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Financial Literacy Exam 3 – Practice Questions

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An investment is best defined as:

a)

An asset held only for collecting interest

b)

An asset expected to generate value or a return

c)

Cash kept in a checking account only

d)

Any item purchased for consumption

2.

The income return from a stock typically comes from:

a)

Dividends

b)

Capital losses

c)

Accrued interest

d)

Par value

3.

Speculation most closely means:

a)

Buying assets strictly for their income stream

b)

Buying assets whose value depends mainly on supply and demand

c)

Buying only investment-grade bonds

d)

Diversifying to reduce risk

4.

A derivative security’s value is based on:

a)

The issuer’s par value only

b)

The value of some other underlying asset

c)

The coupon rate alone

d)

Its maturity date

5.

The maturity date of a bond is the date when:

a)

Interest stops accruing but principal remains unpaid

b)

The bond becomes callable

c)

Par value must be repaid to the holder

d)

The bond converts to stock automatically

6.

A share of common stock represents:

a)

A loan to the company

b)

Fractional ownership in the corporation

c)

A guaranteed dividend contract

d)

A Treasury security

7.

A dividend is:

a)

Interest paid on bonds

b)

A payment by a corporation to its shareholders

c)

The par value returned at maturity

d)

The market maker’s fee

8.

A capital gain occurs when:

a)

You receive a dividend

b)

The nominal return equals inflation

c)

You sell an asset for more than its purchase price

d)

You buy a bond below par

9.

The nominal (quoted) rate of return:

a)

Is adjusted for inflation

b)

Is not adjusted for inflation

c)

Equals the real rate minus inflation

d)

Always equals dividend yield

10.

The real rate of return equals:

a)

Nominal return plus inflation

b)

Nominal return minus inflation

c)

Dividend yield minus P/E ratio

d)

Coupon rate minus par value

11.

Interest rate risk is the risk that:

a)

Security prices change when market interest rates change

b)

The issuer defaults on payments

c)

The stock market becomes efficient

d)

A bond cannot be called

12.

Inflation risk refers to:

a)

Falling interest rates increase bond prices

b)

Rising prices erode purchasing power and can move rates

c)

Issuer-specific mismanagement

d)

Liquidity disappearing overnight

13.

Business (firm-specific) risk arises from:

a)

Market-wide shocks only

b)

Company decisions and product performance

c)

Changes in federal tax brackets only

d)

Treasury auction schedules

14.

Market risk is risk associated with:

a)

One firm’s internal operations

b)

Overall market movements

c)

Only inflation changes

d)

Only default events

15.

Political/regulatory risk is caused by:

a)

Unexpected changes in laws or taxes

b)

Call features activating

c)

Maturity shortening

d)

Par value adjustments

16.

Diversification primarily aims to:

a)

Increase unsystematic risk

b)

Eliminate all risk

c)

Reduce total variability without lowering expected return

d)

Raise the P/E ratio

17.

Systematic (market) risk:

a)

Can be eliminated by diversification

b)

Cannot be eliminated by diversification

c)

Exists only for bonds

d)

Exists only for stocks

18.

Unsystematic (firm-specific) risk:

a)

Cannot be diversified away

b)

Is eliminated through holding many different assets

c)

Is identical to market risk

d)

Is measured by the CPI

19.

An investment portfolio is:

a)

A single stock position

b)

A group of investments held by an investor

c)

A money market only

d)

A loan amortization schedule

20.

An efficient market is one where:

a)

Prices reflect all relevant information

b)

Only insiders know prices

c)

Prices never change

d)

Trading occurs only OTC

21.

A stock bubble occurs when prices:

a)

Rise far above intrinsic value over time

b)

Track earnings closely

c)

Fall steadily for months

d)

Equal book value

22.

The dividend yield equals:

a)

Annual dividends divided by earnings per share

b)

Annual dividends divided by price per share

c)

Dividends plus capital gains divided by par

d)

Coupon rate divided by price per share

23.

The P/E ratio equals:

a)

Price per share divided by earnings per share

b)

Earnings per share divided by price per share

c)

Dividends divided by price per share

d)

Price per share divided by dividend

24.

A stock market index measures:

a)

The performance of a representative group of stocks

b)

Individual stock par values

c)

Treasury auction results

d)

Only dividend yields

25.

Primary markets are where:

a)

Previously issued securities trade

b)

Newly issued securities are sold to investors

c)

Only municipal bonds trade

d)

Only OTC trades occur

26.

An IPO refers to:

a)

A firm’s first public stock offering

b)

A repeat seasoned equity offering

c)

A bond refunding

d)

A preferred stock conversion

27.

A seasoned new issue is:

a)

A firm’s first public sale of stock

b)

A new stock offering by an already public firm

c)

A municipal bond with a call feature

d)

A Treasury bill auction

28.

An investment banker typically:

a)

Sets interest rates for the Fed

b)

Intermediates between issuers and the buying public

c)

Regulates exchanges

d)

Manages mutual funds only

29.

Secondary markets are where:

a)

New securities are first issued

b)

Previously issued securities are traded

c)

Only options trade

d)

Only government bonds trade

30.

An organized exchange (e.g., NYSE):

a)

Has a physical location or centralized electronic venue

b)

Is only telephone-based

c)

Trades only bonds

d)

Prohibits market makers

31.

The OTC market:

a)

Conducts trades via networks rather than a single exchange floor

b)

Requires physical floor trading

c)

Lists only futures

d)

Sells only new issues

32.

Par value of a bond is:

a)

The bond’s current market price

b)

The amount repaid at maturity

c)

The coupon rate

d)

The accrued interest

33.

Bond maturity means:

a)

Time until par is returned and the bond ends

b)

Time until next coupon

c)

Time since last trade

d)

Time a bond can be called

34.

The coupon rate is:

a)

Annual interest as a % of par value

b)

Annual interest as a % of market price

c)

Current yield

d)

YTM

35.

An indenture is:

a)

A bond’s legal agreement between issuer and trustee

b)

A municipal tax schedule

c)

A brokerage margin agreement

d)

A pension contract

36.

A call provision allows the issuer to:

a)

Defer coupons forever

b)

Repurchase bonds before maturity at a stated price

c)

Raise the coupon automatically

d)

Convert bonds to stock

37.

A deferred call means the bond:

a)

Can never be called

b)

Cannot be called until a specified number of years has passed

c)

Must be called immediately

d)

Skips all coupons

38.

A sinking fund is:

a)

A reserve to pay off a bond issue over time

b)

A fund to pay dividends

c)

A margin account

d)

A futures collateral pool

39.

Mortgage bonds are secured by:

a)

Corporate inventory

b)

A lien on real property

c)

U.S. Treasury full faith and credit

d)

No collateral

40.

Debentures are:

a)

Short-term notes

b)

Unsecured long-term corporate bonds

c)

Agency bonds

d)

Municipal serials

41.

TIPS are Treasury bonds whose:

a)

Coupon adjusts to LIBOR

b)

Par value adjusts with the CPI to preserve real return

c)

Price is fixed in nominal terms

d)

Maturity is always 30 years

42.

Zero-coupon bonds:

a)

Pay no periodic interest and are sold at a deep discount

b)

Always pay monthly interest

c)

Are always municipal bonds

d)

Have no maturity date

43.

Junk bonds are:

a)

High-quality, low-yield bonds

b)

Low-rated, high-yield bonds (BB or below)

c)

Zero-coupon Treasuries

d)

Agency pass-throughs

44.

Current yield on a bond equals:

a)

Coupon rate × par value

b)

Annual coupon divided by current market price

c)

YTM minus inflation

d)

Par divided by price

45.

Yield to maturity (YTM) is:

a)

The return if the bond is held to maturity, given price, coupons, and par

b)

Always equal to current yield

c)

The same as coupon rate

d)

Par minus price

46.

Accrued interest is:

a)

Interest earned since the last coupon payment but not yet paid

b)

Interest paid ahead of schedule

c)

Interest forgone by the issuer

d)

Only applicable to zeroes

47.

Preferred stock generally:

a)

Offers voting rights and variable dividends

b)

Pays fixed dividends and has priority over common dividends

c)

Guarantees capital gains

d)

Is a Treasury security

48.

A cumulative feature on preferred stock requires:

a)

Dividends to be paid monthly

b)

Past unpaid preferred dividends to be paid before common dividends

c)

Automatic conversion to common stock

d)

Dividends to track CPI

49.

Convertible preferred stock:

a)

Can be exchanged for a set number of common shares

b)

Automatically redeems at par each year

c)

Cannot be valued

d)

Is a type of zero-coupon bond

50.

A money market mutual fund typically invests in:

a)

Long-term corporate bonds only

b)

Short-term instruments like T-bills and commercial paper

c)

Only common stock

d)

Only municipal revenue bonds