wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

ASI Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Groups use the book Robert’s Rules of Order to conduct business using a formal organized approach with well-defined rules called:
a)
consensus
b)
dictatorship.
c)
fighting
d)
parliamentary procedure.
2.
The part of a speech that contains the major information that is presented by the speaker is the:
a)
bibliography.
b)
body
c)
conclusion
d)
introduction
3.
The motion to refer a motion to a committee should include:
a)
meeting times and places.
b)
names of committee members and chairperson.
c)
number on committee, how appointed, powers, and when to report.
d)
who appoints committee, where it will meet, and names of committee members.
4.
The part of a speech used to catch the attention of the speaker’s audience is the:
a)
body.
b)
introduction.
c)
outline.
d)
summary
5.
The part of a speech used to catch the attention of the speaker’s audience is the:
a)
body.
b)
introduction.
c)
outline.
d)
summary
6.
Addressing the presiding officer, receiving recognition to speak, stating the motion, the chair securing a second, restating the motion, discussion, voting, and announcing the vote are steps used to receive and dispose of the:
a)
main motion.
b)
motion to adjourn.
c)
motion to stop debate.
d)
motion to suspend the rule.
7.
The longest part of a speech is the:
a)
body
b)
hypothesis
c)
outline
d)
summary
8.
Which phrase would be used in the introduction of a speech about grading meat?
a)
"First, I want to review the history of grading meat."
b)
"Have you ever wondered why meat has a grade on it?"
c)
"In summary, USDA grades of meat indicate quality."
d)
"My references for this speech are USDA Quality Standards."
9.
Which phrase is used in the conclusion of a speech about grading meat?
a)
First, I want to review the history of grading meat.
b)
Have you ever wondered why meat is graded?
c)
In summary, USDA grades of meat indicate quality.
d)
Ladies and gentlemen, my topic is ‘What Meat Grades Mean to You’.
10.
Which procedure guarantees that more than one person wants an item of business brought before the group?
a)
Appeal the decision of the chair
b)
Call for a division of the house
c)
Motion to refer to a committee
d)
Second the motion
11.
this is the type of SAE where the owner organizes, operates, and holds responsibility for all financial risk
a)
exploratory
b)
supplementary
c)
entrepreneurship
d)
placement
12.
if you are asked to sign a work agreement that has been signed by your agriculture teacher and parents then you are performing this type of SAE
a)
supplementary
b)
placement
c)
improvement
d)
exploratory
13.
What type Supervised Agricultural Experience does John have if he has a part-time job working on a poultry farm?
a)
Anaytical
b)
Entrepreneurship
c)
Experimental
d)
Placement
14.

In a self-analysis, evaluating how much education one is willing and able to get is called:

a)

ability

b)

educational aspirations

c)

educational requirements

d)

interest

15.

An animal science career in the marketing, merchandising, and sales representatives category is:

a)

ag ed teacher

b)

livestock buyer

c)

poultry farmer

d)

veterinarian

16.

Which category of professionals does essential research and development that improves the competitive position of the United States in world markets?

a)

Education and communication specialists

b)

Scientists and engineers

c)

Marketing and sales representatives

d)

Managers and financial specialists

17.

About 85% of the jobs in the agricultural marketing, merchandising, and sales representatives category require:

a)

associate's degrees.

b)

masters's degrees.

c)

doctoral degrees.

d)

bachelors's degrees.

18.

This beef animal comes from Scotland, is the most registered breed, and has a high carcass quality...

a)

Angus

b)

Horned Hereford

c)

Charolais

d)

Simmental

e)

Brahman

19.

This swine has erect ears, large litters, a great feed efficiency rate, good mothering abilities, and a long carcass...

a)

American Landrace

b)

Duroc

c)

Hampshire

d)

Yorkshire

20.

This swine has erect ears and a great muscle to carcass ratio...

a)

American Landrace

b)

Duroc

c)

Hampshire

d)

Yorkshire

21.

This swine has drooped ears, a long body, large litters, great mothering ability, and came from Denmark...

a)

American Landrace

b)

Duroc

c)

Hampshire

d)

Yorkshire

22.
Castrated pig
a)
Steer
b)
Capon
c)
Wether
d)
Barrow
23.
Castrated beef animal
a)
Steer
b)
Capon
c)
Wether
d)
Barrow
24.

An animal's parts are its:

a)

Anatomy

b)

Biology

c)

Physiology

d)

Zoology

25.

In addition to conformation, body capacity, and breed character, another major visual consideration for selecting breeding beef or swine is the:

a)

Color of the animal's eyes

b)

color of the animal's hair

c)

Size of the animal's mouth

d)

Structural soundness of feed and legs

26.

On chicken's legs, the part that bends is the:

a)

Hackle

b)

Hock

c)

Knee

d)

Saddle

27.

On a beef animal, the bones on each side nearest the tail head are the:

a)

Fetlocks

b)

Hip bones

c)

Knee bones

d)

Pin bones

28.

The body capacity of animal refers to:

a)

The depth of rib

b)

the height of the animal

c)

Structural soundness

d)

Amount of finish

29.

On a beef animal or a hog, the top part of the head between the ear is the:

a)

Cheek

b)

Muzzle

c)

Poll

d)

Snout

30.

The MOST muscled portion of the rear leg of a beef animal is the:

a)

Ham

b)

Hock

c)

Poll

d)

Round

31.

The leg of the chicken is the:

a)

Cape

b)

Shank

c)

Spur

d)

Wattle

32.

On live beef animal, the hair on the bottom end of the tail is the:

a)

Brisket

b)

Dewlap

c)

Pastern

d)

Switch

33.

The red part of the top of a chicken's head that helps indicate the sex, production, and maturity of the chicken is the:

a)

Beak

b)

Comb

c)

Ear lobe

d)

Wattle

34.

Animals with undesirable physical characteristics should be:

a)

Added to the herd

b)

Bred to genetically inferior animals

c)

Culled from the herd

d)

Moved to another pasture

35.

An animal's overall physical arrangement of body tissue and bone is called:

a)

Muscle

b)

Conformation

c)

Breed character

d)

Anatomy

36.

On a live hog, the section between the belly and the top of the hog that contains the ribs is the:

a)

Foot

b)

Jowl

c)

Pastern

d)

Side

37.

On a live mature chicken, the red parts under the beak that look similar to the comb are the:

a)

Ear lobes

b)

Nostrils

c)

Spurs

d)

Wattles

38.
Steer, heifer, cow, bull, and stag are the five beef animal:
a)
marbling classes.
b)
sex classes.
c)
USDA grades.
d)
yield grades.
39.
An Angus bull that breeds a Hereford cow is an example of:
a)
crossbreeding
b)
grading up
c)
inbreeding
d)
purebred breeding
40.
Approximately 99 percent of the broilers raised in the United States aremarketed through:
a)
auction markets
b)
futures contracts
c)
terminal markets
d)
vertical integration contracts
41.
The marketing method that lets cattle producers sell their animals ontheir farm without commission firms, brokers, or auctioneers involved is:
a)
auction markets
b)
direct selling
c)
local sale barns
d)
terminal markets
42.
The linking together of two or more steps of production, marketing, andprocessing is:
a)
carrying capacity
b)
futures contract
c)
performance testing
d)
vertical integration
43.
The system of breeding which breeds a registered male to a registeredfemale animal of the same breed is:
a)
crossbreeding
b)
grading up
c)
purebred breeding
d)
rotation breeding
44.

As Doug approaches a cow and her newborn calf, what signs does he watch for to indicate the cow is upset?

a)

Chewing the cud

b)

Head raised

c)

Licking the calf

d)

Relaxed muscles

45.

Money or services that a person owes are:

a)

assets

b)

inventory

c)

liabilities

d)

net worth

46.

Carlos walks through his sheep herd daily to:

a)

improve genetics of a flock

b)

acclimate the animals to human contact

c)

check for weather conditions

d)

deworm the animals

47.

A proper preventative maintenance schedule will not include:

a)

record keeping

b)

vaccination

c)

breeding

d)

sanitation

48.

Biosecurity protocols should include:

a)

using dirty equipment

b)

preventing farm tours

c)

grouping facilities together

d)

wearing the same boots

49.

The imaginary circle around an animal that causes them to move away when a human enters the circle is the:

a)

stop zone

b)

flight zone

c)

head gate

d)

contact zone

50.

As Suzy vaccinates her dairy herd, the piece of equipment she most likely will not use is a:

a)

headgate

b)

halter

c)

squeeze chute

d)

muzzle

51.
Largest part of the ruminant digestive system. Solid material is fermented by bacteria
a)
Rumen
b)
Reticulum
c)
Omasum
d)
Abomasum
52.
This ruminant organ grinds, squeezes, and sorts food. It is full of folds of muscle, like the pages of a book.
a)
rumen
b)
reticulum
c)
omasum
d)
abomasum
53.
The true stomach of a ruminant animal, majority of digestion occurs here
a)
Rumen
b)
Reticulum
c)
Omasum
d)
Abomasum
54.
This organ is found in horses and rabbits, and this is where bacterial digestion occurs here before food moves to the small intestine.
a)
cecum
b)
stomach
c)
proventriculus
d)
Omasum
55.
This is the true stomach of the avian digestive system: food is mixed, broken down, and absorbed
a)
proventriculus
b)
gizzard
c)
crop
56.
The tube-like passage from mouth to stomach
a)
Esophagus
b)
Stomach
c)
Small Intestine
d)
Large Intestine
57.
This part of the digestive system absorbs nutrients from digested food.
a)
Small Intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Large Intestine
d)
Mouth
58.
This part of the digestive system absorbs water from digested food
a)
Large Intestine
b)
Small Intestine
c)
Stomach
d)
Esophagus
59.
Which essential nutrient helps form, build, and repair muscles?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Minerals
c)
Protein
d)
Vitamins
60.
Which essential nutrient STORES energy?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Fat
c)
Protein
d)
Minerals
61.
Which essential nutrient is an organic substance that is naturally occurring?
a)
Fat
b)
Minerals
c)
Vitamins
d)
Protein
62.
Which essential nutrient makes up 70% of an animal’s body?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Water
c)
Protein
d)
Minerals
63.
The major source of fats and oils in animal feeds are:
a)
Grains & protein concentrates
b)
Manure & urine
c)
Petroleum products
d)
Vitamins & minerals
64.
What is added to feed to improve the palatability and reduce dust?
a)
Blood meal
b)
Hay
c)
Molasses
d)
Urea
65.
If a livestock farmer who mixes feed on the farm needs an animal protein source that has a high percent protein, which of these should be selected?
a)
Barley
b)
Fish meal
c)
Soybean meal
d)
Wheat
66.
The part of the livestock female reproductive system that is between the infundibulum and the uterus and is also called the fallopian tube is the:
a)
cloaca
b)
oviduct.
c)
vagina.
d)
vulva
67.
The male livestock reproductive part that is a long, coiled tube connected to each testicle is the:
a)
epididymis.
b)
papilla
c)
sheath
d)
urethra
68.
On a reproductive tract removed from a slaughtered bull, the two oval-shaped meaty structures inside the sac or pouch are the:
a)
penis.
b)
sheaths
c)
testicles.
d)
vas deferens.
69.
On a reproductive tract removed from a slaughtered sow, the organ with two branched horn-shaped attachments that was inside the body is the:
a)
clitoris.
b)
uterus
c)
vagina.
d)
vulva
70.
In mammals such as cattle and swine, the act of giving birth is known as:
a)
estrus
b)
gestation.
c)
ovulation.
d)
parturition
71.
On poultry, both the male and the female reproductive tracts have a part just inside the vent called the:
a)
cloaca
b)
oviduct
c)
papilla
d)
vagina
72.
The part of the female reproductive system that serves as a passageway for semen to go from the vagina to the uterus and also seals the uterus during pregnancy is the:
a)
cervix
b)
infundibulum.
c)
ovary
d)
vulva
73.
In poultry eggs, the ovum is called the:
a)
albumen.
b)
cloaca.
c)
shell.
d)
yolk.
74.
In beef cattle, the normal position of a calf at birth is:
a)
back feet first.
b)
front feet first.
c)
head first.
d)
tail first.
75.
The incubation period for chicken eggs is:
a)
6 days.
b)
21 days.
c)
28 days.
d)
114 days.
76.
The time period that a female animal is receptive to breeding is:
a)
estrus.
b)
gestation
c)
libido
d)
rumination
77.
The period of time an animal is pregnant is:
a)
copulation.
b)
gestation.
c)
ovulation
d)
lactation
78.
The milk produced the first few days after a mammal gives birth is:
a)
afterbirth.
b)
colostrum
c)
pasturized.
d)
seminal fluid.
79.
Although poultry eggs are used as food by humans, the original function of eggs is:
a)
beautification
b)
digestion.
c)
disease control.
d)
reproduction.
80.
A major difference between the reproductive systems of livestock and poultry is that the:
a)
livestock embryo develops inside the male’s body.
b)
livestock embryo develops outside the female’s body.
c)
poultry embryo develops inside the female’s body.
d)
poultry embryo develops outside the female’s body.
81.

The United States is the world's largest consumer of beef?

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What industry provides over 1.3 million jobs?

a)

The NC Fair

b)

The U.S. Pet Industry

c)

The Pig Industry

d)

The Dog Grooming Industry

83.

What is the term for a female adult sheep?

a)

Ewe

b)

Doe

c)

Sow

d)

Hen

84.

What is the difference between innate and learned animal behaviors?

a)

Innate behaviors are acquired through observation, while learned behaviors are instinctual

b)

Innate behaviors are instinctual and present at birth, while learned behaviors are acquired through experience and observation.

c)

There is no difference between innate and learned animal behaviors

d)

Innate behaviors are learned through experience, while learned behaviors are present at birth

85.

Which state is listed as one of the top states for turkey sales?

a)

North Carolina

b)

Georgia

c)

Ohio

d)

Iowa

86.

What is a trend in consumer preferences that affects product consumption levels?

a)

Increase in fluid milk consumption

b)

Decrease in beef consumption

c)

Decrease in poultry and fish consumption

d)

Decrease in certified organic product consumption

87.

Which act sets standards for the minimum care and treatment of animals used for commercial sale, research, transported commercially, or exhibited to the public?

a)

The Health Research Extension Act

b)

The Animal Welfare Act

c)

The Lemon Law

d)

The Biotechnology Use Act

88.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of proper animal management and care according to the text?

a)

Healthier animals

b)

More productive animals

c)

Increased medical expenses

d)

Increased profitability

89.

Examines and provides care to wildlife that are sick, injured or orphaned with the hopes of going back to wildlife that are sick, injured or orphaned with the hopes of returning them back to the wild.

a)

Animal Behaviorist

b)

Wildlife Rehabilitator

c)

Cooperative Extension Agent

d)

Animal Trainer

90.

An example of a Service-Learning Immersion Supervised Agricultural Experience is:

a)

marketing for a free summer riding program through the local YMCA.

b)

working at the school barn that trains show horses.

c)

teaching riding lessons as a part-time job.

d)

working at a feed and tack supplier.

91.

Which AKC group does the Beagle belong to?

a)

Herding

b)

Hound

c)

Sporting

d)

Working

92.

What is this dog breed?

a)

Lab

b)

Golden Retriever

c)

Dalmatian

d)

Boxer

93.

This breed is....

a)

Maine Coon

b)

Persian

c)

Ragdoll

94.

What rabbit breed is shown here?

a)

New Zealand White

b)

Dwarf

c)

Dutch

d)

Holland Lop

95.

The white of an egg. This watery substance supplies the growing embryo with food and water.

a)

Yolk

b)

Chalazae

c)

Albumen

d)

Shell Membranes

96.

A catch pole is beneficial as ...

a)

It keeps a safe distance between the handler and an aggressive dog

b)

it can help you reach a dog you cant reach

c)

it calms a nervous dog

d)

it is used to catch a fast dog

97.

Which is not an objective of proper animal handling?

a)

Limit injuries to people

b)

Minimize stress to animals

c)

To make sure you always get the job done no matter what

d)

To ensure the animal's natural behavior is utilized

98.

A female cat is known as a

a)

queen

b)

catrel

c)

doe

d)

tomcat

99.

a male rabbit is known as a

a)

buck

b)

bunny

c)

ram

d)

bull

100.

What is a characteristic of hybrid or 'designer breeds' in the companion animal industry?

a)

Decrease in popularity

b)

Bred for specific desirable characteristics

c)

Lack of consumer interest

d)

Increase in size

Similar Resources on Wayground

BIO II Fall Semester Exam

100 questions

BIO II Fall Semester Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

Unit 8: Protein Synthesis

102 questions

Unit 8: Protein Synthesis

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Anatomy and Physiology Content Knowledge

100 questions

Anatomy and Physiology Content Knowledge

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

APES Final Review

100 questions

APES Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Mitosis & Meiosis plus semester review

97 questions

Mitosis & Meiosis plus semester review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 11th Grade

repaso biologia

100 questions

repaso biologia

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

Fishes Review

95 questions

Fishes Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

Spring MidTerm - Biology

98 questions

Spring MidTerm - Biology

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade