WorksheetsHEMA2-21
Total questions: 103
Worksheet time: 52mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Light-transmittance platelet aggregometry is designed to test which type of sample?
a)
Whole blood
b)
Platelet-poor-plasma
c)
Platelet-rich-plasma
d)
Packed Red blood cells
2.
What anticoagulant is used and inspected for clots in platelet aggregometry?
a)
EDTA
b)
Sodium citrate
c)
Sodium heparin
d)
Acid citrate dextrose
3.
What is the centrifugation condition to prepare PRP?
a)
500 g for 10 minutes
b)
50 x g for 10 minutes
c)
50 x g for 15 minutes
d)
50 x g for 30 minutes
4.
At what temperature should PRP be stored until testing begins?
a)
0 to 4 degree Celsius
b)
18 to 24 degree Celsius
c)
22 to 24 degree Celsius
d)
All of the above
5.
PRP-based light-transmittance aggregometry must be initiated no less than how long after centrifugation?
a)
10 minutes
b)
20 minutes
c)
30 minutes
d)
2 hours
6.
Aggregometry testing must be completed within how long from specimen collection?
a)
1 hour
b)
2 hours
c)
4 hours
d)
8 hours
7.
To obtain adequate PRP, the original specimen must contain how much whole blood?
a)
2 to 4 mL
b)
9 to 12 mL
c)
5 to 7 mL
d)
15 to 18 mL
8.
Light-transmittance platelet aggregometry becomes unreliable at platelet counts LESS THAN:
a)
200,000/µL
b)
150,000/µL
c)
100,000/µL
d)
50,000/µL
9.
Bernard-Soulier syndrome exhibit what response on ACE (ADP, Collagen, and epinephrine) aggregating reagent?
a)
Normal response
b)
Abnormal response
10.
Von Willebrand disease exhibit what response on ACE (ADP, Collagen, and epinephrine) aggregating reagent?
a)
Normal response
b)
Abnormal response
11.
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia exhibit what response on ACE (ADP, Collagen, and epinephrine) aggregating reagent?
a)
Normal response
b)
Abnormal response
12.
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia exhibit what response on Ristocetin aggregating reagent?
a)
Normal response
b)
Abnormal response
13.
Bernard-Soulier syndrome exhibit what response on Ristocetin aggregating reagent?
a)
Normal response
b)
Abnormal response
14.
Von Willebrand disease exhibit what response on Ristocetin aggregating reagent?
a)
Normal response
b)
Abnormal response
15.
measures platelet aggregation and ATP release (from dense granules)
a)
Platelet aggregometry
b)
Platelet lumiaggregometry
16.
performed on whole blood diluted with saline
a)
Platelet aggregometry
b)
Platelet lumiaggregometry
17.
As ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is liberated, it oxidizes a firefly derived luciferin-luciferase reagent to produce cold chemiluminescence proportional to the ATP concentration.
a)
Platelet aggregometry
b)
Platelet lumiaggregometry
18.
Designed to test platelet-rich plasma (plasma with a platelet count of 200,000 to 300, 000/uL)
a)
Platelet aggregometry
b)
Platelet lumiaggregometry
19.
What results does individuals with vascular disorders yield in platelet count, platelet fixation tests, and coagulation tests?
a)
Normal results in these tests
b)
Abnormal results in these tests
20.
What results does individuals with vascular disorders yield in bleeding time and rumple leede test?
a)
Normal results in these tests
b)
Abnormal results in these tests
21.
most common inherited vascular bleeding disorder
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
22.
characterized by localized dilation of capillary walls (skin and mucous membranes)
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
23.
aka: Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
24.
aka: Cutis Hyperelastica
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
25.
characteristics include: hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, joint laxity, fragile tissues, subcutaneous hematoma formation
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
26.
aka: Allergic Purpura or Nonthrombocytopenic Purpura
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
27.
most commonly seen in children
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
28.
characterized by gastrointestinal hemorrhage and joint swelling
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
29.
aka: Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) deficiency
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
30.
characterized by defects in the synthesis of collagen and hyaluronic acid
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
31.
vascular abnormalities: most probably caused by immunologic damage to the endothelial cells
a)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
b)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c)
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
d)
Scurvy
32.
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is inherited as?
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal dominant
d)
Autosomal recessive
33.
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
34.
Fanconi anemia
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
35.
TAR (Thromobocytopenia with Absent Radius) syndrome
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
36.
Viral infections
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
37.
Leukemia
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
38.
Megaloblastic anemias
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
39.
WAS (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome)
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
40.
MYH9 gene mutations (ex.: May-Hegglin Anomaly)
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
41.
HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
42.
DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
43.
ITP (immune thrombocytopenic purpura)
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
44.
TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura)
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
45.
HIT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia)
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
46.
Gaucher disease
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
47.
Portal hypertension
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
48.
Cirrhosis of the liver
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
49.
Lymphoma
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
50.
Sarcoidosis
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
51.
Hodgkin’s disease
a)
Thrombocytopenia due to Impaired or decreased platelet production
b)
Thrombocytopenia due toIncreased platelet destruction
c)
Thrombocytopenia due to Increased Splenic Sequestration
52.
aka secondary thrombocytosis
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
53.
characterized by moderately increased platelet count
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
54.
aka primary thrombocytosis
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
55.
characterized by markedly increased platelet count
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
56.
Recovery from splenectomy is associated with?
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
57.
Acute blood loss is associated with?
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
58.
Major surgery is associated with?
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
59.
Essential thrombocytopenia is associated with?
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
60.
Chronic myelogenous leukemia is associated with?
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
61.
Polycythemia vera is associated with?
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
62.
Primary myelofibrosisis associated with?
a)
Reactive thrombocytosis
b)
Autonomous thrombocytosis
63.
-group of malignant neoplasms
a)
Myeloproliferative neoplasms
b)
Essential thrombocythemia
64.
characterized by elevations in one or more myeloid cell types in the peripheral blood
a)
Myeloproliferative neoplasms
b)
Essential thrombocythemia
65.
described as clonal proliferations of bone marrow stem cells
a)
Myeloproliferative neoplasms
b)
Essential thrombocythemia
66.
an example of an MPN
-some of the characteristics:
·uncontrolled proliferation of bone marrow megakaryocytes
·platelet count: exceeding 1 million/µL
a)
Myeloproliferative neoplasms
b)
Essential thrombocythemia
67.
Deficiency of GP Ib/IX/V
a)
Bernard Soulier Syndrome
b)
von Willebrand's Disease
68.
Characterized by decreased platelet count, giant platelets, normal aggregation in ACE and abnormal aggregation in Ristocetin
a)
Bernard Soulier Syndrome
b)
von Willebrand's Disease
69.
Characterized by decreased factor VIII, normal PT, prolonged aPTT, normal aggregation in ACE, and abnormal aggregation in Ristocetin
a)
Bernard Soulier Syndrome
b)
von Willebrand's Disease
70.
Process wherein platelets adhere to a foreign surface
a)
Platelet adhesion
b)
Platelet aggregation
c)
Platelet secretion
71.
process wherein platelets adhere to other platelets
a)
Platelet adhesion
b)
Platelet aggregation
c)
Platelet secretion
72.
Platelet fibrinogen receptor
a)
GP Ib/IX/V
b)
VWF
c)
GP IIb/IIIa
d)
Fibrinogen
73.
serves as a brige on pHl can bind to different GP IIb/IIIa
a)
GP Ib/IX/V
b)
VWF
c)
GP IIb/IIIa
d)
Fibrinogen
74.
primary platelet surface receptor for VWF
a)
GP Ib/IX/V
b)
VWF
c)
GP IIb/IIIa
d)
Fibrinogen
75.
Bernard Soulier syndrome is an example of?
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal dominant
d)
Autosomal recessive
76.
Von Willebrand disease is an example of?
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal dominant
d)
Autosomal recessive
77.
Which of the following is the most common variant of VWD?
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
78.
Which of the following is the rarest variant of VWD?
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
79.
Which of the following is the most severe variant of VWD?
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
80.
Bleeding time: Normal or increased
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
81.
Bleeding tendency: Mild
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
82.
Bleeding tendency: Moderate
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
83.
Bleeding tendency: Often severe
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
84.
Petechiae: Occasionally
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
85.
Petechiae: Usually none
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
86.
Petechiae: None at all
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
87.
Bleeding time: Increased
a)
Type I VWD
b)
Type II VWD
c)
Type III VWD
88.
Which platelet aggregation disorder exhibits a deficiency of GP IIb/IIIa?
a)
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
b)
Hereditary afibrinogenemia
89.
Which platelet aggregation disorder is characterized by a very prolonged BT, abnormal clot retraction, and abnormal aggregation response in ACE?
a)
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
b)
Hereditary afibrinogenemia
90.
Which platelet aggregation disorder is characterized by absence of fibrinogen in the blood?
a)
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
b)
Hereditary afibrinogenemia
91.
Gray platelet syndrome exhibits what inheritance pattern?
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal dominant
d)
Autosomal recessive
92.
The inheritance pattern of Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome, Chediak-Higashi syndrome, and TAR syndrome is?
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal dominant
d)
Autosomal recessive
93.
What is the most common acquired bleeding disorder?
a)
Trauma-induced coagulopathy
b)
Vitamin-K deficiency
c)
Liver disease
d)
VWD
94.
All of the statements below regarding Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia are correct, except:
1.) It is a rare autosomal recessive disorder.
2.) It occurs with lesser frequency than BSS.
3.) This disorder demonstrates normal clot retraction. 4.) This disorder shows normal platelet count and normal platelet morphology.
5.) A prolonged bleeding time result is expected in a patient with this condition.
a)
3, 4, and 5
b)
3 and 4
c)
2 and 3
d)
1, 3 and 4
95.
Quebec platelet disorder exhibits what inheritance pattern?
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal dominant
d)
Autosomal recessive
96.
characteristics: *specific absence of morphologically recognizable α-granules in thrombocytes *lifelong mild bleeding tendencies *moderate thrombocytopenia *fibrosis of the marrow *large, gray platelets *plasma levels of PF-4 and β-thromboglobulin: INCREASED
a)
Gray platelet syndrome
b)
Quebec platelet disorder
c)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
d)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
e)
TAR syndrome
97.
Which dense granule deficiency exhibits oculocutaneous albinism?
a)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
b)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
TAR syndrome
98.
Which dense granule deficiency exhibits partial albinism?
a)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
b)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
TAR syndrome
99.
In infancy, LOW platelet count but within 1 year of birth, NORMAL platelet count
a)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
b)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
TAR syndrome
100.
Which dense granule deficiency exhibits NORMAL platelet count?
a)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
b)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
TAR syndrome
101.
Which dense granule deficiency exhibits LOW platelet count?
a)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
b)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
TAR syndrome
102.
Which dense granule deficiency has no albinism?
a)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
b)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
TAR syndrome
103.
-results from a deficiency of multimerin (a protein stored in α granules)
a)
Gray platelet syndrome
b)
Quebec platelet disorder
c)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
d)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
e)
TAR syndrome
100 %
