wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

OP 3

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When placing a rubber dam, selecting and securing the clamp is an important step. Which of the following criteria indicates that a clamp has been positioned correctly?

a)

The clamp fits snugly around the cervical area of the tooth, is stable, and does not injure the gingiva

b)

The larger the clamp size, the better for easier manipulation

c)

The clamp only needs to touch the tooth lightly without fully gripping it

d)

The clamp is placed deeply below the gingival margin to ensure absolute isolation

2.

Symptomatic apical periodontitis is characterized by:

a)

Strong positive response to pulp testing

b)

Normal response to vertical percussion

c)

Radiographs

d)

Pain on percussion or biting

3.

Sign of a tooth with pulp necrosis but no periapical (AP) lesion

a)

prolonged pain with cold test

b)

facial swelling

c)

painful to percussion

d)

unresponsive to pulp testing, non-tender to percussion

4.

According to the sequence of cavity preparation steps, which of the following belongs to the 'Final cavity preparation stage'?

a)

Creating the primary resistance form

b)

Creating the primary retention form

c)

Establishing the outline form and initial depth

d)

Pulp protection if needed

5.

Mechanical retention in cavity preparation is mainly achieved by which factor?

a)

Using etchants and bonding agents

b)

Creating small retention grooves in dentin

c)

Creating small retention grooves in enamel

d)

Using pins in dentin

6.

Which sign raises suspicion of a root fracture within the alveolar bone?

a)

The tooth is not mobile

b)

The tooth is very sensitive to cold

c)

No gingival bleeding observed

d)

The crown appears grey in color

7.

Why is GIC preferred as a base (lining) material?

a)

Easy to manipulate

b)

Chemical adhesion and fluoride release

c)

Fast setting

d)

High esthetics

8.

The histological characteristic of asymptomatic apical periodontitis is:

a)

acute inflammation

b)

chronic granulation tissue

c)

pulpal abscess

d)

polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) predominate

9.

What is the most common cause of symptomatic apical periodontitis?

a)

irreversible pulpitis or necrosis

b)

occlusal trauma (or traumatic occlusion)

c)

periodontitis

d)

tooth wear (or dental abrasion/erosion)

10.

Why is moisture control necessary when restoring a tooth with composite?

a)

To reduce air bubbles

b)

To reduce material shrinkage

c)

To enhance esthetics

d)

To increase adhesion

11.

Condensing osteitis is commonly associated with:

a)

Acute trauma

b)

Reversible pulpitis

c)

Unknown cause

d)

Chronic apical periodontitis

12.

According to Andreasen, the best healing outcome for a root fracture is:

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Calcified tissue (calcified callus)

c)

Granulation tissue

d)

Bone

13.

A patient has a high risk of early caries around orthodontic brackets. What is the most appropriate detection method?

a)

QLF – Quantitative Light-induced Fluorescence

b)

Panoramic radiograph

c)

Probing

d)

Staining

14.

What is the main objective of the 'Patient Evaluation' stage?

a)

Scheduling follow-up appointments

b)

Collecting patient data

c)

Taking radiographs

d)

Starting treatment

15.

Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis:

a)

Never needs treatment because it is painless

b)

Always has spontaneous pain

c)

No pain, but shows chronic histopathologic changes

d)

Pulp testing is always negative

16.

Why is reversible pulpitis usually painful?

a)

Mild inflammation – increased intrapulpal pressure

b)

Due to apical periodontitis

c)

Due to pulp necrosis

d)

Complete interruption of the pulp’s blood supply

17.

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis is typically characterized by:

a)

Pain that persists after the stimulus is removed

b)

Pain increases when drinking cold

c)

No thermal response

d)

Pain decreases with heat

18.

Which of the following injuries does not cause loss of tooth structure?

a)

Enamel–dentin fracture

b)

Enamel–dentin–pulp fracture

c)

Enamel fracture

d)

Enamel crack

19.

When placing the Tofflemire universal matrix band, the U-shaped part of the retainer should face which side of the tooth?

a)

Mesial side

b)

Occlusal side

c)

Distal side

d)

Gingival side

20.

When preparing a Class I cavity for Amalgam, which of the following statements about the retention form is correct?

a)

The buccal and lingual walls converge toward the occlusal surface

b)

The buccal and lingual walls converge toward the gingival surface

c)

The mesial and distal walls converge toward the occlusal surface

d)

All walls are perfectly parallel

21.

Why is a pulp polyp usually not painful?

a)

Pulp exposure – reduced intrapulpal pressure

b)

Vascular obstruction – less pain

c)

Pulp necrosis – less pain

d)

Loss of nerve supply – less pain

22.

What is the physiological splinting time for subluxation?

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

No splinting needed

d)

4 weeks

23.

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis commonly leads to:

a)

Asymptomatic apical periodontitis (AP) immediately

b)

Symptomatic apical periodontitis (AP)

c)

Chronic apical abscess

d)

No periapical changes

24.

If a tooth does not respond to both electric and cold testing, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Pulp necrosis

b)

Reversible pulpitis

c)

Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis

d)

Normal pulp

25.

In tooth preparation, the resistance form refers to:

a)

The ability to resist bacteria

b)

The ability of the restoration to withstand masticatory forces without fracturing

c)

The ability to isolate from saliva

d)

The ability to restore tooth color

26.

Tooth has negative pulp test, painful to percussion, X-ray shows no radiolucency:

a)

Pulp necrosis + symptomatic apical periodontitis (AP)

b)

Reversible pulpitis + symptomatic apical periodontitis (AP)

c)

Normal pulp + acute apical abscess

d)

Pulp necrosis + acute apical abscess

27.

When preparing a Class I cavity, what is one of the most serious possible errors?

a)

The axial wall of the cavity should not be convex

b)

Damaging the adjacent tooth

c)

Preparing a cavity with depth less than 2.5 mm

d)

Not beveling the enamel at the margins

28.

In the composite restoration procedure, after etching the enamel surface with phosphoric acid (H3PO4), what characteristic should the enamel exhibit after rinsing and drying?

a)

Smooth and glossy

b)

Glass-like translucency

c)

Chalky white appearance

d)

Shiny yellow

29.

Which sign is NOT associated with acute apical abscess?

a)

Fever

b)

No pain

c)

Pus

d)

Severe pain

30.

Why is resistance form necessary in cavity preparation?

a)

To withstand occlusal forces and prevent fracture

b)

To make the procedure easier

c)

To improve esthetics

d)

To reduce cost

31.

When restoring a tooth with composite, if using a rubber dam is not possible, what should be done?

a)

Isolate using cotton rolls + continuous saliva suction

b)

Continuous saliva suction only

c)

Retract the mouth using a mirror

d)

Do nothing

32.

A sign suggesting symptomatic irreversible pulpitis is:

a)

Spontaneous pain

b)

No thermal response

c)

Quick response to cold

d)

Not sensitive to percussion

33.

What is the main purpose of placing pins in complex Amalgam restorations?

a)

To prevent dislocation of the restoration

b)

To provide retention and resistance form for the restoration

c)

To avoid creating cracks in the tooth

d)

To increase the compressive strength of Amalgam

34.

What are the common mistakes when placing a GIC base?

a)

GIC contains air bubbles

b)

GIC does not set

c)

All of the above

d)

GIC does not adhere to tooth structure

35.

What is flowable composite commonly used for during tooth restoration?

a)

As an adhesive

b)

Polishing the restoration

c)

Lining the cavity floor

d)

Final restoration

36.

In enamel infraction, what is the primary treatment?

a)

Endodontic treatment

b)

Pulp capping

c)

No intervention, monitoring

d)

Porcelain veneer

37.

Which of the following describes the axial wall in a Class II MOD (double) cavity preparation?

a)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth

b)

Parallel to the long axis of the tooth

c)

Located on the occlusal side

d)

Located on the gingival side

38.

Which cells are the main participants in reversible pulpitis?

a)

Neutrophils (polymorphonuclear leukocytes)

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Macrophages

39.

In a root fracture involving the apical third, which sign indicates a better prognosis?

a)

Severe tooth mobility

b)

Dark discoloration of the tooth

c)

Minimal displacement of the tooth

d)

Significant displacement of the coronal segment

40.

A patient presents with sharp pain and sensitivity to sweets or cold drinks. The pain stops immediately after the stimulus is removed. What is the most appropriate pulp diagnosis?

a)

Pulp necrosis

b)

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

c)

Normal pulp

d)

Reversible pulpitis

41.

Which matrix system is specifically designed to improve proximal contact and anatomical form for Class II composite restorations?

a)

Tofflemire matrix

b)

Sectional matrix system with wedge and ring

c)

Celluloid strip

d)

T-shaped matrix

42.

When restoring a Class V cavity, which step is usually performed first?

a)

Isolating the tooth with a rubber dam

b)

Using a self-etch system

c)

Etching the entire tooth surface with acid

d)

Cleaning the cavity with pumice and a nylon brush

43.

Tooth sensitive to biting, prolonged cold response, no apical radiolucency (RL), suspected diagnosis?

a)

normal pulp

b)

reversible pulpitis

c)

irreversible pulpitis

d)

asymptomatic apical periodontitis

44.

The cavosurface angle is:

a)

The tangent angle of the tooth surface

b)

The angle between the external tooth surface and the prepared cavity wall

c)

The angle of the long axis of the tooth

d)

The angle formed by two internal walls

45.

What is the priority treatment for extrusive luxation?

a)

Reposition the tooth and splint it

b)

Tooth extraction

c)

Immediate endodontic treatment

d)

No treatment

46.

Chronic apical abscess is characterized by:

a)

asymptomatic, with a sinus tract

b)

no lesion on X-ray

c)

acute swelling

d)

always severely painful

47.

In patients with a pacemaker, which test should be avoided?

a)

Thermal testing

b)

Laser Doppler

c)

X-ray

d)

Electric pulp testing

48.

In restoring a large broken tooth, what is the purpose of using a dentin pin?

a)

To transmit occlusal forces evenly to the root

b)

To stimulate the pulp to form tertiary dentin for protection

c)

To provide retention for the restoration when tooth structure is insufficient

d)

To increase the strength and durability of the restorative material

49.

Which of the following signs is characteristic of an "arrested" (inactive) carious lesion?

a)

A radiolucent area on X-ray, but the enamel surface remains intact

b)

Cavity shape with pain when stimulated by cold

c)

A surface that is soft, rough, and chalky white

d)

A surface that is smooth, shiny, and dark in color

50.

What is one of the important requirements when finishing and polishing a composite restoration?

a)

Perform the procedure in a completely dry environment for better visibility

b)

Only use diamond burs for finishing

c)

Always use water cooling

d)

Apply strong pressure to finish faster

51.

The patient experiences sharp pain when percussed vertically, and the X-ray shows widening of the periodontal ligament space. This suggests:

a)

Symptomatic apical periodontitis

b)

Acute apical abscess

c)

Symptomatic pulpitis

d)

Pulp necrosis

52.

Asymptomatic apical periodontitis is characterized by:

a)

Radiolucency (RL) on X-ray

b)

Strong response to vertical percussion

c)

Always painful

d)

Acute gingival swelling

53.

What is the recommended etching time with 37% phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) for enamel and dentin?

a)

Enamel 20–30 s, dentin 10–15 s

b)

Enamel 10–15 s, dentin 20–30 s

c)

Enamel & dentin: 15–15 s

d)

Enamel & dentin: 20–30 s

54.

If the tooth is not isolated during etching, what adverse outcome is most commonly encountered?

a)

Effect on tooth color

b)

No effect

c)

Discoloration of the restoration

d)

Contamination with saliva, leading to reduced adhesion

55.

Which type of dentin is formed focally in response to external stimuli such as caries, abrasion, or trauma, with the main purpose of protecting the dental pulp?

a)

Tertiary dentin (reactionary/reparative dentin)

b)

Primary dentin

c)

Secondary dentin

d)

Predentin

56.

The X-ray finding in symptomatic apical periodontitis is:

a)

Always has gingival swelling

b)

Always has a sinus tract

c)

Can be entirely normal

d)

Always radiolucent

57.

To maximize aesthetics when preparing a Class III cavity, which surface of the tooth is usually chosen for the access opening?

a)

From the incisal edge, opening directly into the carious area

b)

The buccal surface, for easier visibility and manipulation

c)

The lingual/palatal surface

d)

The mesial or distal surface depending on the caries location

58.

A patient presents with an early proximal caries lesion. Which diagnostic method is most appropriate?

a)

Visual examination

b)

Sharp explorer probing

c)

Bitewing radiograph

d)

Staining technique

59.

If a liner is not placed in a deep cavity, what potential risk may occur?

a)

Reduced restoration durability

b)

No effect

c)

Reduced aesthetics

d)

Pulpitis after restoration

60.

When a composite restoration shows marginal gaps, what could be the possible cause?

a)

Insufficient acid etching

b)

Contamination with moisture during bonding

c)

All of the above

d)

Weak curing light

61.

Case presents with diffuse swelling, severe pain, mild fever, tooth unresponsive to pulp testing:

a)

Reversible pulpitis

b)

Acute apical abscess

c)

Normal pulp

d)

Chronic apical abscess

62.

If a flowable composite liner is not used at the cavity floor, what consequence may occur?

a)

Microleakage and postoperative sensitivity

b)

No effect

c)

Discoloration of the composite

d)

The restoration will not be glossy

63.

Tooth is unresponsive to pulp testing, non-tender to percussion, X-ray shows apical radiolucency (RL). Diagnosis:

a)

Reversible pulpitis

b)

Condensing osteitis

c)

Pulp necrosis + Asymptomatic apical periodontitis

d)

Chronic apical abscess

64.

A compound cavity is a cavity involving how many surfaces?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

4

d)

2

65.

When the pulp is necrotic but the periapical region appears normal, what does this indicate?

a)

Bone resorption

b)

An early stage of the disease

c)

Chronic diseases

d)

Periodontal disease

66.

A patient has spontaneous night pain, prolonged episodes of pain, and relief when applying cold. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Reversible pulpitis

b)

Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis

c)

Acute apical periodontitis

d)

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

67.

The objective of tooth preparation is:

a)

To reduce the temperature inside the cavity

b)

To change the direction of the tooth’s long axis

c)

To increase retention and resistance to fracture

d)

To prevent gingival infection

68.

According to G.V. Black’s classification, a carious lesion on the proximal surface of an anterior tooth that does not involve the incisal angle belongs to which class?

a)

Class IV

b)

Class III

c)

Class I

d)

Class II

69.

How does G.V. Black’s philosophy of “extension for prevention” fundamentally differ from the modern concept of “minimally invasive dentistry”?

a)

Minimally invasive dentistry only treats early carious lesions using advanced modern methods.

b)

Black’s concept is not applicable to anterior teeth.

c)

Minimally invasive dentistry does not allow the use of Amalgam material.

d)

Black’s concept requires extending the cavity preparation into adjacent pits and fissures, whereas minimally invasive dentistry does not.

70.

Tooth has strong positive pulp test, painful to biting, but no radiolucency:

a)

Pulp necrosis

b)

Symptomatic apical periodontitis (AP)

c)

Acute apical abscess

d)

Asymptomatic apical periodontitis (AP)

71.

Among all tooth isolation methods, which one is considered the gold standard for achieving a dry and clean working field?

a)

Surgical suction tip

b)

Cotton rolls and saliva ejector

c)

Antisialogogue medications

d)

Rubber dam

72.

What is the main purpose of applying glycerin to the surface of a composite restoration and then light-curing again at the final step?

a)

To make the restoration easier to finish and polish

b)

To improve bonding and adhesion

c)

To prevent the formation of the oxygen-inhibition layer

d)

To polish the restoration

73.

According to G.V. Black’s principles of cavity preparation, what is the primary objective of creating “resistance form”?

a)

To extend the cavity so that areas are easier to clean and prevent recurrent caries

b)

To prevent the restoration from dislodging

c)

To facilitate placement of the restorative material

d)

To enable the tooth and restoration to withstand masticatory forces without fracture

74.

The Stephan Curve describes the change of which factor in dental plaque after exposure to fermentable carbohydrates?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Viscosity of saliva

d)

Number of bacteria

75.

Why is intrusive luxation considered one of the most severe dental injuries?

a)

Very susceptible to infection from the oral environment

b)

Always causes associated crown fractures

c)

Causes severe damage to the periodontal ligament and neurovascular bundle at the apex

d)

Causes immediate tooth discoloration

76.

At which step is glycerin applied to isolate the surface of the composite restoration from oxygen in the air?

a)

After polishing

b)

Before placing packable composite

c)

After occlusal adjustment

d)

Before finishing/adjusting the restoration

77.

The characteristic sign of a subluxation injury is:

a)

Slight mobility without displacement

b)

Metallic sound on percussion

c)

Tooth displacement

d)

Tooth completely intruded into the socket

78.

What is one of the main limitations of composite resin?

a)

Poor biocompatibility

b)

Polymerization shrinkage

c)

Cannot be used for posterior teeth

d)

Very slow setting

79.

Why does pulp inflammation easily progress to pulp necrosis?

a)

Due to increased vascular proliferation in the pulp

b)

Due to demineralization caused by caries

c)

Because the pulp is poisoned by bacteria

d)

Because of lack of oxygen and increased intrapulpal pressure

80.

A characteristic of reversible pulpitis is:

a)

Brief, sharp pain in response to cold

b)

No response to pulp testing

c)

Prolonged pain after stimulation

d)

Spontaneous pain

81.

Acute apical abscess is characterized by

a)

always has a sinus tract

b)

localized or diffuse swelling

c)

insensitive to percussion

d)

no pain

82.

What is the optimal time to manage a pulp exposure in a crown fracture (< 24 hours) in order to preserve pulp vitality?

a)

48 hours

b)

72 hours

c)

1 hour

d)

24 hours

83.

When examining a tooth that appears pink in color, what condition should be suspected?

a)

Internal resorption

b)

External resorption

c)

Pulp calcification

d)

Abscess

84.

What is the purpose of placing a wedge during cavity preparation in the proximal area?

a)

To change the occlusion

b)

To create separation (slight space) for easier manipulation

c)

To widen the periodontal ligament space

d)

To control gingival tissues

85.

Crown-root fractures typically have which characteristic?

a)

Fracture line is oblique and usually exposes the pulp

b)

Extraction is the only option

c)

Occur only in posterior teeth

d)

Never involve pulp exposure

86.

What is a characteristic of pulp necrosis?

a)

Occurs only in teeth with closed apices

b)

No response to pulp vitality testing

c)

Always responds to thermal testing

d)

Never causes apical periodontitis

87.

To check the tightness of the proximal contact and any excess restorative material in the gingival area after restoring Class II, III, or IV cavities, which instrument should be used?

a)

Finishing bur

b)

Explorer

c)

Handpiece bur

d)

Dental floss

88.

According to the levels of caries prevention, the patient education on proper diet and toothbrushing technique belongs to which level of prevention?

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Tertiary prevention

c)

Secondary prevention

d)

Active care

89.

Compare the bond strength to enamel and dentin when placing composite. Which statement is the most accurate?

a)

Dentin > Enamel

b)

Depends on the primer

c)

Enamel > Dentin

d)

Enamel = Dentin

90.

Which characteristic is commonly seen in lateral luxation?

a)

Periodontal ligament space is uniform

b)

Tooth is locked in the socket; percussion yields a metallic sound

c)

Tooth is very mobile

d)

No bleeding from the gingival sulcus