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Creatine Kinase (CK)

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the primary source of creatine kinase in the body?

a)

Mainly from striated muscle cells

b)

Primarily from hepatocyte cytoplasm

c)

Mostly from renal tubular cells

d)

Largely from pancreatic acinar cells

e)

Exclusively from cardiac fibroblasts

2.

Why is creatine kinase considered one of the most organ‑specific enzymes in clinical evaluation?

a)

It is largely restricted to striated muscle

b)

It circulates with very long half‑life

c)

It is produced equally by many tissues

d)

It is bound to serum albumin tightly

e)

It is only present during fetal growth

3.

In a dog with increased ALT greater than AST and no increase in CK, what is the most likely interpretation?

a)

Predominant liver injury present

b)

Primary cardiac muscle disease

c)

Acute renal tubular necrosis

d)

Generalized endocrine disorder

e)

Severe hemolytic anemia

4.

In a cat showing increased AST greater than ALT with an accompanying increase in CK, which process is most consistent with these results?

a)

Skeletal muscle injury likely

b)

Isolated hepatocellular disease

c)

Cholestatic liver pathology

d)

Glomerular basement damage

e)

Pancreatic exocrine failure

5.

For horses and ruminants, which pattern suggests liver injury rather than muscle injury?

a)

Increased AST without CK increase

b)

Increased AST with marked CK increase

c)

CK peak followed by ALT increase

d)

ALT higher than AST and CK

e)

CK and ALT both within reference

6.
Question Image

Place each enzyme with its typical temporal behavior after severe skeletal muscle injury resolves, as shown in the curve figure.

a)

CK shows sharp early peak

1.

Peaks by ~1–2 days, falls quickly

b)

AST rises later and declines slower

2.

Peaks around days 2–4, gradual fall

c)

ALT shows small broad increase

3.

Low amplitude over days 3–8

7.

Which statement best explains the clinical significance of cardiac troponins (CTns)?

a)

They regulate ventricular filling pressures directly

b)

They rise in blood when cardiac muscle is damaged

c)

They are hormones that lower systemic blood pressure

d)

They are markers of skeletal muscle training adaptation

8.

A patient presents with dyspnea and edema. Which laboratory pattern most strongly supports decompensated heart failure?

a)

Low BNP with normal cardiac troponins

b)

Elevated BNP with stable cardiac troponins

c)

Low BNP with elevated cardiac troponins

d)

Normal BNP with elevated skeletal troponins

9.

Match each biomarker with its primary role or implication.

a)

Cardiac troponins (CTns)

1.

Indicator of cardiac muscle injury

b)

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

2.

Hormone assisting blood pressure regulation

c)

Skeletal muscle troponins

3.

Protein initiating skeletal muscle contraction

10.

Which statements are accurate about BNP? Select all that apply.

a)

Secreted by cardiac myocytes as a hormone

b)

Helps in maintenance of blood pressure

c)

Diagnostic marker primarily for myocardial infarction

d)

Elevated levels may aid heart failure diagnosis

11.

Which process most directly increases lactate production in tissues?

a)

Aerobic oxidative phosphorylation during rest

b)

Anaerobic glycolysis under limited oxygen

c)

Beta-oxidation of long-chain fatty acids

d)

Gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes

12.

In a horse with suspected colic, which finding best supports intestinal hypoxia based on lactate testing?

a)

Low plasma lactate with high peritoneal lactate

b)

Equal plasma and peritoneal lactate values

c)

High cerebrospinal fluid lactate alone

d)

High plasma lactate with low peritoneal lactate

13.

Select all sites where lactate measurement can aid diagnosis.

a)

Plasma samples from venous blood

b)

Peritoneal fluid from abdominal tap

c)

Cerebrospinal fluid from lumbar puncture

d)

Synovial fluid from joint aspiration

14.

Match each concept to the most accurate description.

a)

Hypoxia

1.

Insufficient tissue oxygen availability

b)

Hypoperfusion

2.

Reduced blood flow delivering oxygen

c)

Equine colic application

3.

Peritoneal lactate rise from hypoxic bowel

d)

Anaerobic metabolism

4.

Generates lactic acid from pyruvate

15.

Which statement best describes the biochemical role of lactate dehydrogenase (LD) in serum?

a)

Catalyzes lactate to pyruvate conversion

b)

Catalyzes pyruvate to acetyl‑CoA conversion

c)

Transports lactate across plasma membranes

d)

Buffers serum pH during intense exercise

16.

Match each tissue with its relevance as a source of serum LD.

a)

Liver

1.

Major source of LD

b)

Skeletal muscle

2.

Major source of LD

c)

Red blood cells

3.

Major source of LD

d)

Neurons

4.

Not listed as a major source

17.

Which structure initiates the hypothalamus–pituitary–adrenal axis by releasing corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF)?

a)

Hypothalamus releases CRF to start the axis

b)

Anterior pituitary releases CRF to start the axis

c)

Adrenal cortex releases CRF to start the axis

d)

Posterior pituitary releases CRF to start the axis

18.

CRF stimulates which gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?

a)

Anterior pituitary secretes ACTH when stimulated

b)

Adrenal medulla secretes ACTH when stimulated

c)

Hypothalamus secretes ACTH when stimulated

d)

Posterior pituitary secretes ACTH when stimulated

19.

In the adrenal axis, which hormone is the primary glucocorticoid released into circulation in most animals?

a)

Cortisol is the primary glucocorticoid released

b)

Aldosterone is the primary glucocorticoid released

c)

Adrenaline is the primary glucocorticoid released

d)

Thyroxine is the primary glucocorticoid released

20.

Negative feedback in the adrenal axis primarily involves cortisol acting on which two secretagogues?

a)

CRF from the hypothalamus

b)

ACTH from the anterior pituitary

c)

TSH from the anterior pituitary

d)

GH from the anterior pituitary

21.

Which statement best explains why adrenocortical function tests are frequently ordered in clinical practice?

a)

Adrenal dysfunction is increasingly common clinically

b)

They are cheaper than all other blood tests

c)

They replace physical exam in all endocrine cases

d)

They diagnose thyroid disease more accurately

22.

Misuse of which drug class can contribute to adrenocortical dysfunction and necessitate testing?

a)

Corticosteroids can cause dysfunction when misused

b)

Beta-blockers can cause dysfunction when misused

c)

Antibiotics can cause dysfunction when misused

d)

Opioid analgesics can cause dysfunction when misused

23.

Which endocrine organs listed are classic sources of hormones released into the bloodstream?

a)

Adrenal glands

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Parathyroid gland

d)

Pituitary gland

e)

Exocrine pancreas

24.
Question Image

Match each adrenal axis component to its primary role.

a)

Hypothalamus

1.

Secretes CRF to initiate axis

b)

Anterior pituitary

2.

Releases ACTH upon CRF signal

c)

Adrenal cortex

3.

Produces glucocorticoids like cortisol

d)

Cortisol

4.

Exerts negative feedback on CRF and ACTH

25.

A patient with hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's syndrome) due to an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma will most likely show which laboratory pattern before therapy?

a)

High ACTH with high cortisol levels

b)

Low ACTH with high cortisol levels

c)

High ACTH with low cortisol levels

d)

Low ACTH with low cortisol levels

26.

Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) is most consistent with which basal hormone pattern?

a)

High ACTH with low cortisol levels

b)

Low ACTH with high cortisol levels

c)

High ACTH with high cortisol levels

d)

Normal ACTH with high cortisol levels

27.

Excessive cortisol production leading to hyperadrenocorticism is most commonly associated with which scenarios?

a)

Pituitary adenoma increasing ACTH secretion

b)

Adrenal carcinoma autonomously secreting cortisol

c)

Chronic glucocorticoid therapy causing iatrogenic changes

d)

Autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex

e)

Primary hypothalamic failure reducing CRH

28.

A patient presents with decreased cortisol levels. Which condition best fits this finding?

a)

Hyperadrenocorticism, often called Cushing disease

b)

Hypoadrenocorticism, also termed Addison disease

c)

Primary hyperthyroidism with excess TSH

d)

Iatrogenic Cushing due to steroid therapy

29.

In typical endocrine feedback, what ACTH level pattern is expected with an adrenal cortisol-secreting tumor?

a)

High ACTH from pituitary stimulation

b)

Low ACTH due to negative feedback

c)

Normal ACTH with circadian variation

d)

Variable ACTH independent of cortisol

30.

Differentiate primary from secondary (iatrogenic) Addison’s disease in terms of ACTH levels.

a)

Both show high ACTH concentrations

b)

Primary shows low ACTH, secondary shows high

c)

Primary shows normal or increased ACTH, secondary shows low

d)

Both show suppressed ACTH due to feedback

31.

Primary use of the ACTH stimulation test in clinical practice is to:

a)

Measure endogenous ACTH secretion directly

b)

Evaluate adrenal response to exogenous ACTH

c)

Confirm pituitary tumor imaging findings

d)

Assess thyroid hormone production levels

32.

Which statement about ACTH stimulation testing and hyperadrenocorticism is accurate?

a)

It distinguishes iatrogenic from spontaneous Cushing

b)

It replaces all other endocrine screening tests

c)

It is designed to diagnose primary hypothyroidism

d)

It cannot be used in Addison’s evaluation

33.

Which hormone directly stimulates the thyroid gland to grow and release thyroxine?

a)

Thyrotropin-releasing factor from hypothalamus

b)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone from pituitary

c)

Cortisol from adrenal cortex

d)

Epinephrine from adrenal medulla

34.

In the thyroid regulatory cycle, which event provides negative feedback to the hypothalamus and pituitary?

a)

Rising TSH concentration in circulation

b)

Rising thyroxine (T3 or T4) levels

c)

Rising TRF secretion from hypothalamus

d)

Rising iodine intake from diet

35.

Which statement best distinguishes hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism across common domestic species?

a)

Hypothyroidism predominates in cats, hyperthyroidism in dogs

b)

Hypothyroidism predominates in dogs, hyperthyroidism in cats

c)

Both conditions predominately affect horses equally

d)

Hyperthyroidism predominates in ruminants and swine

36.

Match each regulatory factor to its primary role in thyroid function.

a)

TRF

1.

Triggers pituitary to release TSH

b)

TSH

2.

Stimulates thyroid growth and hormone release

c)

T3/T4

3.

Provides negative feedback to axis

37.

Which in-house thyroid assays are commonly performed as screening tests?

a)

Total T4 concentration measurement

b)

Free T4 concentration measurement

c)

Baseline TSH response without stimulation

d)

Serum thyroglobulin autoantibody test

38.

Which cause is a plausible etiology for thyroid dysfunction in domestic animals listed?

a)

Dietary iodine deficiency or excess

b)

Dietary vitamin D excess alone

c)

Acute bacterial sepsis alone

d)

Low adrenal cortisol production

39.

A comprehensive thyroid panel for further assessment most appropriately includes which analytes?

a)

T3, T4, and TSH together

b)

TRF, ACTH, and cortisol

c)

TSH, insulin, and glucagon

d)

Free T3 only, no other tests

40.

Which best differentiates maldigestive from malabsorptive malassimilation?

a)

Impaired enzyme activity and altered gastric secretion

b)

Loss of brush border transporters from birth

c)

Autoimmune attack on parietal cell receptors

d)

Increased intestinal motility without inflammation

e)

Primary hepatic failure with bile stasis

41.

A patient with pancreatic insufficiency often remains asymptomatic until what approximate threshold is reached?

a)

About ninety percent of pancreas malfunctioning

b)

About fifty percent of pancreas malfunctioning

c)

About twenty percent of pancreas malfunctioning

d)

Near complete pancreatic functional recovery

e)

Around ten percent of pancreas malfunctioning

42.

Which condition is most consistent with malabsorptive malassimilation?

a)

Acquired disease of the intestinal wall or bacterial overgrowth

b)

Decreased gastric acid with pepsin hypersecretion

c)

Isolated colon dysbiosis without nutrient loss

d)

Enhanced bile acid reabsorption in the ileum

e)

Accelerated gastric emptying after a large meal

43.

Select the correct pairing of bleeding sign and description.

a)

Melena

1.

Black feces with heavy blood loss

b)

Hematochezia

2.

Frank fecal blood

c)

Subtle bleeding

3.

Low-level loss from ulcers or neoplasia

44.

Which statement about fecal occult blood testing is most accurate?

a)

Dietary hemoglobin and myoglobin can cause positives

b)

Red meat intake reduces test sensitivity markedly

c)

The assay detects only visible gross bleeding

d)

Three days of high-meat diet is recommended

e)

Testing cannot detect chronic iron loss anemia

45.

Which scenarios can explain iron deficiency anemia related to GI blood loss? Select all that apply.

a)

Low-level bleeding from GI ulcers or neoplasia

b)

Occult blood loss despite no visible melena

c)

Brief hematochezia after a minor abrasion

d)

Dietary myoglobin causing a false positive

e)

Chronic parasitism with intermittent bleeding

46.

Regarding serum folate and cobalamin in malabsorption, which is true?

a)

Both tend to decrease during malabsorption states

b)

Folate rises while cobalamin is unchanged

c)

Cobalamin increases with ileal inflammation

d)

Only folate is a reliable systemic marker

e)

Both typically increase with steatorrhea

47.

Which action most directly reduces false negatives when investigating suspected poisoning?

a)

Obtain a precise exposure history from caregivers

b)

Delay sampling until stable vital signs occur

c)

Rinse containers with tap water before use

d)

Pool all specimen types into a single jar

48.

In toxicology casework, why should you consult the laboratory before submitting specimens?

a)

To confirm handling, packaging, and transport requirements

b)

To request faster turnaround without documentation

c)

To avoid labeling each container individually

d)

To replace an exposure history with lab screening

49.

Select all practices that help prevent contamination of toxicology samples.

a)

Use clean containers with tight seals

b)

Avoid environmental debris during collection

c)

Label each sample with complete identifiers

d)

Combine food and tissue into one container

50.

Match each item with its correct role in toxicology diagnosis.

a)

Accurate history

1.

Establishes exposure timeline and agents

b)

Proper labeling

2.

Links specimens to the correct patient

c)

Sample types

3.

Includes food, tissue, fluids, vomitus

51.

Which source is a realistic exposure route for lead poisoning in animals?

a)

Old paint and car batteries in barns

b)

Fresh hay and clean groundwater

c)

Table salt and vitamin supplements

d)

Silage inoculants and probiotics

52.

In animals with lead toxicity, which hematologic finding is most characteristic?

a)

Basophilic stippling with nucleated erythrocytes

b)

Macrocytosis with hypersegmented neutrophils

c)

Spherocytosis with Howell–Jolly bodies

d)

Heinz bodies with reticulocytosis

53.

Lead poisoning most commonly produces clinical signs involving which systems?

a)

Gastrointestinal and central nervous systems

b)

Endocrine and reproductive systems

c)

Dermatologic and musculoskeletal systems

d)

Renal and respiratory systems

54.

Match the toxicant to the key mechanism or effect.

a)

Lead

1.

Inhibits enzymes; neurologic and GI signs

b)

Nitrate

2.

Accumulates in plants as fertilizer byproduct

c)

Nitrite

3.

Oxidizes hemoglobin to ferric form

d)

Methemoglobin

4.

Reduced oxygen-carrying pigment in blood

55.

Which statements are accurate about nitrate/nitrite toxicosis in ruminants? Select all that apply.

a)

Rumen microbes reduce nitrate to nitrite

b)

Nitrite converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin

c)

Fresh water oxidizes nitrite back to nitrate

d)

Brown mucous membranes suggest methemoglobinemia

e)

Primary source is paint chips and solder debris

56.

A cow shows chocolate-brown blood and dyspnea after grazing heavy-fertilized forage. What is the most likely pathophysiologic explanation?

a)

Nitrite-induced methemoglobinemia reducing oxygen delivery

b)

Cyanide binding cytochrome oxidase in mitochondria

c)

Carbon monoxide forming carboxyhemoglobin in blood

d)

Lead inhibiting heme synthesis causing anemia