wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Part 3

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A surgical fixation of a prolapsed uterus is charted as

a)

metroptosis.

b)

hysteroptosis.

c)

hysteropexy.

d)

hysteroplasty.

e)

hysterorrhexis.

2.

What is the term for a hernia of the fallopian tube?

a)

hysterocele

b)

colpocystocele

c)

salpingocele

d)

hydrocele

e)

metrocele

3.

Internal female reproductive organs include the

a)

uterus

b)

clitoris

c)

mons pubis

d)

vulva

e)

pubis

4.

Which chromosomal abnormality results in mild to severe mental retardation and other abnormalities?

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Hyaline membrane disease

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Pyloric stenosis

e)

Down syndrome

5.

The period of pregnancy is called

a)

maturation

b)

gestation

c)

puerperium

d)

parturition

e)

coitus

6.

Which instrument aids in examination of the vagina and cervix uteri?

a)

colposcopy

b)

colposcope

c)

salpingoscopy

d)

salpingocsope

e)

cystoscope

7.

Which term refers to the production and release of milk from the mammary glands?

a)

puerperium

b)

lactation

c)

gestation

d)

menarche

e)

climacteric

8.

The cervix is superior to the

a)

fundus

b)

ovaries

c)

vagina

d)

fallopian tubes

e)

uterus

9.

Which abbreviation refers to the use of high-frequency sound waves to visualize a fetus?

(a)  

10.

Structures of the external female genitalia include the

a)

ovaries.

b)

vestibule.

c)

corpus luteum.

d)

oviducts.

e)

vulva.

11.

Which class of drugs treats recurrent herpes?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antivirals

c)

Mycotics

d)

Androgens

e)

Estrogens

12.

The malformation in which the urethra opens on the undersurface of the penis is called

a)

Hypospadias

b)

Epispadias

c)

Phimosis

d)

Paraphimosis

13.

What is the abbreviation for any disease transmitted through sexual activity?

a)

STI

b)

BNO

c)

HPV

d)

TURP

e)

DRE

14.

Signs and symptoms of testicular cancer may include

a)

dysuria.

b)

pyuria.

c)

hematuria.

d)

nocturia.

e)

gynecomastia.

15.

Vasectomy reversal is called

a)

vasostomy

b)

anastomosis

c)

vasoplasty

d)

vasovasotomy

e)

vasoneurosis

16.

The movable hood of skin covering the glans penis is called the

a)

sphincter.

b)

prepuce.

c)

circumcision.

d)

glansdermia.

e)

meatus.

17.

Which imaging procedure evaluates the testicles, epididymis, and vas deferens?

a)

Scrotal ultrasound

b)

Semen analysis

c)

PSA

d)

Circumcision

e)

Digital rectal examination

18.

The inability to produce offspring is called

a)

anorchia

b)

hypergonadism

c)

sterility

d)

infertility

e)

erectile dysfunction

19.

Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac prior to or at birth is called

a)

sterility.

b)

cryptorchidism.

c)

orchialgia.

d)

testicular torsion.

e)

anorchidism.

20.

The combining forms (CFs) orch/o, orchi/o, orchid/o, and test/o mean

a)

testis (plural, testes).

b)

sperm.

c)

hidden.

d)

scanty.

e)

gonads, sex glands.

21.

Radioactive “seeds” are associated with

a)

teletherapy

b)

brachytherapy

c)

scrotal scans

d)

scrotal ultrasound

e)

hormonal therapy

22.

An elective procedure for sterilization in males is called

a)

bilateral vasectomy.

b)

orchiecostomy.

c)

circumcision.

d)

spermicide.

e)

bilateral vasostomy.

23.

The CFs spermat/o and sperm/o mean

a)

A. seed.

b)

B. gonad.

c)

C. spermatozoa, sperm cells.

d)

D. gamete.

e)

E. offspring.

24.

The structure responsible for sperm production is the

a)

epididymis

b)

vans deferns

c)

seminal vesicle

d)

prostate

e)

seminiferous tubules

25.

The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is used as a screening test for

a)

urolithiasis.

b)

orchitis.

c)

infertility.

d)

prostate cancer.

e)

azotemia.

26.

Which sexually transmitted infection produces symptoms more commonly in females than in males?

a)

Trichomonas

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Genital herpes

d)

Chlamydia

e)

Genital warts

27.

Which sexually transmitted infection is called the “silent disease” because its symptoms are commonly absent or mild?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Syphilis

d)

HIV

28.

Question 17

a)

Syphilis

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Genital herpes

e)

Genital warts

29.

A prolonged and commonly painful erection of the penis that occurs without sexual stimulation is called

a)

phimosis.

b)

priapism.

c)

prostatitis.

d)

orchitis.

e)

vesiculitis.

30.

The suffix -spadias means

a)

condition.

b)

scanty.

c)

slit, fissure.

d)

producing.

e)

meatus.

31.

The male gamete is called the

a)

sperm

b)

ovum

c)

zygote

d)

embryo

32.

Which protective mechanism blocks chemicals from entering brain tissue?

a)

Ganglia

b)

Neuroglia

c)

Blood–brain barrier

d)

Neurilemma

e)

Cell body

33.

Brain lesions associated with Alzheimer disease are called

a)

buboes

b)

neurostats

c)

scales

d)

sheaths

e)

plaques

34.

Select the correct answer from the options below:

4 lines
35.

A sudden, uncontrollable urge to sleep at an inappropriate time is called

a)

somnambulism.

b)

somnolence.

c)

narcolepsy.

d)

narcohypnosis.

e)

narcotic.

36.

Which structure supports and connects the cells of the nervous system?

a)

Myelin sheath

b)

Neuron

c)

Neurolemma

d)

Neuroglia

e)

Dendrite

37.

The anterior root of the spinal cord is composed of

a)

mixed nerves.

b)

motor fibers.

c)

sensory fibers.

d)

neuroglia.

e)

microglia.

38.

Which structure joins the two hemispheres of the brain?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Brain stem

d)

Diencephalon

e)

Pons

39.

The suffix -kinesia means

a)

feeling.

b)

movement.

c)

strong.

d)

weak.

e)

debility.

40.

Which medical procedure records the electrical activity of the brain?

a)

Electromyography

b)

Electroencephalography

c)

Electrostimulation

d)

Electrodissection

e)

Electroresection

41.

Nerves that conduct impulses toward the brain or spinal cord are called

a)

afferent.

b)

efferent.

c)

motor.

d)

mixed.

e)

cranial.

42.

An incision of the cranium to gain access to the brain during a neurosurgical procedure is called a

a)

craniotomy.

b)

craniectomy.

c)

craniocentesis.

d)

cranioplasty.

e)

craniography.

43.

The term syncope means

a)

seizure.

b)

pain.

c)

depression.

d)

bipolarism.

e)

fainting.

44.

Which classification of drugs includes general, local, and nerve blocks?

a)

Antiseptics

b)

Anesthetics

c)

Psychostimulants

d)

Hypnotics

e)

Keralytics

45.

The removal of a nerve is called

a)

ganglioma.

b)

neurectomy.

c)

neurolysis.

d)

gangliectomy.

e)

neurectomy.

46.

The CF mening/o means

a)

meninges (membranes covering the brain and spinal cord).

b)

dura mater.

c)

pia mater.

d)

sheath.

e)

arachnoid.

47.

Which classification of drugs acts upon the brain to produce a complete loss of feeling and consciousness?

a)

Local anesthetics

b)

Nerve blocks

c)

General anesthetics

d)

Hypnotics

e)

Antipsychotics

48.

The suffix -esthesia means

a)

ether.

b)

easy, normal.

c)

feeling.

d)

numb.

e)

unfeeling.

49.

Another term for stroke is

a)

cerebral palsy.

b)

paraplegia.

c)

closed head trauma.

d)

cerebrovascular accident.

e)

parkinsonism.

50.

Which procedure involves needle puncture of the spinal cavity to extract spinal fluid for diagnostic purposes?

a)

Meningotomy

b)

Meningocentesis

c)

Cervicotomy

d)

Venipuncture

e)

Lumbar puncture

51.

Which test measures the speed at which impulses travel through a nerve?

a)

Neurography

b)

Neurometry

c)

Electromyometry

d)

Nerve conduction velocity

e)

Electroneurography

52.

Which acute infectious disease in adults is caused by the same organism responsible for chickenpox in children?

a)

Huntington chorea

b)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

c)

Cerebral palsy

d)

Reye syndrome

e)

Herpes Zoster

53.

The combining form (CF) blephar/o means

a)

stapes.

b)

labyrinth (inner ear).

c)

conjunctiva.

d)

eyelid.

e)

hearing.

54.

The snail-shaped structure of the inner ear responsible for the sense of hearing is the

a)

semicircular canal.

b)

canthi.

c)

canaliculi.

d)

canal of Schlemm.

e)

cochlea.

55.

Tympanoplasty helps treat

a)

macular degeneration.

b)

night blindness.

c)

perforated eardrum

d)

xeropthalmia

e)

mastoiditis

56.

The CF presby/o means

a)

ear.

b)

eye.

c)

hearing.

d)

labyrinth (inner ear).

e)

old age.

57.

The suffix -opsia means

a)

stapes.

b)

labyrinth (inner ear).

c)

vision.

d)

turning.

e)

hearing.

58.

Which condition involves leakage of blood and other fluids from intraocular vessels that destroys vision cells, leading to permanent vision loss?

a)
Presbyopia
b)

Glaucoma

c)

Macular degeneration

d)

cataracts

e)

achromatopsia

59.

Radiographic imaging of the nasolacrimal glands and ducts is called

a)

fluorescein angiography.

b)

dacryocystography.

c)

Rinne.

d)

Weber.

e)

applanation tonometry.

60.

Failure of light rays to focus sharply on the retina is

a)

photosensitivity.

b)

decussation.

c)

photopigmentation.

d)

ametropia.

e)

refraction.

61.

The CF scler/o means

a)

tympanic membrane

b)

eye

c)

cornea

d)

dull, dum

e)

hardening; sclera (white of eye)

62.

A protrusion of one or both eyeballs from the sockets, commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, is called

a)

ectropion.

b)

entropion.

c)

exotropion.

d)

exophthalmos.

e)

exophthia.

63.

Which layer of the eye contains the rods and cones?

a)

A. Retina

b)

B. Cornea

c)

C. Sclera

d)

D. Choroid

e)

E. Conjunctiva

64.

Which eye test determines the smallest letters that can be read on a standardized chart at a distance of 20 feet?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Tonometry

c)

Visual Acuity

d)

Fluorescein angiography

65.

Which disorder is an infection of the ear canal commonly associated with swimming?

a)

Ménière disease

b)

Otitis media

c)

Labyrinthitis

d)

Otosclerosis

e)

Otitis externa

66.

Night blindness is called

a)

scotoma

b)

achromatopsia

c)

trachoma

d)

nyctalopia

e)

nystagmus

67.

What is the clinical name for a “bionic ear”?

a)

hearing aid

b)

PE tube

c)

Cochlear Implant

d)

Audiometer

e)

Tonometer

68.

A treatment for unresponsive, recurrent episodes of otitis media is

a)

stapedotomy.

b)

emulsification.

c)

otoplasty.

d)

blepharoplasty.

e)

ventilation tubes.

69.

The inner edge of the eye is called the

a)

canaliculus.

b)

conjunctiva.

c)

semicircular canal.

d)

canthus.

e)

optic disc.

70.

Which classification of drugs loosens and helps remove impacted cerumen?

a)

ophthalmic moisturizers

b)

ophthalmic decongestants

c)

wax emulsifiers

d)

otic analgesics

e)

antiemetics

71.

Lazy-eye syndrome is a type of strabismus called

a)

amblyopia.

b)

hyperopia.

c)

nystagmus.

d)

esotropia.

e)

exotropia.

72.

Surgical correction of a perforated eardrum is called

a)

myringoplasty.

b)

otoplasty.

c)

antrotomy.

d)

mastoidoplasty.

e)

scleroplasty.

Similar Resources on Wayground

HSII Unit 1 Review Questions – With DOK Levels

77 questions

HSII Unit 1 Review Questions – With DOK Levels

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Mid MP 1 Examination - Anatomy & Physiology

69 questions

Mid MP 1 Examination - Anatomy & Physiology

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

Chapter 14 (part 1)

68 questions

Chapter 14 (part 1)

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade