drinking water serves to reduce

a)

a drive.

b)

an instinct.

c)

an incentive.

d)

homeostasis.

74.

Positive and negative environmental stimuli that motivate behavior are called

a)

needs.

b)

incentives.

c)

instincts.

d)

drives.

75.
The tendency for one's body to return to  a balanced state is called:
a)
satisfaction
b)
deprivation
c)
homeostasis
76.
Someone might develop a habit according to Drive-Reduction Theory in order to
a)
give in to instincts
b)
reduce drives
c)
get a reward
77.

According to this theory, the announcement of a snow day simultaneously triggers the student's physiological responses and the subjective experience of happiness.

a)

James-Lange Theory

b)

Cannon-Bard Theory

c)

Schachter-Singer Theory

d)

Lazarus Appraisal Theory

78.
Simply forcing oneself to smile (or frown) leads to increased happiness (or anger).
a)
Biofeedback
b)
Facial feedback
c)
Spillover effect
d)
Optimal arousal
79.
The image here best relates to which theory of emotion?
a)
James-Lange Theory
b)
Cannon-Bard Theory
c)
Schachter Two-Factor Theory
d)
Lazarus Theory
80.
Foolish conformity to peer pressure is most likely to be motivated by _____________ needs, according to Maslow. 
a)
safety
b)
belongingness
c)
achievement
d)
self-actualization
81.

These are all examples of extrinsic motivation except for:

a)

Pizza party

b)

Blue 1st place ribbon

c)

Knowing you did what was best

d)

Gift card

82.

What is an example of intrinsic motivation?

a)

Ice Cream Party

b)

Proud of yourself knowing you tried your hardest

c)

Being first in line

d)

Allowance (money for doing chores)

83.

Identifying your strengths is important so that you:

a)

can brag to everyone about how awesome you are.

b)

use them to help you be successful and meet your goals.

84.

What are the two broad categories of motivational forces?

a)

Direct and Indirect

b)

Intrinsic and Extrinsic

c)

Internal and External

d)

Positive and Negative

85.

What is intrinsic motivation?

a)

Motivation that is imposed by others

b)

Motivation that comes from within, finding an activity satisfying or interesting

c)

Motivation driven by external rewards

d)

Motivation that only lasts for a short period

86.

What does years of psychology research suggest about intrinsic motivation?

a)

It is only effective in educational settings

b)

It has no impact on long-term engagement

c)

It is more likely to keep you engaged in the long run

d)

It is less important than extrinsic motivation

87.
Where is Phineas's skull now?
a)
Vermont
b)
Harvard University
c)
New York City
d)
University of Iowa
88.

Where was the damage to Phineas' brain located?

a)

cerebellum

b)

brain stem

c)

occipital lobe

d)

frontal lobe

89.

Why was Phineas' closest companion an iron rod?

a)

He traveled too frequently.

b)

He was determined to work with metal.

c)

He loved horses and animals.

d)

He lost the ability to be social.

90.

What could Phineas still do immediately after the accident?

a)

He can speak.

b)

He can write.

c)

He can climb stairs.

d)

All of the above.

91.

Why does Dr. Harlow declare that "Phineas fully recovered?"

a)

Harlow doesn't want to make Phineas feel bad.

b)

Phineas can walk, count, dress himself, and speak mostly like a normal person.

c)

Phineas didn't suffer any lasting damage from the accident.

d)

Harlow doesn't notice some of Phineas's unusual symptoms.

92.

What is the term used to describe patients who have undergone a corpus callosotomy?

a)

split-brain patients

b)

brain-dead patients

c)

hemispherectomy patients

d)

lobotomy patients

93.

What is the primary function of the right hemisphere of the brain?

a)

To control the left side of the body and process visual and spatial information.

b)

To control the right side of the body and process auditory information.

c)

To control the right side of the body and process visual and spatial information.

d)

To control the left side of the body and process auditory information.

94.

What is the primary function of the left hemisphere of the brain?

a)

Motor control and coordination

b)

Visual processing and spatial awareness

c)

Emotional processing and creativity

d)

Language processing and logical reasoning

95.

What was the primary aim of the Milgram Shock Experiment?

a)

To study the effects of punishment on learning

b)

To measure obedience to authority

c)

To compare obedience levels between genders

d)

To test the effects of peer pressure

96.

What was the role of the 'learner' in the Milgram experiment?

a)

A volunteer from the audience

b)

A researcher observing the experiment

c)

An actor pretending to receive shocks

d)

A real participant receiving shocks

97.

What was the maximum voltage labeled on the shock generator?

a)

150 volts

b)

300 volts

c)

450 volts

d)

600 volts

98.

What percentage of participants administered the maximum shock level in the original experiment?

a)

80%

b)

95%

c)

65%

d)

50%

99.

What was a key ethical concern raised about the Milgram experiment?

a)

Lack of participant compensation

b)

Use of deception

c)

Unclear instructions

d)

Inadequate sample size

100.

What was the main conclusion of the Milgram experiment?

a)

People are likely to obey authority figures

b)

People are naturally disobedient

c)

People are unaffected by authority

d)

People are inherently aggressive

101.

What was the role of the 'experimenter' in the Milgram study?

a)

To instruct the teacher to continue

b)

To observe silently

c)

To act as a learner

d)

To administer shocks

102.

Milgram rigged the "draw" so that the real participant in each trial was always given which role?

a)

Learner

b)

Experimenter

c)

Teacher

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