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Shifting Exam 112

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports difficulty breathing. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?

a)

Impaired Gas Exchange

b)

Ineffective Airway Clearance

c)

Activity Intolerance

d)

Risk for Infection

2.

A patient with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL. The nurse identifies which nursing diagnosis?

a)

Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose

b)

Deficient Knowledge

c)

Impaired Skin Integrity

d)

Risk for Infection

3.

A patient with heart failure has bilateral edema in the lower extremities. Which nursing diagnosis is most relevant?

a)

Fluid Volume Excess

b)

Impaired Skin Integrity

c)

Activity Intolerance

d)

Risk for Falls

4.

A patient recovering from surgery reports pain at the incision site. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Risk for Infection

c)

Impaired Mobility

d)

Deficient Knowledge

5.

A patient with depression refuses to eat and has lost weight. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?

a)

Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements

b)

Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity

c)

Ineffective Coping

d)

Social Isolation

6.

During a respiratory assessment, the nurse hears crackles in the lung bases. What does this finding suggest?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Asthma

c)

Chronic Bronchitis

d)

Emphysema

7.

A patient’s blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg. How should the nurse classify this reading?

a)

Stage 2 Hypertension

b)

Stage 1 Hypertension

c)

Prehypertension

d)

Normal

8.

During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse palpates a thrill over the precordium. What does this indicate?

a)

Valvular Heart Disease

b)

Myocardial Infarction

c)

Pericarditis

d)

Hypertension

9.

A patient has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F). How should the nurse interpret this finding?

a)

Fever

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Normal

d)

Hyperthermia

10.

During a neurological assessment, the nurse observes that the patient’s pupils are unequal in size. What is this condition called?

a)

Anisocoria

b)

Mydriasis

c)

Miosis

d)

Nystagmus

11.

In the FDAR format, what does the "Focus" component represent?

a)

The patient’s primary concern

b)

The nurse’s action plan

c)

The patient’s response to interventions

d)

The collected data

12.

Which of the following is an example of the "Action" component in FDAR?

a)

Administering prescribed medication

b)

Observing the patient’s condition

c)

Documenting the patient’s response

d)

Identifying the patient’s problem

13.

A patient reports chest pain. Which of the following is the "Data" component in FDAR?

a)

Administering nitroglycerin

b)

Documenting the patient’s pain level as 8/10

c)

Monitoring the patient’s response

d)

Identifying the pain as angina

14.

In FDAR, the "Response" component refers to:

a)

The patient’s reaction to the intervention

b)

The nurse’s assessment findings

c)

The physician’s orders

d)

The patient’s medical history

15.

Which of the following is an example of the "Focus" component in FDAR?

a)

Elevated blood pressure

b)

Administering antihypertensive medication

c)

Documenting the patient’s response

d)

Monitoring blood pressure

16.

What is the primary cause of a goiter?

a)

Iodine deficiency

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Thyroid cancer

17.

Which hormone is most commonly associated with goiter formation?

a)

Thyroxine (T4)

b)

Triiodothyronine (T3)

c)

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

d)

Calcitonin

18.

Which symptom is commonly associated with a goiter?

a)

Swelling in the neck

b)

Weight loss

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Heat intolerance

19.

Which diagnostic test is most useful for evaluating a goiter?

a)

Thyroid ultrasound

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

d)

Complete blood count (CBC)

20.

Which treatment is most effective for a goiter caused by iodine deficiency?

a)

Iodine supplementation

b)

Thyroidectomy

c)

Radioactive iodine therapy

d)

Antithyroid medications

21.

What is the most common cause of a sigmoid mass?

a)

Colorectal cancer

b)

Diverticulitis

c)

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

d)

Crohn’s disease

22.

Which symptom is most commonly associated with a sigmoid mass?

a)

Rectal bleeding

b)

Abdominal pain

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Weight loss

23.

Which diagnostic test is most useful for identifying a sigmoid mass?

a)

Colonoscopy

b)

Abdominal X-ray

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

24.

Which treatment is most appropriate for a sigmoid mass caused by colorectal cancer?

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

Radiation therapy

c)

Surgical resection

d)

Antibiotics

25.

Which complication is most likely to occur with a sigmoid mass?

a)

Bowel obstruction

b)

Peritonitis

c)

Sepsis

d)

Hemorrhage

26.

A patient is prescribed 500 mg of a medication. The available dose is 250 mg per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

a)

1 tablet

b)

2 tablets

c)

3 tablets

d)

4 tablets

27.

A patient is prescribed 0.5 mg of a medication. The available dose is 1 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

a)

0.5 mL

b)

1 mL

c)

1.5 mL

d)

2 mL

28.

A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of IV fluid over 8 hours. What is the infusion rate in mL/hour?

a)

125 mL/hour

b)

150 mL/hour

c)

200 mL/hour

d)

250 mL/hour

29.

A patient is prescribed 50 mg of a medication. The available dose is 25 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

a)

5 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

15 mL

d)

20 mL

30.

A patient is prescribed 750 mg of a medication. The available dose is 250 mg per capsule. How many capsules should the nurse administer?

a)

1 capsule

b)

2 capsules

c)

3 capsules

d)

4 capsules

31.

A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of normal saline over 10 hours. What is the infusion rate in mL/hour?

a)

50 mL/hour

b)

100 mL/hour

c)

150 mL/hour

d)

200 mL/hour

32.

Which IV fluid is most appropriate for a patient with dehydration?

a)

Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)

b)

Dextrose 5% in water (D5W)

c)

Lactated Ringer’s solution

d)

Hypertonic saline

33.

A patient is prescribed 500 mL of IV fluid over 4 hours. What is the infusion rate in mL/hour?

a)

100 mL/hour

b)

125 mL/hour

c)

150 mL/hour

d)

200 mL/hour

34.

Which complication is most commonly associated with IV infusion?

a)

Phlebitis

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypoglycemia

35.

A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution over 12 hours. What is the infusion rate in mL/hour?

a)

50 mL/hour

b)

75 mL/hour

c)

83 mL/hour

d)

100 mL/hour

36.

A patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What is the primary action of this medication?

a)

Increase metabolic rate

b)

Decrease thyroid hormone production

c)

Suppress TSH secretion

d)

Increase iodine absorption

37.

Which of the following is a common side effect of antithyroid medications?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Heat intolerance

d)

Hypothyroidism

38.

A patient with a sigmoid mass is scheduled for a colonoscopy. What is the primary purpose of this procedure?

a)

Biopsy the mass

b)

Remove the mass

c)

Diagnose the cause of the mass

d)

Monitor the mass

39.

Which of the following is a common symptom of colorectal cancer?

a)

Rectal bleeding

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Weight loss

d)

All of the above

40.

A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of IV fluid over 8 hours. What is the infusion rate in drops/minute if the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL?

a)

20 gtt/minute

b)

25 gtt/minute

c)

30 gtt/minute

d)

35 gtt/minute

41.

Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid medications?

a)

Constipation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Hypertension

d)

Tachycardia