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BIO II Fall Semester Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 major categories of tissues found in the human body?

a)

nervous

b)

vascular

c)

muscular

d)

epithelial

2.

The type of tissue that contains goblet cells for secreting mucus is

a)

squamous

b)

cuboidal

c)

keratinized

d)

columnar

3.

Mammary glands not only secrete milk, but also contain a portion of the secretory cells. Therefore, mammary glands are an example of ____________ glands.

a)

apocrine

b)

merocrine

c)

holocrine

d)

endocrine

4.

The 2 types of fibers are found in connective tissues are:

a)

adipose and elastic

b)

parenchymal and stromal

c)

labile and stable

d)

elastic and collagen

5.

Which type of cells become bone tissue?

a)

chondrocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

osteocytes

d)

fibrocytes

6.

When looking in a microscope, you notice cells within lacuna. Which type of connective tissue are you looking at?

a)

adipose

b)

dense regular

c)

cartilage

d)

dense irregular

7.

When looking in a microscope, you notice large droplets of oil filling most of the cell’s space. Which type of connective tissue are you looking at?

a)

adipose

b)

dense regular

c)

cartilage

d)

dense irregular

8.

Which type of connective tissue is found in tendons, giving them rope-like strength in one direction?

a)

adipose

b)

dense regular

c)

cartilage

d)

dense irregular

9.

Which type of tissue is found in your ear lobe and the tip of your nose?

a)

elastic cartilage

b)

hyaline cartilage

c)

connective tissue

d)

adipose tissue

10.

Which type of connective tissue contains macrophages and mast cells?

a)

bone

b)

blood

c)

tendons

d)

ligaments

11.

When epithelial tissue has more than one layer, it is said to be

a)

simple

b)

stratified

c)

complex

d)

organic

12.

What is the purpose of melanocytes?

a)

to protect the skin from UV radiation

b)

to keep the skin waterproof

c)

to secrete oil

d)

to secrete sweat

13.

Which of the following is the correct order for the layers of skin from top to bottom?

a)

hypodermis, epidermis, dermis

b)

epidermis, hypodermis, dermis

c)

epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

d)

dermis, epidermis, hypodermis

14.

Your fingerprints are caused by...

a)

a build-up of melanin

b)

layers of keratin

c)

a layer of dermal papillae

d)

blood vessles near the skin

15.

Acne is a disorder involving the

a)

Hair follicles

b)

sweat glands

c)

apocrine glands

d)

sebaceous glands

16.

The palms of your hands contain sebaceous glands.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Exposure to ultraviolet light causes the skin to darken by stimulating the production of

a)

carotene

b)

hemoglobin

c)

chlorphyll

d)

melanin

18.

Which of the following is a function of the integumentary system? Select all that apply

a)

Production of Vitamin C

b)

Protection from physical injury

c)

Protection from dehydration

d)

Sensation of temperature

19.

A lack of functioning melanocytes would cause the likelihood of skin cancer to:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

20.

Which of the following layers of the epidermis consists of layers of dead, scale-like, keratinized cells?

a)

stratum corneum

b)

stratum spinosum

c)

stratum germinativum

d)

stratum granulosum

21.

A hair is distinguished from a hair follicle by

a)

A hair is made of living cells, a hair follicle is made of dead cells

b)

Hair is made of dead epidermis; hair follicle is living epidermis

c)

Hair is found in the hypodermis ; the follicle is in the dermis

d)

the hair is the center of the follicle

22.

Epidermis is distinguished by being ______, whereas dermis is distinguished by being ______.

a)

made of connective tissue; made of epithelial tissue

b)

the innermost layer of the skin; under the epidermis

c)

the outermost layer of the skin; made of epithelial tissue

d)

made of epithelial tissue; made of connective tissue

23.

As you go from the stratum spinosum to the stratum corneum, the amount of keratin per cell will:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

24.

The dermis is composed largely of

a)

epithelial tissue

b)

dense irregular connective tissue

c)

loose connective tissue

d)

adipose tissue

25.

Which of the following structures is found in your axial skeleton?

a)

phalanges

b)

humerus

c)

patella

d)

verterbrae

26.

Which of the following structures is found in your appendicular skeleton?

a)

clavicle

b)

cranium

c)

cervical vertebrae

d)

sacrum

27.

T/F: Individuals lacking collagen in their bones may have the disease called "Rickets."

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone?

a)

phalanges

b)

humerus

c)

patella

d)

verterbrae

29.

What is the name given to the long, middle section of a long bone?

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphyses

c)

epiphesal plate

d)

periosteum

30.

T/F: Hydroxyapatites are considered organic components of the bone.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The tough layer of connective tissue surrounding the bone and allowing for attachment to tendons and ligaments is called?

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphyses

c)

epiphesal plate

d)

periosteum

32.

The medullary cavity of an 8-year old boy’s femur would likely be filled with?

a)

periosteum

b)

yellow bone marrow

c)

compact bone tissue

d)

red bone marrow

33.

T/F: The thyroid gland produces PTH when calcium levels are too low.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The “little beams” that make up spongy bone are called?

a)

concentric lamellae

b)

interstitial lamellae

c)

trabeculae

d)

osteons

35.

Select the correct ossification steps in order from first (1) to last (4). I. Osteoblasts form spongy bone II. The matrix around the chondrocytes calcifies and hardens. III. Chondrocytes divide rapidly and form tiny columns of cells. IV. Osteoclasts enlarge the bone marrow cavity.

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

II, III, I, IV

c)

III, II, I, IV

d)

IV, II, III, I

36.

When a bone is broken, a large mass of blood forms that is called a(n)

a)

osteocyte

b)

hematoma

c)

osteoclast

d)

callus

37.

What is the function of hydroxyapatite?

a)

to provide flexibility and keep bones from constantly breaking

b)

to form new osteocytes when a bone is broken

c)

to provide bone strength and hardness

d)

to reduce the amount of calcium in the blood

38.

You haven’t been eating your vegetables or drinking milk. The calcium in your blood is, therefore, quite low. What hormone will break down your bone to put calcium back into your blood?

a)

PTH

b)

osteoid

c)

calcitonin

d)

hydroxyapatite

39.

Which types of joints are immovable or only slightly movable?

a)

synovial & cartilaginous

b)

synovial & fibrous

c)

fibrous & cartilaginous

d)

fibrous & irregular

40.

Turning your head from side to side uses what type of joint?

a)

saddle

b)

ball & socket

c)

hinge

d)

pivot

e)

gliding

41.

Writing a letter uses all of the following types of joints EXCEPT...

a)

saddle

b)

ball & socket

c)

hinge

d)

pivot

e)

gliding

42.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

a)

protection of essential organs

b)

storage of minerals and fats

c)

binding together structures of the body

d)

production of lymphocytes

43.

Muscles are made of bundles upon bundles of fibers. Which is the correct order from LARGEST to SMALLEST in this organizational structure of a muscle?

a)

fascicle, muscle fiber, myofilament, myofibril, muscle

b)

muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, myofilament

c)

myofibril, fascicle, myofilament, muscle fiber, muscle

d)

myofilament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle

44.

When muscles contracts upon stimulation, calcium ions bind to __________, which exposes the binding sites for the myosin cross‐bridges to attach to.

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

troponin

d)

tropomyosin

45.

Your deltoid is connected by _____________ to your clavicle, scapula, and humerus.

a)

muscles

b)

ligaments

c)

actin

d)

tendons

46.

When you do sit-ups, your rectus abdominus is the _________________ and the latissimus dorsi is the _________________.

a)

insertion point; origin point

b)

origin; insertion

c)

prime mover; antagonist

d)

antagonist; prime mover

47.

The binding sites for the cross‐bridges are located on which filament?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

troponin

d)

tropomyosin

48.

Lactic acid, a byproduct of fermentation, is typically produced during __________

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

cellular respiration

d)

glycolysis

49.

Which two structures engage to create a muscle contraction?

a)

fascicle & actin

b)

actin & perimysium

c)

troponin & tropomyosin

d)

actin & myosin

50.

When a myosin head engages with the active site on the other filament, this is known as a(n)

a)

sarcomere

b)

cross-bridge

c)

Z line

d)

M line

51.

What structure closes the trachea while swallowing?

a)

pharynx

b)

larynx

c)

tongue

d)

epliglottis

52.

Which of the following is the term used for the slippery, outer layer of the alimentary canal?

a)

serosa

b)

muscularis

c)

submucosa

d)

mucosa

53.

The gastric juices produced by the stomach include all of the following except

a)

HCl

b)

bile

c)

pesinogen

d)

mucus

54.

The ___________________ is the primary site for fat digestion.

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine

c)

liver

d)

mouth

55.

The ___________________ is the primary site for carbohydrate digestion.

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine

c)

liver

d)

mouth

56.

The ___________________ is the primary site for water absorption.

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine

c)

liver

d)

mouth

57.

The ________________ layer of the digestive tract is responsible for peristalsis.

a)

mucosa

b)

submucosa

c)

muscularis

d)

serosa

58.

A malfunction of the _____________________ would cause chyme to reflux into the esophagus.

a)

ileocecal sphincter

b)

cardiac sphincter

c)

pyloric sphincter

d)

internal anal sphincter

59.

A malfunction of the _____________________ would cause the contents of the small intestine to empty too quickly into the large intestine.

a)

ileocecal sphincter

b)

cardiac sphincter

c)

pyloric sphincter

d)

internal anal sphincter

60.

What are the 3 sections of the small intestine in the order in which food would pass through them.

a)

jejunum, ileum, duodenum

b)

ileum, duodenum, jejunum

c)

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

d)

duodenum, ileum, jejunum

61.

What are the sections of the large intestine in the order in which food would pass through them.

a)

descending colon, ascending colon, transverse colon, cecum, rectum

b)

cecum, transverse colon, ascending colon, descending colon, rectum

c)

cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, rectum

d)

ascending colon, descending colon, transverse colon, cecum, rectum

62.

When someone struggles with acid reflux and experiences a burning sensation in their stomach, which hormone does the brain release to combat this?

a)

Cholecytokinin (CCK)

b)

secretin

c)

Alkaline Mucus

d)

Pepsinogen

63.

What organ secretes a number of digestive enzymes?

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

gallbladder

d)

spleen

64.

What organ stores and releases bile?

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

gallbladder

d)

spleen

65.

What organ secretes hormones to regulate blood sugar?

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

gallbladder

d)

spleen

66.

What macromolecule is used for the growth and repair of all cells?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

protein

c)

lipids

d)

water

67.

What macromolecule is used as our main source of energy?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

water

68.

What macromolecule is essential for keeping our hormones regulated?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

water

69.

Which nutrient is used for all chemical reactions within the body?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

water

70.

What is the main difference between vitamins and minerals?

a)

vitamins are larger molecules than minerals and they are used in the majority of cell processes

b)

minerals are larger molecules than vitamins and they are used in the majority of cell processes

c)

vitamins are required in smaller amounts than minerals

d)

none of the above

71.

Referring to the diagram, what is #1 pointing to?

a)

parotid salivary gland

b)

sublingual salivary gland

c)

mouth

d)

submandibular salivary gland

72.

Referring to the diagram, what is #21 pointing to?

a)

duodenum

b)

ascending colon

c)

descending colon

d)

transverse colon

e)

gallbladder

73.

Referring to the image , what is #6 pointing to?

a)

cardiac sphincter

b)

pyloric sphincter

c)

ileocecal sphincter/valve

d)

lesser curvature

74.

What structure is C pointing to?

a)

Z line

b)

M line

c)

sarcomere

d)

sarcolemma

75.

What number depicts the thread like organelles of muscle fibers?

a)

#6

b)

#5

c)

#8

d)

#7

76.

What number depicts the functional unit of the muscle cell?

a)

#9

b)

#7

c)

#11

d)

#10

77.

What is #2 AND #3 depicting?

a)

myofilament

b)

myofibril

c)

fasicle

d)

muscle fiber

78.

What is the name of the muscle labeled at A?

a)

brachialis

b)

biceps brachii

c)

brachioradialis

d)

pronator teres

79.

This is the posterior view of the leg. What is the name of the muscle labeled at G?

a)

gluteus medius

b)

gluteus maximus

c)

gastrocnemius

d)

soleus

80.

This is the posterior view of the leg. What is the name of the muscle labeled at B?

a)

gluteus medius

b)

gluteus maximus

c)

gastrocnemius

d)

soleus

81.

This is the posterior view of the leg. What is the name of the muscle labeled at H?

a)

semitendinosus

b)

biceps femoris

c)

plantaris

d)

soleus

82.

This is the posterior view of the leg. What is the name of the muscle labeled at E?

a)

semitendinosus

b)

biceps femoris

c)

plantaris

d)

soleus

83.

What bone is #5?

a)

mandible

b)

parietal

c)

temporal

d)

nasal

e)

zygomatic process

84.

What bone is #3?

a)

parietal

b)

occipital

c)

zygomatic process

d)

temporal

85.

What is #9?

a)

Lumbar vertebrae

b)

manubrium

c)

fibula

d)

patella

86.

What is #3?

a)

thoracic vertbrae

b)

clavicle

c)

Lumbar vertebrae

d)

humerus

87.

D is depicting what?

a)

central Haversian canal

b)

osteon

c)

osteocyte

d)

canaliculi

88.

B is depicting what?

a)

central Haversian canal

b)

osteon

c)

osteocyte

d)

canaliculi

89.

A is depicting what?

a)

central Haversian canal

b)

osteon

c)

osteocyte

d)

canaliculi

90.

What is structure G?

a)

Sebaceous gland

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Hair follicle

91.

What is structure F?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Sudiferous gland

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Dermis

92.

What is structure E?

a)

Dermis

b)

Hair follicle

c)

Hypodermis

d)

epidermis

93.

What is structure D?

a)

Hair shaft

b)

Sebaceous gland

c)

Hair follicle

d)

Sudoriferous gland

94.

What is structure B?

a)

Sudiferous gland

b)

Sebaceous gland

c)

Dermis

d)

Hair shaft

95.

Which of the following structures is the lunula?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

96.

The space surrounding the cell body in a connective tissue that is often gel-like or watery (designated by the arrow) is known as the

a)

elastic fibers

b)

collagen fibers

c)

ground substance

d)

epithelial tissue

97.

Which of the following pictures below shows a type of tissue that can stretch and is found in your urinary bladder?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

98.

Which of the pictures below is a simple cuboidal tissue?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

99.

Which of the pictures below shows a pseudostratified columnar tissue?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

100.

The picture below is an example of what type of tissue?

a)

nervous

b)

vascular

c)

epithelial

d)

muscular