WorksheetsMICRO-9
Total questions: 119
Worksheet time: 3570secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
If there's delay in normal processing, spx with normal flora must be at what temperature?
a)
4 degree Celsius
b)
2 hours at room temperature
c)
15 minutes at room temperature
d)
Refrigerator temperature
2.
Viruses and Virus-like or intracellular organisms (Chlamydia, Rickettsia) – Transport at
a)
4 degree Celsius
b)
2 hours at room temperature
c)
15 minutes at room temperature
d)
Refrigerator temperature
3.
Nonsterile specimen – Transport within
a)
4 degree Celsius
b)
2 hours at room temperature
c)
15 minutes at room temperature
d)
Refrigerator temperature
4.
Sterile specimen – Transport within
a)
4 degree Celsius
b)
2 hours at room temperature
c)
15 minutes at room temperature
d)
Refrigerator temperature
5.
Daptomycin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
6.
Dalfopristin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
7.
Quinupristin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
8.
Pristinamycin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
9.
Streptogramin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
10.
Tedizolid
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
11.
Linezolid
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
12.
Colistin & Polymyxin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
13.
Penicillin (-cillin)
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
14.
Doxycycline
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
15.
Fluoroquinolones (-floxacin)
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
16.
Nalidixic acid
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
17.
Sulfonamide and Trimethoprim (SXT)
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
18.
Tetracycline
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
19.
Clindamycin(for anaerobes)
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
20.
Macrolide (Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
21.
Chloramphenicol
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
22.
Tigecycline
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
23.
Aminoglycoside (Genta-, Tobra-, Strepto-, Kana -mycin)
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
24.
Bacitracin
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
25.
Monobactam (aztreonam)
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
26.
Carbapenem (-penem
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
27.
Cephalosporin (Cef-)
a)
For gram-positive only
b)
For gram-negative only
c)
For both gram positive and gram-negative
28.
Reduced susceptibility of organism to a particular antimicrobial
a)
Biologic resistance
b)
Clinical resistance
c)
Intrinsic resistance
d)
Acquired resistance
29.
Achieved when a particular antimicrobial can no longer be used clinically against a certain bacteria.
a)
Biologic resistance
b)
Clinical resistance
c)
Intrinsic resistance
d)
Acquired resistance
30.
Antimicrobial resistance because of the microorganism’s normal genetic structural or physiological state
a)
Biologic resistance
b)
Clinical resistance
c)
Intrinsic resistance
d)
Acquired resistance
31.
Antimicrobial resistance that results from the “altered” cellular physiology and structure caused by changes in a microorganism’s genetic make-up.
a)
Biologic resistance
b)
Clinical resistance
c)
Intrinsic resistance
d)
Acquired resistance
32.
Beta-lactamase destroys B-lactam ring of antibiotic
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
33.
Staphylococcus resistance to penicillin
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
34.
Enterobacterales and P. aeruginosa resistance to β-lactam drugs
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
35.
Modifying enzymes alters various sites resulting to decreased binding
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
36.
GP and GN resistance to aminoglycoside
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
37.
Mutations in original PBP
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
38.
Alterations in structure of cell wall
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
39.
Porin channels in bacteria are decreased, so antibiotic can’t enter
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
40.
P. aeruginosa resistance to imipenem
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
41.
GN to aminoglycoside
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
42.
Bacteria pumps drug out before the antibiotic binds to their target
a)
Enzymatic destruction caused by bacteria
b)
Enzymatic modification of bacteria on antibiotic
c)
Altered target in bacteria
d)
Decreased uptake of antibiotic
e)
Efflux of antibiotic
43.
Bacterial resistance is absent or insignificant; Appropriate choice for Tx
a)
Susceptible
b)
Susceptible-dose dependent
c)
Intermediate
d)
Resistant
e)
Nonsusceptible
44.
Bacterial susceptibility is dependent on dosing regimen
a)
Susceptible
b)
Susceptible-dose dependent
c)
Intermediate
d)
Resistant
e)
Nonsusceptible
45.
For potential use of antibiotic in the body site, possible effectiveness, or use as an interpretive safety margin (not clearly susceptible, to avoid errors)
a)
Susceptible
b)
Susceptible-dose dependent
c)
Intermediate
d)
Resistant
e)
Nonsusceptible
46.
Microorganism is not inhibited; Not an appropriate choice of treatment
a)
Susceptible
b)
Susceptible-dose dependent
c)
Intermediate
d)
Resistant
e)
Nonsusceptible
47.
Used for isolates in which only “Susceptible” criteria has been established because the organisms have no or rare cases of resistance
a)
Susceptible
b)
Susceptible-dose dependent
c)
Intermediate
d)
Resistant
e)
Nonsusceptible
48.
with growth/turbid
a)
Without growth/clear
b)
With growth/turbid
49.
without growth/clear
a)
Without growth/clear
b)
With growth/turbid
50.
The 0.5 McFarland standard is prepared using which combination?
a)
99.5 mL of 1% BaCl₂ and 0.5 mL of 1% H₂SO₄
b)
99.5 mL of 1% H₂SO₄ and 0.5 mL of 1.175% BaCl₂
c)
50 mL of 1% H₂SO₄ and 50 mL of 1% BaCl₂
d)
100 mL of sterile water and BaSO₄ crystals
51.
The 0.5 McFarland standard corresponds to what inoculum concentration for disk diffusion?
a)
1.5 × 10⁶ CFU/mL
b)
1.5 × 10⁷ CFU/mL
c)
1.5 × 10⁸ CFU/mL
d)
1.5 × 10⁹ CFU/mL
52.
What is used to visually compare the turbidity of the bacterial suspension when adjusting to 0.5 McFarland?
a)
Spectrophotometer
b)
Nephelometer
c)
Wickerham card
d)
Color comparator
53.
Which organisms require a strict FULL 24-hour incubation during disk diffusion testing?
a)
ESBL producers only
b)
MRSA, VRSA, VRE
c)
Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter
d)
Anaerobes
54.
What is the correct incubation temperature range when testing MRSA to avoid masking methicillin resistance?
a)
20–25°C
b)
25–30°C
c)
30–35°C
d)
>37°C
55.
Temperatures ABOVE 35°C during MRSA testing may lead to:
a)
Enhanced mecA expression
b)
Masking of methicillin resistance
c)
Increased zone sizes
d)
False-positive MRSA detection
56.
The inoculum size for broth dilution AST is:
a)
1 × 10⁴ CFU/mL
b)
5 × 10⁵ CFU/mL
c)
1 × 10⁶ CFU/mL
d)
1 × 10⁸ CFU/mL
57.
The inoculum size for agar dilution AST is:
a)
1 × 10⁴ CFU/mL
b)
5 × 10⁵ CFU/mL
c)
1 × 10⁶ CFU/mL
d)
1 × 10⁸ CFU/mL
58.
What is the standard incubation temperature for both broth and agar dilution?
a)
25°C
b)
30°C
c)
35°C
d)
42°C
59.
Broth dilution for Staphylococcus and Enterobacterales is incubated for:
a)
6 to 8 hours
b)
12 to 16 hours
c)
16 to 20 hours
d)
30 to 35 hours
60.
Which medium is used for broth dilution AST?
a)
Regular MH broth
b)
Cation-adjusted Mueller Hinton broth (CAMHB)
c)
GC agar
d)
Tryptic soy broth
61.
What additive is included in broth or agar tests to detect MRSA?
a)
1% glucose
b)
2% NaCl
c)
5% CO₂
d)
10% sheep blood
62.
Which additive is required when testing N. meningitidis by broth dilution?
a)
10% horse serum
b)
2% NaCl
c)
2.5–5% lysed horse blood
d)
X and V factors
63.
Broth microdilution usually uses what broth volume?
a)
0.01–0.03 mL
b)
0.05–0.1 mL
c)
≥1 mL
d)
5–10 mL
64.
. Broth macrodilution usually uses what volume?
a)
0.01 mL
b)
0.1 mL
c)
≥1 mL
d)
≥5 mL
65.
Which AST method is considered the REFERENCE STANDARD?
a)
Disk diffusion
b)
Broth microdilution
c)
E-test
d)
Agar diffusion
66.
Agar dilution media of choice for N. gonorrhoeae is:
a)
Mueller Hinton agar
b)
GC agar without cysteine
c)
Thayer-Martin
d)
CHOC agar
67.
Add 5% sheep blood to agar dilution when testing:
a)
Enterobacterales
b)
Pseudomonas
c)
N. meningitidis and Streptococci
d)
Staphylococcus
68.
. Agar dilution is primarily useful for:
a)
Testing many antibiotics against 1 organism
b)
Testing many organisms against 1 antibiotic
c)
Testing many organisms against 2 antibiotics
d)
Rapid detection of carbapenemase
69.
Which organism requires agar dilution to reliably determine MIC because it does not grow well in broth?
a)
S. aureus
b)
K. pneumoniae
c)
N. gonorrhoeae
d)
P. aeruginosa
70.
7. CLSI document for disk diffusion procedures is:
a)
M02
b)
M07
c)
M100
d)
M50
71.
When there’s microorganism GROWTH on wells with HIGH ANTIMICROBIAL concentrations and NO GROWTH on 1 or more wells with LOW ANTIMICROBIAL concentrations.
a)
Breakpoint
b)
Predictor drug
c)
Antibiogram
d)
Trailing in broth dilution
e)
Skipped wells in broth dilution
72.
A cumulative susceptibility report that tracks resistance or susceptibility of commonly isolated organisms to antimicrobials.
a)
Breakpoint
b)
Predictor drug
c)
Antibiogram
d)
Trailing in broth dilution
e)
Skipped wells in broth dilution
73.
Antimicrobial agent that is considered the most sensitive indicator of drug mechanism
a)
Breakpoint
b)
Predictor drug
c)
Antibiogram
d)
Trailing in broth dilution
e)
Skipped wells in broth dilution
74.
The specific concentration of antimicrobial that separate the different categories of susceptibility (Susceptible, Intermediate, or Resistant)
a)
Breakpoint
b)
Predictor drug
c)
Antibiogram
d)
Trailing in broth dilution
e)
Skipped wells in broth dilution
75.
6 mm depth of MHA will lead to
a)
Higher MIC
b)
Lower MIC
76.
0.2 MacFarland standard is used, this will lead to:
a)
Higher MIC
b)
Lower MIC
77.
Use of old cultures (>24h old bacteria)
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
78.
<0.5 MacFarland used
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
79.
Too thin media
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
80.
Too thick media
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
81.
Delayed application of disks
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
82.
>0.5 MacFarland used
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
83.
Expired antibiotic disks
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
84.
Delayed in incubation
a)
False sensitive
b)
False resistant
85.
When there’s HEAVY GROWTH on wells with LOW ANTIMICROBIAL concentration followed by 1 or more wells GREATLY REDUCED GROWTH (small button/light haze).
a)
Breakpoint
b)
Predictor drug
c)
Antibiogram
d)
Trailing in broth dilution
e)
Skipped wells in broth dilution
86.
What is the required inoculum size for the Kirby-Bauer test?
a)
5 × 10⁵ CFU/mL
b)
1 × 10⁴ CFU/mL
c)
1.5 × 10⁸ CFU/mL
d)
1 × 10³ CFU/mL
87.
What additive is used in the disk diffusion test to detect MRSA?
a)
5% sheep blood
b)
Lysed horse blood
c)
2% NaCl
d)
Hemin + NAD
88.
What is the acceptable pH range of Mueller Hinton agar for disk diffusion?
a)
7.0 – 7.2
b)
7.2 – 7.4
c)
7.5 – 8.0
d)
6.5 – 7.0
89.
What is the required depth of Mueller Hinton agar for disk diffusion?
a)
2 mm
b)
3 mm
c)
4 mm
d)
5 mm
90.
What is the standard incubation temperature for the Kirby-Bauer method?
a)
30°C ± 2°C
b)
35°C ± 2°C
c)
37°C ± 2°C
d)
42°C ± 2°C
91.
What is the incubation atmosphere for most organisms in disk diffusion?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
92.
What is the standard incubation time for disk diffusion?
a)
6–8 hours
b)
10–12 hours
c)
16–18 hours
d)
24–48 hours
93.
or which organisms is extended incubation (20–24 hours) recommended in disk diffusion?
a)
Enterococcus spp.
b)
Streptococcus and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c)
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus sp.
d)
Enterobacteriaceae
94.
False resistant of P. aeruginosa to Aminoglycoside and Tetracycline
a)
Increased cations
b)
Decreased cations
95.
False sensitive of P. aeruginosa to Aminoglycoside and Tetracycline
a)
Increased cations
b)
Decreased cations
96.
False resistant of P. aeruginosa to Carbapenem
a)
Increased Zinc
b)
Increased Thymidine
97.
False resistant of Enterococci to SXT
a)
Increased Zinc
b)
Increased Thymidine
98.
Leads to less CO2 humidified air.
a)
Increased pH (>7.2)
b)
Decreased pH (<7.2)
99.
Increased potency of aminoglycoside, erythromycin, clindamycin Decreased potency of tetracycline
a)
Increased pH (>7.2)
b)
Decreased pH (<7.2)
100.
Leads to more CO2 humidified air.
a)
Increased pH (>7.2)
b)
Decreased pH (<7.2)
101.
Decreased potency of aminoglycoside, erythromycin, clindamycin Increased potency of tetracycline
a)
Increased pH (>7.2)
b)
Decreased pH (<7.2)
102.
What turbidity standard is used to prepare the inoculum in disk diffusion testing?
a)
0.5 McFarland
b)
1.0 McFarland
c)
2.0 McFarland
d)
5.0 McFarland
103.
How many times should you swab the entire surface of the MHA while rotating the plate?
a)
Once at 60° angles
b)
Twice at 60° angles
c)
Three times at 60° angles
d)
Four times at 90° angles
104.
What is the diameter of the standard antibiotic disk used in the Kirby-Bauer test?
a)
4 mm
b)
5 mm
c)
6 mm
d)
7 mm
105.
What is the required center-to-center distance between antibiotic disks on the plate?
a)
10 mm
b)
15 mm
c)
20 mm
d)
24 mm
106.
How far from the edge of the agar plate should antibiotic disks be placed?
a)
1 to 5 mm
b)
10 to 15 mm
c)
20 to 25 mm
d)
30 to 35 mm
107.
What is the maximum number of disks allowed on a 150 mm plate?
a)
5
b)
10
c)
12
d)
15
108.
What is the maximum number of disks allowed on a 100 mm plate?
a)
5
b)
10
c)
12
d)
15
109.
What is essential to check before considering a disk diffusion test valid?
a)
Plate must be fully dry
b)
Pure culture and confluent lawn
c)
Plate must be refrigerated before reading
d)
Only one antibiotic disk should be present
110.
. How should zones generally be read?
a)
With transmitted light only
b)
Against a dark background using reflected light
c)
Against a newspaper
d)
Any of the choices
111.
For which organisms/drug combinations must transmitted light be used when reading zones?
a)
Proteus mirabilis on any antibiotic
b)
Staphylococcus on Methicillin & Enterococci on Vancomycin
c)
Pseudomonas on aminoglycosides
d)
Streptococci on penicillin
112.
What should be done when Proteus swarming is observed around the disk?
a)
Repeat test
b)
Ignore entire plate
c)
Ignore swam and measure the distinct zone only
d)
Investigate; do not ignore
113.
When hazes appear during testing of sulfonamides or trimethoprim, what should be done?
a)
Repeat test
b)
Ignore entire plate
c)
Ignore the haze and measure the zone
d)
Investigate; do not ignore
114.
What should be done if hazes are present in a plate not involving sulfonamides or trimethoprim?
a)
Repeat test
b)
Ignore entire plate
c)
Ignore the haze and measure the zone
d)
Investigate; do not ignore
115.
After performing broth dilution, clear tubes are aliquoted and subcultured in enriched media (BAP). After incubation, colony is counted on each plate. ___ is in which there is 99.9% reduction in CFU/mL of the organism compared to original inoculum
a)
Minimum bactericidal concentration
b)
Tolerance
c)
Schlichter test
d)
Time-Kill assay
e)
Synergy test
116.
AKA Serum-bactericidal test (SBT), activity of drug using patient’s own serum.
a)
Minimum bactericidal concentration
b)
Tolerance
c)
Schlichter test
d)
Time-Kill assay
e)
Synergy test
117.
Bacteria is inoculated in various concentrations of antimicrobial, and incubated, and the plates are subjected to colony counting at different periods of incubation. The rate of killing the bacteria is measured over a specified period (Example: 6 hours, 12 hours, 24 hours incubation)
a)
Minimum bactericidal concentration
b)
Tolerance
c)
Schlichter test
d)
Time-Kill assay
e)
Synergy test
118.
Identification of the effectiveness of multiple antimicrobial agents against a single bacterial strain.
a)
Minimum bactericidal concentration
b)
Tolerance
c)
Schlichter test
d)
Time-Kill assay
e)
Synergy test
119.
is exhibited when a BACTERICIDAL antibiotic can only INHIBIT a bacteria (not killed); most commonly associated to bacterial resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics.
a)
Minimum bactericidal concentration
b)
Tolerance
c)
Schlichter test
d)
Time-Kill assay
e)
Synergy test
100 %
