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Organizational Structure and Design

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Organizing defines what to do and strategy defines how to do it.

a)

False

b)

True

2.

The organizational structure is the framework in which the organization defines how tasks are divided, resources are deployed, and departments are coordinated.

a)

False

b)

True

3.

Traditional views of organizational design recommend a span of management of about 7 to 10 subordinates per manager.

a)

False

b)

True

4.

For companies to operate effectively, the amount of centralization or decentralization should fit the firm’s strategy.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

A task force is a temporary team or committee formed to solve a specific short term problem involving several departments

a)

False

b)

True

6.

Functional coordination refers to frequent horizontal coordination and communication carried out through ongoing relationships of shared goals, shared knowledge and mutual respect.

a)

False

b)

True

7.

The delineates the chain of command, indicates departmental tasks and how they fit together, and provides order and logic for the organization.

a)

Organizational chart

b)

Employee directory

c)

Structure chart

d)

Administrative chart

e)

Structural table

8.

The matrix structure violates which of the following principles of management?

a)

Division of labor

b)

Spam of management

c)

Work specialization

d)

Unity of direction

e)

Unity of command

9.

Which of the following is a contemporary approach to structural design in departmentalization?

a)

Traditional divisions

b)

Geographic-based

c)

Functional

d)

Teams

e)

Divisional

10.

With a(n) ______ strategy, the organization attempts to develop innovative products unique to the market.

a)

Differentiation

b)

Integration

c)

Cost leadership

d)

Defensive

e)

Reengineering

11.

Which types of teams most are appropriate when the primary goal is innovation and the organization needs flexibility to cope with an uncertain environment?

a)

Mechanistic

b)

Vertical

c)

Horizontal

d)

Tight

e)

Functional

12.

Organizational change refers to the adoption of a new idea or behavior by an organization.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

An ambidextrous approach means incorporating structures and processes that are appropriate for both the creative impulse and the systematic implementation of innovations.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Lack of trust is perhaps the biggest obstacle to organizational change.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Two possible tactics for overcoming resistance to change are coercion and negotiation.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

According to Fast Company, in 2016, _______ was ranked as the World’s Most Innovative Company.

a)

BuzzFeed

b)

Black Lives Matter

c)

Amazon

d)

Taco Bell

e)

Uber

17.

Why light companies emphasize training and development for managers?

a)

Training other staff is too disruptive to operations

b)

Companies simply do not want to invest in lower-level employees

c)

They hope that managerial training and development will lead to behavior change and diffuse throughout the company

d)

This is because they do not understand the importance of training all staff

e)

There are not many training programs suitable for non-managers

18.

When used following mergers or acquisitions, organizational development often addresses _______, a major cause of strife and even failure

a)

Lack of trust

b)

Poor morale

c)

Differences in corporate culture

d)

Lack of innovation

e)

High turnover

19.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the large-group intervention model?

a)

Results in incremental change

b)

Learning for the small group

c)

Addresses the entire system

d)

Gradual time frame

e)

Limited distribution

20.

________ systems schedule materials to arrive at a company just as they are needed on the production line

a)

Mass customization

b)

LIFO

c)

First in, first out

d)

Just-in-time inventory

e)

Last in, last out

21.

The ______ approach is particularly appropriate when users need to feel involved and have the power to effectively resist the proposed change

a)

Negotiation

b)

Top management support

c)

Participation

d)

Coercion

e)

Education

22.

The __________ strategy recognizes that the cutting edge of innovation often happens with young, small, entrepreneurial companies rather than inside the walls of established firms

a)

Innovation-by-acquisition

b)

Fast-cycle team

c)

Brainstorming team

d)

Skunkworks

e)

New-venture team

23.

Hiring and keeping high-quality employees with the right set of skills is one of the most urgent concerns for today’s organizations

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Finding the right people to apply new information technology for e-business is a current strategic issue of particular concern for HR managers

a)

False

b)

True

25.

Affirmative action requires that an employer take positive steps to guarantee promotion from within

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Social business is one of the most recent approaches in the evolution of management thinking

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which of the following created the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission?

a)

Immigration reform and control act

b)

Americans with disabilities act

c)

Civil rights act

d)

Vocational rehabilitation act

e)

Equal pay act

28.

The Family and Medical Leave Act requires employers to provide up to ____ weeks unpaid leave for childbirth, adoption, or family emergencies

a)

8

b)

16

c)

52

d)

12

e)

24

29.

Which of the following is inappropriate to ask on an employment application?

a)

What the applicant’s ancestry/ethnicity is

b)

Whether the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime

c)

Whether the applicant is over 18

d)

Where the applicant went to school

e)

Whether the applicant has any disabilities that might inhibit job performance

30.

Which of the following racial/ethnic categories currently represents the largest and fastest growing minority group in the U.S. workforce?

a)

Hispanic

b)

Asian

c)

White

d)

African American

e)

Native American

31.

________ are rigid, exaggerated, irrational beliefs associated with a particular group of people

a)

Stereotypes

b)

Biases

c)

Attitudes

d)

Labels

e)

Schemas

32.

Which term refers to an organization that accommodates several subcultures?

a)

Ethnocentrism

b)

Pluralism

c)

Monoculturalism

d)

Geocentricism

e)

Ethnorelativism

33.

_____ groups are based on social identity, such as gender or race and are organized within companies to focus on concerns of employees from that group

a)

Employee affinity

b)

Mutual support

c)

Special interest

d)

Mentoring

e)

Minority support

34.

An internal attribution says that something about the situation has caused the person’s behavior

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Locus of control refers to an individual’s belief that he or she can successfully accomplish a specific task or outcome

a)

True

b)

False

36.

People with an internal locus of control are easier to motivate because they believe the rewards are result of their behavior

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Blaming the teacher for a poor grade on an exam, while taking personal credit for good grades could be an example of _____

a)

Perceptual distortion

b)

Closure activity

c)

Self-serving bias

d)

Stereotyping

e)

Perceptual grouping

38.

The Big Five personality factor of ____ seems to be particularly important in today’s collaborative organizations

a)

Likability

b)

Agreeableness

c)

Friendliness

d)

Openness

e)

Sociability

39.

Research suggests that people with an external locus of control are _______

a)

More achievement oriented

b)

Better able to handle complex information and problem solving

c)

More independent

d)

Easier to motivate

e)

Easier to manage

40.

According to Jung, _______-type people would rather work with known facts and hard data and prefer routine and order in gathering information

a)

Feeling

b)

Thinking

c)

Intuitive

d)

Sensation

e)

Perceiving

41.

A high degree of ______ means you can accurately assess your own strengths and limitations and have a healthy sense of self-confidence

a)

Self-management

b)

Social cohesiveness

c)

Social awareness

d)

Relationship management

e)

Self-awareness

42.

The first step toward better time management is to _______

a)

Decide the first action

b)

Empty your head

c)

Delegate as necessary

d)

Defer some things to be done later

e)

Get organized

43.

In which stage of the perception process are individuals likely to put things into patterns?

a)

Selecting

b)

Projecting

c)

Organizing

d)

Sensing

e)

Reasoning

44.

Research shows that _______ are predisposed to being pragmatic, capable of lying to achieve personal goals, more likely to win in win-lose situations, and more likely to persuade than be persuaded

a)

High introverts

b)

High authoritarians

c)

High Machs

d)

Low extroverts

e)

Low Machs

45.

Leadership is the ability to influence people toward the attainment of organizational goals

a)

False

b)

True

46.

Leadership is reciprocal, which means it ______.

a)

Is dynamic

b)

Is a problem-solving activity

c)

Always creates conflict

d)

Occurs among people

e)

Is redundant

47.

The early research on leadership traits has been characterized as the _________.

a)

Contingency theory of leadership

b)

Path-goal theory of leadership

c)

“Great man” approach

d)

Situational theory of leadership

e)

Behavioral approach

48.

Researchers at The Ohio State University identified two major behaviors related to leadership style: _______

a)

Consideration and concern for people

b)

Consideration and initiating structure

c)

Commitment and consideration

d)

Initiating structure and commitment

e)

Commitment and initiation

49.

Two leadership styles used by Fiedler in his contingency theory are _________

a)

Consideration and initiating structure

b)

Employee-oriented and relations-oriented

c)

Employee-centered and job-centered

d)

Relationship-oriented and task-oriented

e)

Concern for people and concern for production

50.

Which types of follower participates actively in the organization but does not use critical-thinking skills?

a)

Pragmatic survivor

b)

Alienated

c)

Effective

d)

Passive

e)

Conformist

51.

The results of studies asking people to rank the desired characteristics of leaders and followers show that _______ is the most desirable

a)

Cooperation

b)

Intelligence

c)

Loyalty

d)

Creativity

e)

Honesty

52.

In the Level 5 Leader Model, someone at Level 1 is termed _____

a)

Capable

b)

Effective

c)

Contributing

d)

Executive

e)

Competent

53.

The recommended management style from the leadership grid is _____

a)

Country club management

b)

Impoverished management

c)

Middle-of-the-road management

d)

Authority-compliance management

e)

Team managemen

54.

According to the leadership grid, _______ means the absence of a management philosophy, whereby managers exert little effort toward interpersonal relationships or work accomplishment

a)

Impoverished management

b)

Solitary management

c)

Middle-of-the-road management

d)

Low-road management

e)

Authority-compliance management

55.

Which of the following types of leader clarifies the role and task requirements of subordinates, initiates structure, provides appropriate rewards, and tries to be considerate and meet the social needs of subordinates?

a)

Transactional

b)

Team

c)

Transformational

d)

Supportive

e)

Charismatic

56.

Employee motivation affects productivity, and part of a managers job is to channel motivation toward the accomplishment of organizational goals

a)

False

b)

True

57.

Rewards can be classified as extrinsic or monetary

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which of the following theories places an emphasis on behavior and its consequences

a)

Needs hierarchy

b)

Reinforcement

c)

Equity

d)

ERG

e)

Two-factor

59.

Which of the following is sometimes called negative reinforcement?

a)

Neutral learning

b)

Extinction

c)

Avoidance learning

d)

Positive reinforcement

e)

Punishment

60.

The job characteristic of feedback provides the worker with _____.

a)

Employee growth-need strength

b)

Experienced meaningfulness of work

c)

Knowledge of actual rights

d)

Demotivation

e)

Experienced responsibility

61.

The delegation of power and authority to subordinates is referred to as _____.

a)

Passing the buck

b)

Need for affiliation

c)

Need for power

d)

Need for achievement

e)

Empowerment

62.

If employees are to be more empowered to truly make a different, they must have the power to make _________ decisions.

a)

Substantive

b)

Routine

c)

Nonbinding

d)

Minor

e)

Trivial

63.

Gain sharing rewards employees with part ownership of the organization based on achieving performance goals

a)

False

b)

True

64.

Which of the following refers to arousal, direction, and persistence or behavior?

a)

Regarding behavior

b)

Behavior modification

c)

Motivation

d)

Satisfaction

e)

commitment

65.

Which of the following theories emphasizes the needs that motivate people

a)

Situational

b)

Contingency

c)

Process

d)

Content

e)

Reinforcement

66.

According to Herzberg, _____ is an example of a hygiene factor

a)

Achievement

b)

Opportunity for growth

c)

Pay

d)

Responsibility

e)

Recognition

67.

Managers facilitate strategic conversations by using open communication, actively listening to others, asking questions, and using feedback for learning and change

a)

False

b)

True

68.

Managers spend 80% of every working day doing desk work

a)

False

b)

True

69.

Without feedback, communication is only a two-way process: sender to receiver and receiver to sender

a)

True

b)

False

70.

The skills of __________ require receiving messages to accurately grasp facts and feelings to interpret the meaning of the message

a)

Communication

b)

Telling

c)

Listening

d)

Managing

e)

Reception

71.

When an electronic mail system is installed as part of the communication system, what element of the communication process is changed?

a)

Filter

b)

Sender

c)

Receiver

d)

Channel

e)

Message

72.

Which of the following is the most familiar and obvious flow of formal communication?

a)

Horizontal

b)

Downward

c)

Upward

d)

Gossip

e)

The grapevine

73.

Information distortion or loss of message content is a major problem with _____ communication

a)

Downward

b)

Upward

c)

Horizontal

d)

Formal

e)

Informal

74.

What percent of the details passed through a grapevine is accurate

a)

40-60

b)

25-35

c)

Almost 100

d)

70-90

e)

15-20

75.

A critical characteristic of strategic conversations is that they _______

a)

Are upward communications

b)

Occur via social media

c)

Direct attention to values

d)

Include asking questions

e)

Use personal networks

76.

About 75% of effective communication is _______

a)

Listening

b)

The ability to persuade

c)

Asking questions

d)

Choosing the channel

e)

Telling

77.

Which statement about communication differences between women and men is accurate?

a)

To women, talk is primarily a means to preserve independence and negotiate and maintain status in a hierarchy.

b)

To women, listening can take place with minimum eye contact and almost no nonverbal feedback

c)

In general, when a woman nods, it means she agrees

d)

Women tend to use verbal language to exhibit knowledge and skill, such as by telling stories, joking, or passing on information

e)

When women make decisions, they tend to process and think of options out loud

78.

Which outcome is associated with the culture of open communication?

a)

Slower decision making

b)

Higher absenteeism

c)

Creative solutions to problems

d)

Less-accurate decision making

e)

Lower turnover

79.

A common dysfunction of teams is the presence of conflict

a)

False

b)

True

80.

Face-to-face interaction outside of formal meetings can increase productivity

a)

True

b)

False

81.

A task force is a type of ______.

a)

Command team

b)

Special-purpose team

c)

Vertical team

d)

Cross-functional team

e)

Executive team

82.

Work team effectiveness is based on three outcomes: productive output, capacity to adapt and learn, and _____.

a)

Commitment

b)

Leadership

c)

Satisfaction

d)

Norms

e)

Cohesiveness

83.

The forming stage of team development is characterized by ______.

a)

Orientation

b)

Cooperation

c)

The establishment of order and cohesion

d)

Problem solving

e)

Conflict

84.

Which of the following statements about cohesive teams is true?

a)

Morale is higher is cohesive teams

b)

Absenteeism rates are higher with cohesive teams

c)

Productivity is lower in cohesive team

d)

Morale always suffers in cohesive teams

e)

Satisfaction is lower in cohesive teams

85.

______ refers to the tendency for the first behaviors that occur in a team to set a precedent for later team behaviors

a)

Explicit statements

b)

Carryover behaviors

c)

Recency

d)

Primacy

e)

Critical events

86.

_______ pertains to performance and the quality of task outputs as defined by team goals

a)

Productive output

b)

Satisfaction

c)

Norm

d)

Capacity to adapt

e)

Commitment

87.

Functional teams are to ______ as cross-functional teams are to _______.

a)

Project teams; task force

b)

Manager and subordinates; similar levels of the hierarchy

c)

Task forces; command teams

d)

Special purpose teams; task forces

e)

Interdepartmental; intradepartmental

88.

Self-managed teams are related to trend toward ______ work environments

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Bossless

c)

Personalized

d)

Vertical

e)

Deterministic

89.

A standard for performance is included in an organization’s overall strategic plan to compare organizational activities against

a)

False

b)

True

90.

An expense budget lists forecasted and actual revenues of the organization

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Bottom-up budgeting is process in which lower-level managers anticipate their department’s resource needs and pass them up to top management for approval

a)

False

b)

True

92.

The ______ budget lists planned investments in major assets

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Capital

c)

Cash

d)

Revenue

e)

Profit

93.

Which of the following refers the process of measuring organizational process against the best in the industry?

a)

Competitive measurement

b)

Environmental analysis

c)

Continuous improvement

d)

Benchmarking

e)

Outsourcing

94.

Which of the following is a quality control approach that emphasizes the relentless pursuit of higher quality and lower costs?

a)

Cycle time

b)

Benchmarking

c)

Six Sigma

d)

Quality circles

e)

Continuous improvement

95.

The recognized standard for evaluating and comparing companies on a global basis is ______.

a)

Balanced Scorecard results

b)

ISO certification

c)

Open-book management audits

d)

Corporate Governance inspection results

e)

The Quality Circle Seal of Approval

96.

_____ continues to lead in the total number of ISO 9000 certifications

a)

Europe

b)

China

c)

South America

d)

Africa

e)

The United States

97.

Which of the following is characteristic of a decentralized control system?

a)

Decentralized control system is based on the belief that people work best when they are committed to their organization

b)

In a decentralized control system, employees follow instructions, and do exactly as they are told

c)

Decentralized control system emphasizes extrinsic rewards

d)

Decentralized control system relies on task-related job descriptions

e)

Decentralized control system has a rigid organizational culture

98.

The degree to which an organization achieves a stated goal refers to ______.

a)

Efficiency

b)

Human skill

c)

Synergy

d)

Effectiveness

e)

Conceptual skill

99.

One of the management duties that managers like the least is _______.

a)

Controlling activities

b)

Handling paperwork

c)

Financial planning

d)

Planning for future decisions

e)

Networking