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Comprehensive 1-20 Exam - EMT Knowledge

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Select one:

a)

Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds

b)

Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

c)

Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course

d)

A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care

2.

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: Select one:

a)

noncompliance with standard precautions.

b)

excessive blood splashing or splattering.

c)

lack of proper immunizations.

d)

careless handling of sharps.

3.

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one:

a)

Age

b)

Race

c)

Gender

d)

Immunity

4.

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: Select one:

a)

the medical director.

b)

a paramedic supervisor.

c)

another EMT.

d)

the general public.

5.

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?

a)

A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

b)

An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic.

c)

An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.

d)

A physician assumes patient care from an EMT.

6.

In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?

a)

Loud and official

b)

Authoritative

c)

Calm and confident

d)

Passive

7.

You could be sued for ________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.

a)

libel

b)

negligence

c)

slander

d)

assault

8.

A patient is diagnosed with nephritis. This means:

a)

dysfunction of the liver.

b)

disease of the kidney.

c)

inflammation of the kidney.

d)

enlargement of the liver.

9.

The medical term for painful or difficult urination is:

a)

polyuria.

b)

oliguria.

c)

anuria.

d)

dysuria.

10.

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular:

a)

assessment.

b)

medication.

c)

disease.

d)

protocol.

11.

Which of the following are central pulses?

a)

Temporal and pedal

b)

Brachial and radial

c)

Femoral and carotid

d)

Popliteal and ulnar

12.

An infant or small toddler would most likely gain trust in a person who:

a)

maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger.

b)

does not tower over him or her and avoids painful procedures.

c)

provides an organized, routine environment.

d)

frequently changes the infant or toddler's regular routine.

13.

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is most often related to:

a)

kidney failure.

b)

medication use.

c)

hypotension.

d)

atherosclerosis.

14.

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, except:

a)

a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient.

b)

a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

c)

a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital.

d)

a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position.

15.

Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct?

a)

The leg muscles should remain relaxed during the power lift.

b)

It is not recommended for people with weak knees or thighs.

c)

It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.

d)

It involves using your lower back instead of your legs to lift.

16.

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:

a)

there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode.

b)

the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

c)

she should contact the EMR about the incident.

d)

the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode.

17.

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

a)

protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

b)

a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks.

c)

rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

d)

defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

18.

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:

a)

12.

b)

10.

c)

14.

d)

13.

19.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a:

a)

falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

b)

falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.

c)

falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading.

d)

falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

20.

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:

a)

1,000 psi.

b)

500 psi.

c)

200 psi.

d)

1,500 psi.

21.

The diaphragm is innervated by the ________ nerve, which allows it to contract.

a)

vestibulocochlear

b)

hypoglossal

c)

phrenic

d)

vagus

22.

The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:

a)

the study of drugs and their actions on the body.

b)

the study of drugs that are produced illegally.

c)

the study of drug excretion from the human body.

d)

the study of how medications affect the brain.

23.

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She takes medication for hypertension. Breath sounds reveal no wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. If you are not able to make contact with medical control, what should you do?

a)

Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed.

b)

Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance.

c)

Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.

d)

Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly.

24.

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

a)

apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

b)

administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.

c)

apply pressure to the brachial artery.

d)

wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

25.

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:

a)

anaphylaxis.

b)

severe infection.

c)

ischemic stroke.

d)

spinal injury.

26.

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

a)

start CPR and transport immediately.

b)

determine if he has a valid living will.

c)

begin CPR until an AED is available.

d)

withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.

27.

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:

a)

5:2

b)

30:2

c)

15:2

d)

5:1

28.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

a)

contact medical control.

b)

quickly access the patient.

c)

notify law enforcement.

d)

take standard precautions.

29.

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?

a)

Sexual practices

b)

Recent travel

c)

Drug allergies

d)

HIV status

30.

Albuterol is a generic name for:

a)

Atrovent.

b)

Singulair.

c)

Alupent.

d)

Ventolin.

31.

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:

a)

rhonchi.

b)

wheezing.

c)

rales.

d)

stridor.

32.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

a)

all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

b)

the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

c)

a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.

d)

the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.

33.

Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called:

a)

acute ischemia.

b)

arteriosclerosis.

c)

angina pectoris.

d)

atherosclerosis.

34.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:

a)

a febrile convulsion.

b)

respiratory distress.

c)

an acute stroke.

d)

a seizure.

35.

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

a)

aortic aneurysm.

b)

strangulated hernia.

c)

acute pancreatitis.

d)

kidney stones.

36.

A strangulated hernia is one that:

a)

is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.

b)

spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.

c)

loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

d)

can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.

37.

Select one: Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

a)

the pancreas produces excess insulin.

b)

the cells rapidly metabolize glucose.

c)

blood glucose levels rapidly fall.

d)

insulin is not available in the body.

38.

Select one: Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:

a)

low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration.

b)

excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.

c)

they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration.

d)

high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage.

39.

Select one: Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?

a)

Low blood glucose level

b)

Total lack of appetite

c)

Weight loss and polyuria

d)

Weight gain and edema

40.

Select one: Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

a)

The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.

b)

The NREMT regulates EMS training standards.

c)

The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

d)

The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.