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Exam 3: Dr. Mo

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To which of the following virus groups does the causative agent of Bolivian hemorrhagic fever belong?

a)

Picornavirus

b)

Rhabdovirus

c)

Orthomyxovirus

d)

Arenavirus

e)

Papovavirus

2.

The Polio Virus belongs to which of the following groups of Viruses?

a)

Herpesvirus

b)

Orthomyxovirus

c)

Paramycovirus

d)

Papovavirus

e)

Picornavirus

3.

Which of the following produces its pharmacological effect by inhibiting the DNA terminase complex?

a)

Eteplirsen

b)

Letermovir

c)

Entecavir

d)

Adefovir

e)

Denavir

4.

Which of the following is NOT common to Protease Inhibitors that are employed in AIDS management?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Inhibition of the cleavage of HIV-encoded gag-pol polyproteins

c)

Biotransformation by CYP 3A4

d)

Oral administration

e)

Fecal excretion

5.

All of the following are HIV protease inhibitors EXCEPT:

a)

Saquinavir (Invirase)

b)

Foscavir (Foscarnet)

c)

Nelfinavir

d)

Ritonavir (Norvir)

e)

Lopinavir

6.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Chemokine receptor inhibitor?

a)

Enfuvirtide

b)

Zamanivir

c)

Mogamulizumab

d)

Taribavirin

e)

Vidrabine

7.

All of the following drugs have been shown to possess an antiviral activity against RSV EXCEPT:

a)

Palivizumab (Synagis)

b)

Doravirine (Pifeltro)

c)

Ribavirin (Copegus, Rebetol, Virazole)

d)

Remdesivir (Veklury)

e)

Interferon-alpha

8.

The mechanisms of action of Interferons involve which of the following? SATA

a)

Stimulation of Natural Killer Cells

b)

Increased Antibody production

c)

Decreased Antibody production

d)

Decreased production of Biological Response Markers

e)

Stimulation of the 2’-5’ Oligosoadenylate synthetase

9.

Which of the following is an immunization that provides protection against a Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) infection of a 60-year-old individual? SATA

a)

Arexvy

b)

Comirnaty

c)

Abrysvo

d)

Beyfortus

e)

Novavax

10.

The primary mechanism of action of Remdesivir (Veklury) is the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

b)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

c)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

d)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

e)

DNA ligase

11.

Which of the following binds to gp120 and prevents viral connection to CD4?

a)

Pleconaril

b)

Peramivir

c)

Selzentry

d)

Ibalizumab

e)

Temsavir

12.

The mechanism of action of Ibalizumab involves the inhibition of the binding of HIV to which of the following Chemokine receptors? SATA

a)

CCR4

b)

CCR5

c)

CX3CR

d)

CXCR4

e)

XCR5

13.

Which of the following produces its pharmacological effect by binding to gp120 and thus preventing HIV connection to CD4 on host cells?

a)

Pleconaril

b)

Fostemsavir (Rukobia)

c)

Fosamprenavir (Lexiva)

d)

Peramivir (Rapivab)

e)

Ateviridine

14.

Which of the following produces its antiviral effect by inhibiting the endonuclease activity of the Polymerase acidic protein?

a)

Fuzeon (Enfuvirtide)

b)

Baloxavir (Xofluza)

c)

Fosetarnivir (Rukobia)

d)

Amantadine (Gocovri, Osmolex ER, Symadine, Symmetrel)

e)

Peramivir (Rapivab)

15.

Which of the following produces its antiviral effect by inhibiting Neuraminidase?

a)

Pegasys (Alpha 2A)

b)

Rukobia (Fosetamsavir)

c)

Rapivab

d)

Picovir (Pleconaril)

e)

Fuzeon (Enfuvirtide)

16.

Which of the following produces its antiviral effect by binding the first heptad repeat in the gp41 subunit of the envelope glycoprotein and thus impairing the fusion of a virus to the host cell?

a)

Maraviroc

b)

Zanamivir

c)

Penciclovir

d)

Mogamulizumab

e)

Enfuvirtide

17.

Which of the following is the appropriate prophylactic dose of Tamiflu in an individual who weighs 44 lbs (20 kg)?

a)

30 mg PO BID

b)

45 mg PO BID

c)

60 mg PO QD

d)

45 mg PO QD

e)

75 mg PO QD

18.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Zidovudine? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Muscle weakness and Fatigue

b)

Lipodystrophy

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Hepatomegaly with Steatosis

e)

Myositis

19.

All of the following are adverse effects of Zidovudine (AZT) EXCEPT:

a)

Severe headaches and seizures

b)

Myositis and Myopathy

c)

Macrocytic Anemia and Granulocytosis

d)

Nausea and Vomiting

e)

Hepatomegaly with Steatosis

20.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of AZT?

a)

Granulocytopenia

b)

Microcytic anemia

c)

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

d)

Skin and nail hyperpigmentation

e)

Seizures

21.

An AIDS patient who is being treated with Azidothymidine (AZT) presents with Ataxia, Nystagmus, Agitation, Postural Hypotension, and Tremor. (Wernicke’s Encephalopathy) Which of the following should be employed in managing his current presentation?

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

GM-CSF

c)

Thiamine

d)

Fulyzaq

e)

Vitamin D

22.

Amantadine is beneficial in the management of which of the following conditions?

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Restless leg syndrome

c)

HIV/AIDS

d)

Dyskinesia

e)

Extrapyramidal syndrome

23.

Which of the following is used to treat Hepatitis C?

a)

Nusinersen

b)

Hepcinat

c)

ara-A

d)

Braclude

e)

Hepesta

24.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be classified as a Pyrimidine nucleoside?

a)

ara-A

b)

Idoxuridine

c)

Trifluridine

d)

Bromovinyldeoxyuridine

e)

Fluoroiodoaracytidine

25.

Which of the following is a DNA-containing virus?

a)

Eastern Equine Encephalitis virus

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Rabies virus

d)

Vaccinia virus

e)

Measles virus

26.

Which of the following is the causative agent of German measles?

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Rabies Virus

c)

Rubella Virus

d)

Rhinovirus

e)

Enterovirus

27.

Which of the following is the causative agent of Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy?

a)

Machupo virus

b)

Variola virus

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Echovirus

e)

John Cunningham Virus

28.

Which of the following is an appropriate dose of Acyclovir for the treatment of Chickenpox?

a)

800 mg PO QD

b)

400 mg PO QD

c)

200 mg IV QD

d)

200 mg IV TID

e)

400 mg PO QID

29.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Zovirax (Acyclovir)?

a)

Genital Herpes

b)

Genital Warts

c)

Shingles

d)

Chicken Pox

e)

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

30.

The causative agent of Kaposi sarcoma belongs to which of the following virus groups?

a)

Adenovirus

b)

Arenavirus

c)

Picornavirus

d)

Herpes Virus

e)

Reovirus

31.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the “Quad” pill?

a)

A nucleotide

b)

Emtricitabine

c)

Cobicistat

d)

Tenofovir alafenamide

e)

Elvitegravir

32.

A patient who is receiving Acyclovir 800 mg PO 5 times a day for 7-10 days is MOST LIKELY being treated for which of the following?

a)

Cold sores

b)

Genital herpes

c)

Shingles

d)

Chickenpox

e)

Infectious mononucleosis

33.

Which of the following is the recommended dosage of Acyclovir when it is used to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis?

a)

200 mg PO Q4H x 10 days

b)

20 mg/kg PO QID x 5 days

c)

10 mg/kg IV Q8H x 21 days

d)

800 mg IV QID x 21 days

e)

40 mg /g IV Q8H x 10 days

34.

Cytarabine is beneficial in the management of which of the following? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Burkitt's Lymphoma

b)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

c)

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

d)

Shingles

e)

Acute Granulocytic Leukemia

35.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Atazanivir? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Scleral icterus

b)

Cholelithiasis

c)

Nephrolithiasis

d)

Hyperbilirubinemia

e)

PR interval prolongation

36.

Scleral icterus may result from therapy with Atazanavir (Reyataz) because the drug produces which of the following?

a)

Hyperbilirubinemia

b)

Nephrolithiasis

c)

Cholelithiasis

d)

Abdominal Pain

e)

Insomnia

37.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Atazanavir (Reyataz)?

a)

Hyperbilirubinemia

b)

Nephrolithiasis

c)

Cholelithiasis

d)

Lipodystrophy

e)

Somnolence

38.

Which of the following statements about Reyataz is FALSE?

a)

It inhibits CYP3A4

b)

It is a substrate for CYP3A4

c)

It undergoes renal excretion primarily

d)

It is administered orally with food

e)

It should not be administered concurrently with Omeprazole

39.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor?

a)

Epivir

b)

Intelence

c)

Dolutegravir

d)

Pifeltro

e)

Aptivus

40.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be classified as an NNRTI?

a)

Entecavir

b)

Etravirine

c)

Rilpivirine

d)

Doravirine

e)

Emivirine

41.

Which of the following statements about Rilpivirine (Edurant) is FALSE?

a)

It is administered orally and biotransformed by CYP3A4

b)

It is about 99.7% Albumin-bound

c)

It has a half-life of 5 hours

d)

It is primarily excreted through the feces

e)

It does not exhibit auto-induction

42.

Which of the following, if administered concomitantly with Rilpivirine (Edurant), will decrease the GI absorption of Edurant? SATA

a)

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

b)

Famotidine (Pepcid)

c)

Maalox (Aluminum Hydroxide and Magnesium Hydroxide)

d)

Phenobarbital

e)

Phenytoin

43.

All of the following are NNRTIs EXCEPT:

a)

Delavirdine

b)

Doravirine

c)

Nevirapine

d)

Atevirdine

e)

Taribavirin

44.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to increase the hepatotoxicity of Raltegravir when administered concurrently with Raltegravir?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Selzentry

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Methotrexate

e)

Nizoral

45.

The incidence of Raltegravir-induced hepatotoxicity is enhanced when it is administered concurrently with all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Lovastatin

e)

Acetaminophen

46.

SELECT THE CORRECT STATEMENT: A concurrent administration of Raltegravir and ___ may result in the exacerbation of the skin-related adverse effect of Raltegravir:

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Atorvastatin

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Tylenol

e)

Darunavir/Ritonavir

47.

A pro-drug that is administered to HIV patients for 36 months as preventative therapy for tuberculosis. This drug decreases the synthesis of mycolic acid resulting in diminished lipids in the cell wall.

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Pyrazinamide

c)

Dalfopristin

d)

Linezolid

e)

Tobramycin

48.

Adverse effects of Tobramycin include:

a)

Neurotoxicity

b)

Auditory and Vestibular Ototoxicity

c)

Nephrotoxicity

d)

Neuromuscular Blockade

49.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect during therapy with Isentress?

a)

Decreased levels of creatine phosphokinase

b)

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

c)

Suicidal ideation

d)

Myopathy

e)

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

50.

Which of the following is the vector of the St. Louis encephalitis virus?

a)

Aedes egyptii

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex tarsalis

d)

Culex univittatus

e)

Culiseta melanura

51.

Which of the following is NOT transmitted by the Aedes egyptii mosquito? ____ virus.

a)

St. Louis Encephalitis

b)

Chikungunya

c)

Yellow Fever

d)

Dengue

e)

Zika

52.

Culiseta melanura mosquito is the vector for the causative agent of which of the following viral infectious disease?

a)

West Nile Encephalitis

b)

St. Louis Encephalitis

c)

Ebola Hemorrhagic Fever

d)

Zika Fever

e)

Eastern Equine Encephalitis (Triple E)

53.

The Aedes mosquito is the vector of which of the following viruses?

a)

Dengue Fever Virus

b)

Lassa Fever Virus

c)

Yellow Fever Virus

d)

Zika Fever Virus

e)

SARS-CoV-2

54.

Which of the following statements about Lenacapavir is FALSE?

a)

It is administered orally and intramuscularly

b)

It is primarily excreted through the feces

c)

It is administered concurrently with Islatravir

d)

It is metabolized by CYP3A4 and UGT-1A1

e)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability

55.

Which of the following is an Antisense oligonucleotide that is employed in the treatment of Hepatitis B?

a)

Afovirsen

b)

Fomivirsen

c)

Bepirovirsen

d)

Mipomersen

e)

Eteplirsen

56.

Which of the following is a Nucleotide that is employed in the treatment of Hepatitis B? SATA

a)

Adefovir

b)

Tenofovir

c)

Emtricitabine

d)

Famciclovir

e)

Bepirovirsen

57.

Which of the following is a nucleotide preparation that is used to treat Hepatitis B infections?

a)

Adefovir

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Telbivudine

d)

Entecavir

e)

Famciclovir

58.

Which of the following inhibits DNA repair enzyme APEX nuclease-1?

a)

Trifluridine

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Zidovudine

d)

Brivudine

e)

Amantadine

59.

Which of the following is effective in the treatment of Shingles because it inhibits viral DNA repair by inhibiting the enzyme APEX nuclease-1?

a)

Emtricitabine (Emtriva)

b)

Fiacitabine

c)

Cytarabine (Cytosar-U)

d)

Zidovudine (Retrovir)

e)

Brivudine (Zostex)

60.

Which of the following produces its pharmacological effect by inhibiting the protein kinase activity of CMV pUL97?

a)

Maribavir

b)

Lubocavir

c)

Cidofovir

d)

Adefovir

e)

Boceprevir

61.

Which of the following is a purine analog that is employed in the treatment of CMV-induced retinitis?

a)

Phosphonoformic acid

b)

Phosphonomethoxypropyl adenine

c)

Dihysroxypropoxymethyl guanine

d)

Glucopyranuronosyl thymidine

e)

Bromovinyl deoxyuridine

62.

Which of the following is a Dihydroxypropoxymethyl guanine preparation that is employed in the management of CMV infections? SATA

a)

Cymeval

b)

Cymevene

c)

Cytovene

d)

Vitravene

e)

Vitrasert

63.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be used to treat CMV-induced retinitis?

a)

Lobucavir

b)

Letermovir (Prevymis)

c)

Boceprevir (Victrelis)

d)

Ganciclovir (Cymevene/Vitrasert)

e)

Cidofovir (Vistide)

64.

When given concurrently with Zidovudine, which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to enhance the hematologic toxicity of Zidovudine?

a)

Probenecid

b)

Aspirin

c)

Indocin

d)

Tylenol

e)

Acyclovir

65.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Tenofovir?

a)

Increased bone density

b)

Fanconi syndrome

c)

Renal insufficiency

d)

Osteomalacia

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

66.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Foscavir?

a)

1st-degree AV block; Atrial fibrillation

b)

Seizures; Hallucination

c)

Asthenia; Fatigue

d)

Irritability; Paresthesiasis

e)

Circumoral tingling and Numbness

67.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Foscavir?

a)

Hypophosphatemia and Hypercalcemia

b)

Asthenia and Fatigue

c)

Hallucination and Paresthesia

d)

Tachycardia and 1st degree AV block

e)

Nephrotoxicity and Anemia

68.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Foscavir (Foscarnet)?

a)

Paresthesias

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hallucination

d)

Seizures

e)

Renal Impairment

69.

Which of the following is a patient who is being treated with Symtuza not receiving?

a)

Cobicistat

b)

Emtricitabine

c)

Darunavir

d)

Elvitegravir

e)

Tenofovir alafenamide

70.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Apretude 200 mg/mL?

a)

One injection every 2 months

b)

One injection every 3 months

c)

Two injections every 2 months

d)

Two injections given one month apart for 2 consecutive months

e)

Three injections given one month apart for 3 consecutive months

71.

Mr. Zot’s Hepatitis C is being treated with a combination of Pibrentasivir and Glecaprevir. Which of the following was Mr. Zot receiving?

a)

Harvoni

b)

Zepatier

c)

Mavyret

d)

Epclusa

e)

Hepcinat

72.

A patient who is severely allergic to Ritonavir only should NOT be treated with which of the following?

a)

Viekira

b)

Vosevi

c)

Mavyret

d)

Technivie

e)

Epclusa

73.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct contents?

a)

Viekira → Paritaprevir + Ombitasvir + Daclatasvir + Ritonavir

b)

Vosevi → Sofosbuvir + Velpatasvir + Voxilaprevir

c)

Epclusa → Sofosbuvir + Velpatasvir

d)

Technivie → Paritaprevir + Ombitasvir + Ritonavir

e)

Harvoni → Sofosbuvir + Ledipasvir

74.

Which of the following combination products that are employed in the treatment of Hepatitis C virus infection contain Paritaprevir, Ritonavir, Dasabuvir, and Ombitasvir?

a)

Epclusa

b)

Vosevi

c)

Mavyret

d)

Technivie

e)

Viekira

75.

Which of the following should be avoided in a patient who is severely allergic to Dolutegravir?

a)

Triumeq

b)

Dovato

c)

Juluca

d)

Cabenuva

e)

Epzicom

76.

Which of the following combination products that are used in managing AIDS is NOT matched with its correct contents?

a)

ODEFSEY → Rilpivirine + Emtricitabine + Tenofovir Disproxil Fumarate

b)

DOVATO → Dolutegravir + Lamivudine

c)

JULUCA → Dolutegravir _ Rilpivirine

d)

CABENUVA → Rilpivirine + Cabotegravir

e)

SYMTUZA → Emtricitabine + Tenofovir alafenamide + Cobicistat + Darunavir

77.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct contents?

a)

Triumeq → Dolutegravir + Lamivudine + Abacavir

b)

Juluca → Dolutegravir + Rilpivirine

c)

Genvoya → Emtricitabine + Tenofovir alafenamide + Cobicistat + Elvitegravir

d)

Stribild → Emtricitabine + Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate + Cobicistat + Elvitegravir

e)

Biktarvy → Emtricitabine + Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate + Bictegravir

78.

Genvoya is used to treat AIDS; which of the following is NOT a content of that product?

a)

A pharmacokinetic booster

b)

Emtricitabine (NRTI)

c)

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

d)

Elvitegravir (Integrase Inhibitor)

e)

Cobicistat (A pharmacokinetic booster/enhancer)

79.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Tenofovir Viread?

a)

Exacerbation of Hepatitis B virus infection

b)

Increased bone mineral density

c)

Flatulence and bloating

d)

Fanconi Syndrome

e)

Osteomalacia

80.

Mr. Ziu's HIV infection is being treated with Delstrigo; Which of the following is he not receiving?

a)

Emtricitabine

b)

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

c)

Lamivudine

d)

Doravirine

e)

Ritonavir

81.

A Medical Team wants to use a combination of Lamivudine, Tenofovir, and Efavirenz to treat Mr. Zog’s HIV infections; Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE product for a Pharmacist to recommend?

a)

Sustiva

b)

Delstrigo

c)

Epzicom

d)

Trizivir

e)

Symfi

82.

Which of the following is a NS5B polymerase inhibitor that is used to treat Hepatitis C?

a)

Boceprevir

b)

Telaprevir

c)

Ombitasvir

d)

Sofosbuvir

e)

Voxilaprevir

83.

Which of the following is classified as a Hepatitis C virus polymerase inhibitor?

a)

Voxilaprevir

b)

Ombitasvir

c)

Dasabuvir (Exviera)

d)

Daclatasvir

e)

Simeprevir (Olysio)

84.

Which of the following Antiviral Agents is used to treat Hepatitis C infection is BEST classified as a Polymerase Inhibitor?

a)

Sofosbuvir

b)

Ombitasvir

c)

Velpatasvir

d)

Simeprevir

e)

Grazoprevir

85.

Nystatin is used to treat all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Thrush

b)

Tinea pedis

c)

Candidal septicemia

d)

Candidal vulvovaginitis

e)

Oropharyngeal candidiasis

86.

Paxlovid can interfere with the biotransformation of which of the following? SATA

a)

Flecainide

b)

Propafene

c)

Simvastatin

d)

Amlodipine

e)

Midazolam

87.

Which of the following statements about Paxlovid is FALSE?

a)

Recurrence of COVID-19 symptoms may be observed after therapy with the drug

b)

It should be administered to individuals who are least 12 years old

c)

It should be avoided in patients who have a GFR of 70 mL/min

d)

It should be administered at a dosage of 3 tablets PO BID x 5 days in patients who do not have renal dysfunction

e)

The patient who is on Paxlovid should be advised to complete the full 5-day treatment even if hospitalization is required

88.

Which of the following is involved in the mechanism of action of Paxlovid? Inhibition of ____:

a)

Cytochrome P450 3A4

b)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

c)

Reverse transcriptase

d)

PLpro

e)

Mpro

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