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Semester Exam Units 4-6

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which policy change did the Currency Act of 1764 enforce in the colonies?

a)

Raised customs duties on imported British goods

b)

Required colonial banks to guarantee all loans

c)

Restricted use of paper money to curb inflation

d)

Introduced silver coins to replace colonial barter

2.

What made the Stamp Act of 1765 distinct among British measures on the colonies?

a)

It abolished taxes on printed newspapers

b)

It banned colonial assemblies from meeting

c)

It was the first direct tax imposed on colonists

d)

It required quartering soldiers in private homes

3.

Which materials needed stamps under the Stamp Act of 1765?

a)

Newspapers and pamphlets

b)

Playing cards and diplomas

c)

Wills and legal deeds

d)

Tea and sugar shipments

4.

What obligation did the Quartering Act of 1765 place on colonists?

a)

Provide barracks or pay rent for British troops

b)

Supply taxes on all printed materials

c)

Accept new paper currency for all debts

d)

Elect representatives to Parliament in London

5.

Match each act or group to its primary feature or action.

a)

Currency Act (1764)

1.

Limited paper money, aimed at inflation

b)

Stamp Act (1765)

2.

Direct tax on printed materials

c)

Quartering Act (1765)

3.

Housing or rent for British soldiers

d)

Sons of Liberty

4.

Organized anti-tax protests

6.

Which best captures the colonial slogan during resistance to taxation?

a)

No Taxation Without Representation

b)

Liberty Through Parliamentary Rule

c)

Obedience Ensures Prosperity

d)

Trade First, Politics Later

7.

What was the role of the Stamp Act Congress during the crisis?

a)

Drafted a Declaration of Rights asserting taxing power belonged to colonial representatives

b)

Organized boycotts of British tea across all colonies

c)

Deployed militia to defend customs houses

d)

Negotiated seats for colonists in the British Parliament

8.

Which best describes a boycott used by colonists after the Stamp Act took effect in 1765?

a)

Writing petitions without changing consumption

b)

Paying extra taxes to speed repeal through

c)

Protesting only in town hall meetings peacefully

d)

Refusing to buy British goods to apply pressure

9.

What was the main assertion of the Declaratory Act of 1766?

a)

Colonial assemblies gained tax authority

b)

Parliament had power to legislate for colonies

c)

Only governors could veto colonial laws

d)

The Stamp Act would permanently continue

10.

Which items faced duties under the Townshend Acts of 1767?

a)

Sugar and molasses

b)

Tea and paint supplies

c)

Glass and paper products

d)

Lead and manufactured goods

11.

Under writs of assistance, customs officers could do what?

a)

Search for smuggling without specific warrants

b)

Seize only cargo at public docks

c)

Require jury trials before any search

d)

Enter homes only with governor approval

12.

Match each figure or document with its role in colonial resistance.

a)

John Dickinson

1.

Argued elected assemblies held taxing power

b)

Sam Adams

2.

Organized Boston Sons of Liberty networks

c)

Nonimportation agreement

3.

Merchants pledged to stop buying British goods

d)

Declaratory Act

4.

Affirmed Parliament’s authority over colonies

13.

Why did colonists see vice-admiralty courts linked to the Townshend Acts as unfair?

a)

Banned defense attorneys entirely

b)

Presumed guilt without standard juries

c)

Tried cases only in London courts

d)

Required property tests for jurors

14.

What effect did widespread nonimportation agreements have in Britain?

a)

Merchants profited from higher colonial prices

b)

Workers lost jobs as colonial orders fell

c)

Tax revenues increased across the empire

d)

Manufacturing expanded due to new demand

15.

According to Letters from a Pennsylvania Farmer, how should colonies respond to the Townshend Acts?

a)

Pay duties to avoid harsher penalties

b)

Support governors replacing assemblies

c)

Accept Parliament’s superior authority

d)

Unite under elected assemblies to resist

16.

Which statement best explains why the Virginia Resolves alarmed British authorities in 1765–1767?

a)

They denied Parliament’s right to tax Virginians

b)

They proposed higher tariffs on French goods

c)

They pledged loyalty to King George III

d)

They demanded more troops in the colonies

17.

What was a primary action of the Daughters of Liberty during the colonial protests?

a)

Organized armed militias against soldiers

b)

Negotiated trade deals with France

c)

Boycotted British tea and wool imports

d)

Drafted the Declaration of Independence

18.

Crispus Attucks is most closely associated with which event and role?

a)

Tea Act protests as a merchant

b)

Gaspee Affair as a Rhode Island judge

c)

Virginia Resolves as a legislator

d)

Boston Massacre as a casualty

19.

During the Boston Massacre on March 5, 1770, what immediate circumstance escalated tensions in the street?

a)

Colonists threw snowballs at soldiers

b)

Customs officers seized the Gaspee

c)

British ships blockaded the harbor

d)

Parliament repealed Townshend Acts

20.

Which sequence shows the immediate aftermath of the Boston Massacre for colonial-British relations?

a)

Gaspee burning, Quebec Act, independence

b)

Massacre, Intolerable Acts, immediate war

c)

Tea Party, repeal of Stamp Act, long peace

d)

Massacre, repeal of Townshend Acts, brief calm

21.

Match each term with its correct description.

a)

Virginia Resolves

1.

Colonial claim against Parliament’s taxing power

b)

Daughters of Liberty

2.

Women’s nonimportation and homespun efforts

c)

Boston Massacre

3.

Street clash with five colonial deaths

d)

Gaspee Affair

4.

Attack on a customs ship enforcing searches

22.

Which actions reflected colonial nonimportation strategies in the late 1760s? Select all that apply.

a)

Petitioning for royal governorships

b)

Brewing and drinking non-British tea

c)

Wearing homespun clothing as patriotism

d)

Refusing to buy British wool textiles

23.

What made the Gaspee Affair significant in the road to revolution?

a)

It targeted warrantless customs searches

b)

It ended the Quartering Act immediately

c)

It created the First Continental Congress

d)

It stopped smuggling across the colonies

24.

Which best describes the main purpose of the Committees of Correspondence in the colonies?

a)

To collect new taxes from colonial merchants

b)

To negotiate trade deals with the Dutch and French

c)

To promote communication and unify colonial resistance

d)

To recruit soldiers for the British regular army

25.

Which change from the Tea Act most threatened colonial merchants’ business model?

a)

Raising tariffs on Dutch tea imports

b)

Banning all tea shipments into Boston Harbor

c)

Allowing tea to be sold at higher monopoly prices

d)

Letting East India Company sell tea directly to shopkeepers

26.

What was a key immediate outcome of the Boston Tea Party in December 1773?

a)

Parliament refunded taxes to colonial tea merchants

b)

342 chests of tea were dumped into Boston Harbor

c)

The East India Company reduced its tea surplus

d)

Colonial leaders were appointed by the royal governor

27.

Select all actions included in the Coercive Acts as punishment for Massachusetts.

a)

Banning town meetings across the colony

b)

Electing judges and sheriffs by popular vote

c)

Appointing council members by the governor

d)

Closing Boston’s port until tea was paid for

28.

Why did many colonists view shipping suspects to England for trial as unacceptable?

a)

It violated the right to trial by local jury

b)

It increased customs duties on colonial goods

c)

It prohibited legal counsel for defendants

d)

It forced colonists to serve on royal ships

29.

Match each item with its description.

a)

Committees of Correspondence

1.

Network that unified colonies and spread information

b)

Tea Act

2.

Law lowering tea prices and bypassing merchants

c)

Boston Tea Party

3.

Protest dumping tea chests into Boston Harbor

d)

Coercive Acts

4.

Punitive laws closing port and altering governance

30.

Which fear did colonial merchants express after learning the Tea Act’s terms?

a)

Dutch tea would become more expensive than British

b)

The Act was the first step to squeeze them out

c)

Smugglers would be rewarded by Parliament

d)

Shopkeepers would refuse to sell British tea

31.

What was the primary purpose of the First Continental Congress convened in September 1774?

a)

To coordinate colonial responses to Coercive Acts

b)

To draft a treaty with France for support

c)

To organize a national tax to fund militias

d)

To declare immediate independence from Britain

32.

Which document asserted colonial rights while condemning the Coercive Acts?

a)

Declaration of Rights and Grievances

b)

Proclamation of 1763

c)

Olive Branch Petition

d)

Common Sense Pamphlet

33.

Match each event or group with the correct description.

a)

Minutemen

1.

Colonial militia ready at a moment’s notice

b)

Lexington skirmish

2.

Initial clash where a single shot was fired

c)

Concord battle

3.

Redcoats met large militia and then retreated

d)

Committees of correspondence

4.

Network coordinating colonial discussion

34.

Which actions were decided or urged around the First Continental Congress?

a)

Remaining loyal while condemning coercive laws

b)

Forming a nonimportation association

c)

Electing George Washington as commander

d)

Agreeing to hold a second congress

35.

At Lexington, what sequence best describes the opening of armed conflict?

a)

Both sides negotiated and withdrew peacefully

b)

Colonists attacked first in organized volleys

c)

Minutemen dispersed and a single shot fired

d)

Redcoats surrendered without resistance

36.

What was a major outcome of the Battle of Concord?

a)

British advanced and occupied Boston

b)

Colonial militia suffered heavier losses overall

c)

British retreated under fire to Boston

d)

French troops arrived to aid colonists

37.

What were two key decisions of the Second Continental Congress three weeks after Lexington and Concord?

a)

Adopted surrounding militia as Continental Army

b)

Appointed George Washington as commander

c)

Declared independence immediately in 1775

d)

Requested British reinforcements to restore order

38.

Which statement best describes the Olive Branch Petition’s purpose in mid-1775?

a)

Proposed a new tax plan to fund the Continental Army

b)

Demanded colonial control of Boston and British troop withdrawal

c)

Declared immediate independence and urged foreign alliances

d)

Affirmed colonial loyalty while seeking a peaceful halt to fighting

39.

Which action by King George III escalated tensions after rejecting reconciliation efforts?

a)

Passing the Prohibitory Act imposing a naval blockade

b)

Inviting French mediation to end hostilities

c)

Granting colonial home rule and free trade

d)

Ordering peace talks with the Continental Congress

40.

Match each item with its description.

a)

Olive Branch Petition

1.

Last attempt to stop fighting while affirming loyalty

b)

Prohibitory Act

2.

Shut down colonial trade; declared colonies enemies

c)

Battle of Bunker (Breed’s) Hill

3.

Costly British assaults up Breed’s Hill; heavy casualties

d)

Common Sense

4.

Pamphlet urging independence; swayed public opinion

41.

At Breed’s Hill on June 17, 1775, what tactical factor most affected British casualties?

a)

Poor weather reducing visibility and morale

b)

Lack of artillery support on both sides

c)

Advancing uphill under heavy close-range fire

d)

A surprise night attack on British camps

42.

Which outcomes followed the Battle of Bunker Hill? Select all that apply.

a)

Colonial forces captured Boston immediately

b)

British suffered over 1,000 casualties in assaults

c)

Militia gained confidence against a top European army

d)

General Gage resigned and Howe took command

43.

Why did William Prescott reportedly order, “Don’t fire until you see the whites of their eyes”?

a)

To conserve limited ammunition for effective close fire

b)

To test new muskets requiring close inspection

c)

To signal a retreat once the British reached the crest

d)

To comply with a ceasefire agreed with British officers

44.

How did Thomas Paine’s Common Sense influence the independence movement?

a)

It called for reconciliation through new petitions

b)

It focused solely on military strategy against Britain

c)

It persuaded many colonists toward independence

d)

It argued to remain loyal to the king indefinitely

45.

Which statement best explains the significance of July 4, 1776 in the colonies?

a)

Congress declared independence and birthed a new nation

b)

Parliament granted colonial self-rule without full separation

c)

George III abdicated, ending monarchical authority in America

d)

French forces officially allied with the colonial army

46.

Who primarily drafted the Declaration of Independence after a committee was formed?

a)

John Adams served as sole author of the text

b)

Thomas Jefferson wrote the main declaration

c)

Roger Sherman produced the final approved version

d)

Benjamin Franklin composed the entire document

47.

What shift did the Declaration mark in the nature of the conflict with Britain?

a)

A trade dispute turned into embargo negotiations

b)

A legal petition transformed into a royal hearing

c)

A tax protest evolved into tariff reform

d)

A rebellion became a true revolution

48.

Match each colonial faction to its defining stance.

a)

Patriots (Whigs)

1.

Favored colonial liberties and independence

b)

Loyalists (Tories)

2.

Remained loyal to British rule and policies

c)

Many neutral colonists

3.

Supported whichever side seemed likely to win

49.

Which statements describe Patriots during the American Revolution? Select all that apply.

a)

Rejected British rule and sought independence

b)

Remained loyal to Parliament and the king

c)

Included farmers, merchants, and artisans

d)

Preferred no side, waiting to back the winner

50.

Prior to the Declaration, whom did many colonists mainly blame for their grievances, and what argument shifted that view?

a)

The colonies were blamed; arguments targeted France

b)

Parliament was blamed; arguments targeted King George III

c)

Local assemblies were blamed; arguments targeted Parliament

d)

Merchants were blamed; arguments targeted colonial governors

51.

Which factor most strengthened British military capability at the war’s outset?

a)

Superior navy projecting sea power

b)

Extensive militia skilled in guerillas

c)

French loans supporting logistics

d)

Knowledge of local terrain advantages

52.

Which pairing correctly matches each side with a disadvantage it faced early in the Revolutionary War?

a)

Britain

1.

Fighting in unfamiliar territory

b)

America

2.

Poorly equipped forces

c)

Both

3.

Limited support from populace

53.

Which combination of American advantages most offset British professional training?

a)

Strong central government authority

b)

Knowledge of land and people

c)

French alliance with loans and troops

d)

Use of militia in guerilla warfare

e)

Superior navy with global reach

54.

Why did Britain’s global empire create a strategic weakness in North America?

a)

Large empire meant few troops to spare

b)

Troops were too familiar with colonies

c)

Central government caused slow decisions

d)

Abundant resources reduced urgency

55.

Which statement best explains the American army’s early performance problems?

a)

Consistent naval dominance on seas

b)

Strict discipline across long campaigns

c)

Overabundance of ammunition stocks

d)

Inexperienced and poorly equipped soldiers

56.

Which development most improved the American strategic position after 1778?

a)

Discovery of new domestic gunpowder

b)

French alliance adding loans and navy

c)

British Parliament expanding war taxes

d)

Colonists abandoning militia tactics

57.

Which statement best describes the British invasion of New York in 1776 under General Howe?

a)

Swift conquest with total American destruction

b)

Failed assault repelled by colonial militia

c)

Stalemate with equal losses on both sides

d)

Initial victory but Washington’s army escaped

58.

Nathan Hale is most closely associated with which role and outcome during the Northern Campaigns?

a)

Hessian officer defeated at Trenton

b)

American spy captured and executed

c)

Continental general who surrendered at Fort Lee

d)

British diplomat who negotiated a truce

59.

What immediate strategic effect followed the British forcing surrender at Fort Washington and Fort Lee?

a)

Washington resigned his command

b)

The Continental Congress fled to Canada

c)

The Hudson River Valley opened to the British

d)

France entered the war on America’s side

60.

In winter 1776–1777, why did Washington seek a decisive action before making winter camp?

a)

To recruit German mercenaries for pay

b)

To prevent soldier desertion amid low morale

c)

To seize Philadelphia before Howe arrived

d)

To await reinforcements from New England

61.

Which factors contributed to the American success at the Battle of Trenton?

a)

A surprise attack on Hessian forces

b)

Crossing the Delaware amid harsh conditions

c)

British naval blockade on the Hudson

d)

Hessians distracted by Christmas celebrations

62.

How did the Battle of Princeton influence the Continental Army after Trenton?

a)

It reversed momentum and forced retreat

b)

It provided another key victory before winter

c)

It led to immediate peace negotiations

d)

It caused widespread desertion and panic

63.

Match each item to its correct description related to the Northern Campaigns.

a)

Nathan Hale

1.

American spy executed after capture

b)

Fort Washington and Fort Lee

2.

British forced colonial surrender opening Hudson

c)

Battle of Trenton

3.

Surprise assault on Hessian troops at Christmas

d)

Battle of Princeton

4.

Follow-up victory building on new momentum

64.

Which outcome best explains why the Battle of Saratoga is considered a turning point in the Revolutionary War?

a)

British secured northern supply lines

b)

France formally allied with the Americans

c)

Burgoyne escaped with his entire army

d)

Washington captured New York City

65.

Who ambushed British reinforcements during the Saratoga campaign, contributing to the American victory?

a)

Charles Lee

b)

Benedict Arnold

c)

Horatio Gates

d)

John Burgoyne

66.

Select all developments that resulted from the American victory at Saratoga.

a)

Boost in American morale

b)

Recognition of America as legitimate power

c)

Immediate capture of Philadelphia

d)

French commitment as an ally

67.

Which statement best describes Valley Forge during the winter of 1777–1778?

a)

Comfortable quarters with ample supplies

b)

Temporary ceasefire ensured safety

c)

Bitter cold, disease, and shortages

d)

Rapid victory ended the encampment

68.

Match each figure to the correct role in the Revolutionary War.

a)

Benedict Arnold

1.

Ambushed reinforcements at Saratoga

b)

Marquis de Lafayette

2.

French commander who aided training

c)

Baron von Steuben

3.

Prussian officer who trained troops

d)

Horatio Gates

4.

Received Burgoyne’s surrender

69.

Which impact did foreign commanders have at Valley Forge?

a)

Ended inflation by minting hard currency

b)

Replaced Washington as army leader

c)

Negotiated British surrender of Boston

d)

Introduced modern tactics and discipline

70.

What early step did Congress take when gold and silver ran out to finance the war?

a)

Sold western lands to speculators

b)

Raised taxes on colonial trade

c)

Printed paper Continentals causing inflation

d)

Borrowed solely from France

71.

Which outcome best describes the Battle of Monmouth?

a)

Standoff with moral boost for American forces

b)

Major British defeat ending northern operations

c)

Decisive British victory with heavy Patriot losses

d)

Complete American victory forcing British surrender

72.

At Monmouth, extreme heat affected casualties. What factor caused nearly as many deaths as enemy action?

a)

Cold exposure during night marches

b)

Heat stroke during intense fighting

c)

Disease spread in encampments

d)

Starvation from supply shortages

73.

Which women are correctly linked to their roles at Monmouth?

a)

Molly Pitcher (Mary Ludwig Hays)

1.

Carried water to Patriot gunners

b)

Margaret Corbin

2.

Took husband’s place at the cannon

c)

Women generally

3.

Participated in battle efforts

74.

Who were American diplomats sent to France seeking recognition and support?

a)

Benjamin Franklin

b)

John Adams

c)

Silas Deane

d)

Arthur Lee

75.

What was a key result of the 1778 treaty with France after Saratoga?

a)

France mediated a ceasefire with Britain only

b)

France annexed American ports for naval bases

c)

France demanded repayment before any aid was given

d)

France recognized the U.S. as an independent nation

76.

Which statement about Spain’s role is accurate?

a)

Spain fought only in the northern theater alongside Britain

b)

Spain stayed neutral throughout the Revolutionary War

c)

Spain signed a direct military alliance with the United States

d)

Spain joined with France to fight Britain, no U.S.–Spain alliance

77.

In the Southern Campaign, which leadership change and action occurred?

a)

Washington replaced Clinton and marched north

b)

Henry Clinton replaced Howe and launched a southern offensive

c)

Cornwallis replaced Howe and ended southern operations

d)

Howe replaced Clinton and withdrew from the South

78.

Which treaty development followed the initial recognition treaty with France?

a)

An agreement returning colonies to British control

b)

A British-French truce ending the war

c)

A trade-only pact with no military clauses

d)

A second treaty forming a formal military alliance

79.

Which British objective best explains the early focus on the southern colonies in 1778–1780?

a)

Protect northern trade routes from raids

b)

Open western lands beyond the Ohio

c)

Secure French alliances for naval aid

d)

Exploit Loyalist support and cash crops

80.

Which city did the British capture in May 1780 with a force of 14,000, resulting in the costliest American defeat of the war?

a)

Wilmington in North Carolina

b)

Norfolk in Virginia

c)

Savannah in Georgia

d)

Charles Town in South Carolina

81.

At the Battle of Camden, what was General Horatio Gates attempting to defend when he failed?

a)

The South Carolina backcountry

b)

The Georgia coastal plantations

c)

The North Carolina Piedmont

d)

The Virginia Tidewater region

82.

Which British cavalry officer was notorious for brutal raids that terrorized Patriot communities in the South?

a)

Henry Clinton

b)

Charles Cornwallis

c)

Patrick Ferguson

d)

Banastre Tarleton

83.

What made the Battle of Kings Mountain (October 7, 1780) a turning point in the South?

a)

British seized major southern ports

b)

Patriot anger spurred guerrilla warfare

c)

Tarleton captured large Patriot armies

d)

Mountain militia defeated Ferguson

84.

Match each figure or place with the correct description from the Southern Campaign.

a)

Savannah, Georgia

1.

British seized control and restored royal governor

b)

Charles Cornwallis

2.

Left in command of British forces in the South

c)

Patrick Ferguson

3.

Led raids against Patriots in Appalachian region

d)

Horatio Gates

4.

Defeated while trying to defend Camden

85.

Which elements best describe General Nathaniel Greene’s strategy for victory in the South?

a)

Rely on hit-and-run disorganization

b)

Wear down British with regular troops

c)

Use militias to cut supply lines

d)

Concentrate forces in set-piece sieges

86.

Which factor most directly led to Cornwallis retreating to Yorktown in 1781?

a)

Benedict Arnold’s growing American support

b)

Losses against militia in South Carolina

c)

Washington’s inability to move troops north

d)

American and French forces creating an opportunity

87.

At Yorktown, how did the French fleet under Admiral de Grasse contribute to the British defeat?

a)

It evacuated British soldiers to New York

b)

It trapped Cornwallis from the sea

c)

It blockaded American supplies from Virginia

d)

It bombarded Charleston for weeks

88.

Which American commander defeated British Captain Tarleton at the Battle of Cowpens?

a)

Francis Marion

b)

John Jay

c)

Daniel Morgan

d)

Anthony Wayne

89.

Which statement best explains why Cornwallis believed time was running out for Britain once Americans controlled Virginia?

a)

Cowpens proved militia could win alone

b)

French troops and supplies could reinforce America

c)

Spanish forces would seize British ports

d)

New York would fall to Benedict Arnold

90.

After Yorktown, which diplomats negotiated with Britain and helped secure American independence in the Treaty of Paris?

a)

John Jay

b)

George Washington

c)

John Adams

d)

Benjamin Franklin

e)

Anthony Wayne

91.

Match each figure or event with its role in the war’s end.

a)

Francis Marion

1.

Swamp Fox, successful militia commander

b)

Battle of Yorktown

2.

Final major battle leading to British surrender

c)

Treaty of Paris (1783)

3.

Agreement recognizing U.S. independence

d)

General Cornwallis

4.

British commander trapped and forced to surrender

92.

Which terms were included in the Treaty of Paris of 1783?

a)

British recognition of the United States

b)

Mississippi River as western border

c)

Florida returned to Spain

d)

Britain retained control of New York

e)

Northern boundary with Florida clearly defined

93.

Which idea best describes the rise of egalitarianism after the Revolution?

a)

Belief that property defines rights

b)

Belief that all people are equal

c)

Belief that social ranks are fixed

d)

Belief that elites should rule

94.

In a republican government, where does political power primarily reside?

a)

With foreign creditors

b)

With a body of citizens

c)

With appointed military leaders

d)

With hereditary monarchs

95.

Which change in voting rights occurred in many states after the Revolution?

a)

Limited to wealthy merchants

b)

Revoked for property owners

c)

Extended to poor white men

d)

Extended to all adult women

96.

Which statement best reflects outcomes for African Americans during the Revolution era?

a)

Northern states began outlawing slavery

b)

Southern states made freeing slaves easier

c)

Black population in Virginia fell sharply

d)

Laws guaranteed equal political rights

97.

Match each Revolutionary-era development to its effect.

a)

Land grants for military service

1.

More commoners ran for office

b)

New state constitutions

2.

Listed individual rights

c)

Religious changes

3.

Freedom of worship expanded

d)

Loyalist migration

4.

About 100,000 fled the U.S.

98.

Which statement best explains why many Americans were reluctant to create a strong central government under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Urban merchants opposed any republic

b)

Foreign debts required centralized control

c)

Allegiance remained to individual colonies

d)

Monarchs demanded local autonomy

99.

Which definition of republicanism fits the post-Revolution United States?

a)

Judges hold lifelong sovereignty

b)

Military councils set policy

c)

Kings rule with divine right

d)

Voters exercise sovereign power

100.

Which statement best describes the overall structure of government under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Unitary system with centralized national sovereignty

b)

Loose union of states with weak central authority

c)

Bicameral Congress with powerful judiciary

d)

Strong national executive with state oversight

101.

Under the Articles of Confederation, which level retained sovereignty over most powers?

a)

National government held supreme sovereignty

b)

County governments retained chief sovereignty

c)

State governments retained independent sovereignty

d)

Local town councils held shared sovereignty

102.

Which feature correctly identifies the Confederation Congress?

a)

It served as the entire national government without executive or judiciary

b)

It was a bicameral legislature with two strong chambers

c)

It was led by a permanent national president and cabinet

d)

It enforced laws through a national court system with judges

103.

Which set lists powers that the national government could exercise under the Articles?

a)

Make treaties and alliances

b)

Directly regulate state constitutions

c)

Raise an army and navy

d)

Coin and borrow money

104.

Match each domain with the level of government primarily responsible under the Articles of Confederation.

a)

Making most laws within territories

1.

State governments

b)

Regulating Indian affairs

2.

National government

c)

Establishing weights and measures

3.

National government

d)

Creating a national court system

4.

Not established under Articles

105.

Why did the Articles intentionally create a weak central government after independence from Britain?

a)

To replicate European monarchies with strong kings

b)

To prevent concentration of power after fighting centralized rule

c)

To enable rapid taxation for national projects

d)

To expand voting rights to all adults immediately

106.

Which statement about early state constitutions in the new republic is accurate?

a)

They emphasized liberty and protected specific rights

b)

They created a national executive above state laws

c)

They guaranteed unlimited powers to governors

d)

They eliminated all voting restrictions instantly

107.

Which weakness of the Articles of Confederation most directly prevented Congress from paying Revolutionary War debts?

a)

Amendments required unanimous consent

b)

No executive or judicial branches

c)

One vote per state in Congress

d)

No power to levy direct taxes

108.

Under the Articles of Confederation, what challenge did the United States face in regulating economic activity between states and nations?

a)

Congress could not regulate trade

b)

States lacked their own currencies

c)

Britain controlled American tariffs

d)

The Treasury banned interstate commerce

109.

Which provision of the Land Ordinance of 1785 addressed the development of western lands?

a)

Surveyed and sold land west of Appalachians

b)

Established a national banking system

c)

Granted immediate statehood to territories

d)

Created federal military districts

110.

What was a key feature of the Northwest Ordinance of 1787 regarding governance and rights?

a)

Guaranteed civil liberties and banned slavery

b)

Imposed federal direct taxes on settlers

c)

Established an executive branch for territories

d)

Required unanimous votes for territorial laws

111.

Which states eventually emerged from the Northwest Territory as free states due to the Northwest Ordinance’s slavery exclusion?

a)

Wisconsin and Ohio

b)

Kentucky and Tennessee

c)

Illinois and Michigan

d)

Ohio and Indiana

112.

Match each issue under the Articles of Confederation with its consequence.

a)

No power to tax

1.

Couldn’t pay war debts

b)

No power to regulate trade

2.

States imposed conflicting tariffs

c)

One vote per state

3.

Small and large states had equal influence

d)

No executive branch

4.

Laws lacked centralized enforcement

113.

After the war, British restrictions on American access to markets led to what federal response?

a)

Granting Britain most-favored-nation status

b)

Imposing national tariffs immediately

c)

Creating a permanent standing army

d)

Negotiating trade treaties with European nations

114.

Which statement best captures the overall problem of national unity under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Federal courts dominated state politics

b)

States were forced into uniform taxation

c)

Weak central authority hindered collective action

d)

A strong presidency divided regional interests

115.

Which issue most directly encouraged states to impose their own customs duties along borders?

a)

British troops occupied frontier forts

b)

State courts overturned tax laws

c)

Spain closed the Mississippi River mouth

d)

Congress lacked power to regulate commerce

116.

Interstate trade conflicts escalated when states taxed each other’s goods. Which example shows this retaliation cycle?

a)

Massachusetts taxed tea; Virginia banned coastal shipping

b)

New York taxed firewood; New Jersey charged for harbor lighthouse

c)

Pennsylvania taxed steel; Delaware halted river ferries

d)

Georgia taxed rice; South Carolina closed its ports to cotton

117.

Why did British goods flood American markets after the Revolution?

a)

Britain subsidized Loyalist factories inside the U.S.

b)

The U.S. embargoed British merchants nationwide

c)

Congress banned domestic manufacturing completely

d)

States had low import duties and weak coordination

118.

Match each challenge under the Articles with its consequence.

a)

Congress had limited powers

1.

No diplomatic leverage against Britain or Spain

b)

States printed more paper money

2.

Inflation and higher prices

c)

Spain closed Mississippi mouth

3.

Western trade blocked for American ships

d)

Refusal to honor prewar debts

4.

British troops remained in western territory

119.

Which statement best explains the diplomatic failures of the Confederation government?

a)

Treaties were banned by state legislatures

b)

States refused to elect foreign ambassadors

c)

Congress could not tax or sanction foreign powers

d)

Britain and Spain were allies of the United States

120.

What policy change by some states aimed to address inflation?

a)

Stopping paper money printing and raising taxes

b)

Issuing more credit to farmers and artisans

c)

Eliminating all tariffs on imported goods

d)

Pegging currency to British pounds sterling

121.

Which combination of factors helped spark Shays’ Rebellion in Massachusetts?

a)

Spanish raids along the Florida border

b)

Loyalist property seizures by Congress

c)

Stopping the printing of paper money

d)

High taxes on indebted farmers

122.

What was a broader result of states acting independently in trade policy under the Articles?

a)

Erosion of national unity across the union

b)

Immediate diplomatic success with Britain

c)

Rapid growth in interstate commerce

d)

Unified tariff schedule across all states

123.

Which concern pushed many leaders to seek a stronger national government in the 1780s?

a)

Fear that state laws weakened property rights

b)

Assurance that courts always favored creditors

c)

Belief that taxes were too low for merchants

d)

Confidence that militias protected every county

124.

What did General Henry Knox argue the government must do in response to lawless violence?

a)

Reduce courts and increase local assemblies

b)

Expand militias without altering institutions

c)

Remain unchanged to preserve state autonomy

d)

Be braced, changed, or altered to secure lives

125.

Shays’ Rebellion influenced calls for change by highlighting which weakness under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Limited national capacity to handle unrest

b)

Uniform state policies on property seizures

c)

Excessive federal control over courthouses

d)

Strong presidential power to seize arsenals

126.

Who were the Nationalists during the 1780s political debates?

a)

Groups focused only on local taxation

b)

Leaders pushing for more state sovereignty

c)

Supporters of keeping the Articles unchanged

d)

Advocates for a stronger central government

127.

Match each event or detail to its correct description.

a)

Annapolis Convention

1.

Meeting to discuss trade and taxation problems

b)

Rhode Island’s choice

2.

State that did not send delegates

c)

Constitutional Convention location

3.

Independence Hall in Philadelphia

d)

Presiding officer

4.

George Washington selected to lead

128.

Which statements about the Constitutional Convention are accurate? Select all that apply.

a)

Meetings were open to the public throughout

b)

Seven state governors and eight Declaration signers attended

c)

James Madison kept detailed notes of proceedings

d)

Most delegates were lawyers, with merchants and planters included

129.

Which feature best describes the Virginia Plan’s approach to representation in Congress?

a)

Representation based on state population in both houses

b)

Representation based on state population in a two-house legislature

c)

Equal seats for every state in one house

d)

Equal seats for every state in a two-house legislature

130.

Who is most closely associated with drafting the Virginia Plan during the Constitutional Convention?

a)

Alexander Hamilton of New York

b)

Roger Sherman from Connecticut

c)

James Madison of Virginia

d)

William Paterson of New Jersey

131.

The New Jersey Plan proposed which structural change to Congress?

a)

A single house elected directly by citizens

b)

A single house with equal representation for states

c)

Two houses with proportional representation

d)

Two houses with equal representation in both

132.

Which powers were emphasized in the New Jersey Plan to strengthen the national government?

a)

Authority to regulate interstate trade

b)

Authority to scrap the Articles entirely

c)

Power to create a national judiciary

d)

Power to raise taxes across states

e)

Power to choose state governors

133.

Match each proposal or outcome with its advocate or defining feature.

a)

Virginia Plan

1.

James Madison’s population-based representation

b)

New Jersey Plan

2.

William Paterson’s single-house equality

c)

Connecticut Compromise

3.

Roger Sherman’s bicameral solution

d)

Senate under Compromise

4.

Equal representation: two senators per state

134.

What problem did the Great (Connecticut) Compromise resolve at the Convention?

a)

Disagreement on slavery and the slave trade

b)

Debate on whether to include a bill of rights

c)

Conflict between large and small states on representation

d)

Disputes over executive term limits

135.

Under the Connecticut Compromise, how were members of the House of Representatives originally selected, and how were states represented there?

a)

Chosen by state legislatures, equal seats for states

b)

Elected by the people, seats by population size

c)

Appointed by the president, equal seats for states

d)

Elected by the people, equal seats for states

136.

Which dispute led delegates to adopt the Three-Fifths Compromise during the Constitutional Convention?

a)

Counting enslaved people fully for direct taxation only

b)

Counting enslaved people in population for representation seats

c)

Counting free Black citizens separately from white citizens

d)

Counting women voters equally with male property holders

137.

Under the Three-Fifths Compromise, how were enslaved people counted for representation and taxation?

a)

Every five enslaved people counted as three persons

b)

Every five enslaved people counted as two persons

c)

Every three enslaved people counted as two persons

d)

Every four enslaved people counted as three persons

138.

Which position was commonly held by many Southern delegates regarding how enslaved people should be counted?

a)

Count enslaved people fully to increase congressional seats

b)

Count enslaved people equally with eligible voters

c)

Exclude enslaved people entirely from population totals

d)

Count enslaved people only for federal taxation purposes

139.

What did delegates decide about the slave trade during the Convention?

a)

Ban immediately across all states

b)

Leave regulation solely to the states

c)

Postpone federal action until 1808

d)

Expand and subsidize exports

140.

Match each group to the description that best fits its stance during ratification.

a)

Federalists

1.

Supported a stronger federal system to protect property and regulate trade

b)

Antifederalists

2.

Feared centralized power and the loss of state independence

c)

Convention delegates (most)

3.

Generally favored the Constitution, with a few notable holdouts

141.

Which statements describe Federalists in the ratification debate? Select all that apply.

a)

Emphasized a federal system that retained some state powers

b)

Included wealthy landowners, merchants, artisans, and small farmers

c)

Rejected the Constitution in favor of the Articles of Confederation

d)

Opposed interstate trade and preferred local markets

142.

Why did many Northern delegates object to counting enslaved people fully in state populations?

a)

Because enslaved people could not vote in state elections

b)

Because enslaved people were already counted in separate censuses

c)

Because enslaved people paid fewer federal taxes

d)

Because enslaved people were mostly concentrated in urban states