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Midterm Review

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of stimuli.

a)

something that provokes a reaction in an organ/tissue

b)

deep grooves in the cerebral cortex

c)

relaxation of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

d)

device for slowing/stopping the flow of blood through a vein/artery

2.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of phagocytize.

a)

ingestion of solid material by a cell

b)

slower than normal HR

c)

towards the reference point

d)

an animal’s nature; behavior

3.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of afferent.

a)

towards the reference point

b)

away from the reference point

c)

temporary loss of consciousness; fainting

d)

rhythmic, wave-like motion through a tubular organ (GI tract)

4.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of efferent.

a)

away from the reference point

b)

towards the reference point

c)

relaxation of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

d)

ingestion of solid material by a cell

5.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of bradycardia.

a)

slower than normal HR

b)

device for slowing/stopping the flow of blood through a vein/artery

c)

an animal’s nature; behavior

d)

deep grooves in the cerebral cortex

6.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of syncope.

a)

temporary loss of consciousness; fainting

b)

something that provokes a reaction in an organ/tissue

c)

contraction of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

d)

away from the reference point

7.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of tourniquet.

a)

device for slowing/stopping the flow of blood through a vein/artery

b)

deep grooves in the cerebral cortex

c)

rhythmic, wave-like motion through a tubular organ (GI tract)

d)

slower than normal HR

8.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of peristalsis.

a)

rhythmic, wave-like motion through a tubular organ (GI tract)

b)

relaxation of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

c)

temporary loss of consciousness; fainting

d)

something that provokes a reaction in an organ/tissue

9.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of bronchodilation.

a)

relaxation of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

b)

contraction of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

c)

ingestion of solid material by a cell

d)

towards the reference point

10.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of bronchoconstriction.

a)

contraction of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

b)

relaxation of the smooth muscle around the air passages in the lungs

c)

device for slowing/stopping the flow of blood through a vein/artery

d)

away from the reference point

11.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of fissure.

a)

deep grooves in the cerebral cortex

b)

an animal’s nature; behavior

c)

something that provokes a reaction in an organ/tissue

d)

slower than normal HR

12.

Matching: Choose the correct response from the drop down box in the column on the right. Select the best definition of temperament.

a)

an animal’s nature; behavior

b)

temporary loss of consciousness; fainting

c)

away from the reference point

d)

rhythmic, wave-like motion through a tubular organ (GI tract)

13.

Which is the MAIN muscle of inspiration?

a)

internal abdominal

b)

diaphragm

c)

epaxial

d)

hypaxial

14.

What structure extends along the ventral midline from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis?

a)

transverse abdominis

b)

diaphragm

c)

linea alba

d)

spinal cord

15.

The diamond-shaped muscle that originates from the dorsal midline and inserts on the spine of the scapula is

a)

brachiocephalicus

b)

trapezius

c)

latissimus dorsi

d)

external intercostals

16.

Which of the following would be the most detrimental to feed to a growing large breed puppy?

a)

Ca supplement

b)

Vitamin E supplement

c)

Vitamin C supplement

d)

Vitamin tablet

17.

Rickets/Osteomalacia are caused by a decrease in all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Calcium

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Vitamin D

18.

Dogs demonstrate what type of estrous cycle?

a)

polyestrous

b)

seasonally polyestrous

c)

diestrous

d)

monoestrous

19.

Signs of a protein deficiency include:

a)

urinary retention

b)

poor GI motility

c)

immunodeficiency

d)

weight gain

20.

Cats are

a)

carnivores

b)

omnivores

21.

Protein is made up of

a)

fatty acids

b)

amino acids

c)

glucose

d)

vitamins

22.

This type of epithelial cell lines the mouth, pharynx, esophagus and anus.

a)

stratified squamous

b)

simple squamous

c)

stratified columnar

d)

simple columnar

23.

This is the most cranial part of the GI system.

a)

oral cavity

b)

esophagus

c)

stomach

d)

anus

24.

Which of these is not a division of the small intestine?

a)

ilium

b)

duodenum

c)

ileum

d)

jejunum

25.

Systemic circulation is under

a)

high pressure

b)

partial pressure

c)

equilibrium

d)

low pressure

26.

The P wave component of a QRS complex usually corresponds to:

a)

atrial contraction

b)

ventricular contraction

c)

atrial relaxation

d)

electrical conduction in Purkinje fibers

27.

On an electrocardiogram, the T wave is most closely associated with:

a)

atrial depolarization

b)

atrial repolarization

c)

ventricular depolarization

d)

ventricular repolarization

28.

The nutritional needs of an adult dog are the same as the nutritional needs of a senior dog.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A food that is “all life stages” is formulated for

a)

Adult Dogs/Cats

b)

Kidney Failure

c)

Senior Dogs/Cats

d)

Puppies/Kittens

30.

The BEST way to assess if an animal is meeting its energy requirements from a pet food.

a)

monitor their weight

b)

monitor their BCS

c)

evaluate their feces

d)

measure their food

31.

Secretin and cholecystokinin are produced by the:

a)

cells in the small intestine

b)

thymus

c)

pancreas

d)

kidneys

32.

Hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex;

a)

glucocorticoids

b)

sex hormones

c)

mineralcorticoids

d)

all answers are correct

33.

During nursing or milking this hormone is released into the bloodstream to stimulate milk letdown:

a)

oxytocin

b)

progesterone

c)

estrogen

d)

antidiuretic hormone

34.

The pressure within the thorax is ________, with respect to the atmospheric air.

a)

neutral

b)

negative

c)

high

d)

positive

35.

What system monitors the levels of CO2, O2, and pH in the blood and directs adjustments in breathing if the levels are not balanced?

a)

internal respiration system

b)

mechanical control system

c)

external respiration system

d)

chemical control system

36.

Nociceptors are important for detecting:

a)

color

b)

warmth

c)

lactic acid

d)

pain

37.

The opening at the center of the “diaphragm” of the eye is the

a)

choroid

b)

ciliary body

c)

pupil

d)

limbus

38.

How many extrinsic muscles of the eye are responsible for moving the eye up, down, and side to side within its socket?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

4

d)

2

39.

The only place in an animal’s body where there are no pain receptors is (are) the

a)

eyeballs.

b)

heart.

c)

brain.

d)

lungs.

40.

The “blind spot” of the eye is the

a)

canthus.

b)

optic disc.

c)

fundus.

d)

limbus.

41.

When should puppy dewclaw and tail dockings be performed?

a)

3-5 days of age

b)

5-9 days of age

c)

10-14 days of age

d)

6-8 weeks of age

42.

What is an onchectomy?

a)

Declaw

b)

Dewclaw removal

c)

Neuter

d)

Spay

43.

A patient is having abdominal surgery, the incision will be made on the ventral midline, how would the patient be positioned?

a)

Dorsally

b)

Ventrally

c)

Right lateral

d)

Left lateral

44.

If you place a feeding tube through the nose, and into the stomach it is what kind of tube?

a)

Nasogastric

b)

Gastrointestinal

c)

Orogastric

d)

Gastric

45.

What is the most common tumor in female dogs?

a)

Mammary

b)

Inguinal

c)

Lipoma

d)

Hemangiosarcoma

46.

Before performing a surgical hand scrub you must:

a)

Remove all jewelry

b)

Put on a cap and mask

c)

Make sure the gown and gloves are open

d)

All of the above

47.

What is the purpose of the surgical drape?

a)

To keep the animal warm

b)

To keep the surgeon focused on the surgical area

c)

To establish a sterile field

d)

To protect the table from debris

48.

A fenestrated drape:

a)

Has a window opening in the middle through which the surgery is performed

b)

Is folded in half in accordion style for ease of opening

c)

Is folded such that the middle of the drape can easily be found

d)

Is a cloth drape made of three double layers of muslin

49.

If a non sterile person must move to the other side of a sterile person, the non-sterile person should pass:

a)

Back to back

b)

Front to front

c)

Facing the back of the surgeon

d)

With their side facing the back of the surgeon

50.

What is the minimum amount of time you should scrub your hands?

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

20 minutes

51.

What do you use to put a scalpel blade on and off a scalpel blade?

a)

Hemostat

b)

Your fingers

c)

The doctor will use a hemostat

d)

It comes with a scalpel blade

52.

What information should be included on a biopsy form?

a)

The location of the tumor

b)

Patient signalment

c)

The clinic name, doctor name, and date

d)

All of the above

53.

How many teeth does and adult dog have?

a)

42

b)

30

c)

44

d)

32

54.

What is the name of the most commonly used dental numbering system in veterinary medicine?

a)

Triadan system

b)

Universal system

c)

Trident system

d)

Trilogy system

55.

Using the triadan system, what tooth number is the left maxillary canine?

a)

204

b)

201

c)

101

d)

304

56.

Which of the following teeth in dogs have three roots?

a)

Mandibular first molar

b)

Maxillary fourth premolar

c)

Maxillary first molar

d)

B and C

57.

What is the primary function of canine teeth in dogs and cats?

a)

Grinding food

b)

Grasping food

c)

Grasping and tearing prey

d)

Chewing plant material

58.

What is the difference between an uncomplicated and a complicated fracture?

a)

An uncomplicated fracture does not expose the pulp, a complicated fracture has tooth exposure

b)

Uncomplicated fractures are more severe than complicated fractures

c)

Uncomplicated fractures always require extraction, while complicated fractures do not

d)

There is no difference

59.

What is the most common malignant oral tumor in cats?

a)

Malignant melanoma

b)

Squamos cell carcinoma

c)

Fibrosarcoma

d)

Mammary tumor

60.

Which skull shape is characterized by a short, broad head and crowded teeth?

a)

Brachycephalic

b)

Mesaticephalic

c)

Dolichocephalic

d)

Prognathic

61.

What is the natural space between the free gingiva and the tooth

a)

Gingival margin

b)

Periodontal pocket

c)

Gingival sulcus

d)

Alveolar space

62.

Gingivitis is reversible with proper care

a)

True

b)

False

63.

The bisecting angle technique is used in dental radiography to minimize distortion when imaging maxillary teeth

a)

True

b)

False

64.

All dogs and cats should receive the same vaccine dose, regardless of size

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Small oxygen tanks are __ tanks, and large are __ tanks

a)

E, H

b)

A, Z

c)

H, E

d)

S, B

66.

When should CO2 granules be changed?

a)

After 6–8 hours of use

b)

Once a year

c)

Never

d)

After it gains 50 g

67.

In cats, the most common malignant oral tumor is

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

68.

In dogs, the most common benign oral tumor is

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

69.

What shows the amount of oxygen the patient is receiving in L/min

a)

Pressure manometer

b)

Flowmeter

c)

Oxygen tank pressure gauge

70.

Match the parts of the anesthesia machine to what it does: Flush valve

a)

Non-rebreather

b)

Attaches E tank to the machine

c)

Rebreather

d)

Absorbs carbon dioxide from exhaled air

e)

delivers a burst of 40-50 psi oxygen into the system

71.

Match the parts of the anesthesia machine to what it does: CO2 Absorber

a)

Non-rebreather

b)

Attaches E tank to the machine

c)

Rebreather

d)

Absorbs carbon dioxide from exhaled air

e)

delivers a burst of 40-50 psi oxygen into the system

72.

Match the parts of the anesthesia machine to what it does: Yoke

a)

Non-rebreather

b)

Attaches E tank to the machine

c)

Rebreather

d)

Absorbs carbon dioxide from exhaled air

e)

delivers a burst of 40-50 psi oxygen into the system

73.

Match the parts of the anesthesia machine to what it does: Pressure reducing valve

a)

Non-rebreather

b)

Attaches E tank to the machine

c)

Rebreather

d)

Absorbs carbon dioxide from exhaled air

e)

delivers a burst of 40-50 psi oxygen into the system

74.

Match the parts of the anesthesia machine to what it does: Vaporizer

a)

Non-rebreather

b)

Attaches E tank to the machine

c)

Rebreather

d)

Absorbs carbon dioxide from exhaled air

e)

delivers a burst of 40-50 psi oxygen into the system

75.

Match the parts of the anesthesia machine to what it does: Patients under 15 pounds use

a)

Non-rebreather

b)

Attaches E tank to the machine

c)

Rebreather

76.

Match the parts of the anesthesia machine to what it does: Patients over 15 pounds use

a)

Non-rebreather

b)

Attaches E tank to the machine

c)

Rebreather

77.

The pop off valve should always be open.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

What is the average of systolic and diastolic pressure?

a)

MAP

b)

PAM

c)

MEP

d)

REM

79.

Neutering lessens the chances of intermale aggression, separation anxiety, and prostate enlargment.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Which lymph node is under the front leg?

a)

Axillary

b)

Popliteal

c)

Submandibular

d)

Lingual

81.

Which Lymph node is located at the back of the stifle?

a)

Axillary

b)

Popliteal

c)

Submandibular

d)

Inguinal

82.

Passive immunity is passed from mother to offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

What is the predominant method of transmission for FIV?

a)

Feces

b)

Bite wounds

c)

Urine

d)

Grooming

84.

Which canine disease is resilient in the enviorment and easily spread through contaminated surfaces?

a)

Lyme

b)

Parvovirus

c)

Parainfluenza

d)

Distemper

85.

What age is the correct range for a puppy's initial vet visit?

a)

8-12 weeks

b)

4-6 weeks

c)

6-8 weeks

d)

3-5 weeks

86.

What is a dogs normal heart rate?

a)

60-160 bpm

b)

40-240 bpm

c)

90-120 bpm

d)

140-240 bpm

87.

Normal respiration rate for dogs

a)

10-15 breaths per minute

b)

15-30 breaths per minute

c)

10-40 breaths per minute

d)

5-15 breaths per minute

88.

Oral drugs should never be administered in vomiting animals

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Cutane/o is the combining form for skin

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Which of the following does not mean skin?

a)

Trich/o

b)

Cutane/o

c)

Dermat/o

d)

Derm/o

91.

The cell membrane is considered semi-permeable because it allows the passage of some molecules but not others

a)

True

b)

False

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