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Health Science Practicum Mid-Term Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient must drink 1.8 liters of water per day. How many milliliters is this total?

a)

180 mL

b)

1,800 mL

c)

18,000 mL

d)

180,000 mL

2.

A provider orders 800 mg of Ibuprofen. Pharmacy dispenses 200 mg tablets. How many tablets are required?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

3.

A patient drank 14 fl oz of a sports drink after physical therapy. How many mL is this?

a)

210 mL

b)

340 mL

c)

420 mL

d)

500 mL

4.

A patient weighs 223 lb. What is the weight in kg (nearest tenth)?

a)

88.6 kg

b)

94.5 kg

c)

101.2 kg

d)

113.0 kg

5.

A patient’s fever is 103.4°F. Convert this to °C (nearest tenth).

a)

36.8°C

b)

39.7°C

c)

40.8°C

d)

41.9°C

6.

A provider orders 32 mg of methylprednisolone IM. Vial concentration = 8 mg/mL. How many mL should be given?

a)

2 mL

b)

3 mL

c)

4 mL

d)

5 mL

7.

A liquid antibiotic is labeled 100 mg/2 mL. The ordered dose is 350 mg. How many mL are needed?

a)

6 mL

b)

7 mL

c)

8 mL

d)

9 mL

8.

A heparin vial is labeled 20,000 units/mL. Order: 5,000 units. How many mL should be drawn up?

a)

0.10 mL

b)

0.15 mL

c)

0.20 mL

d)

0.25 mL

9.

A child weighs 61.6 lb. Convert to kg (nearest tenth).

a)

27.9 kg

b)

28.0 kg

c)

30.1 kg

d)

32.5 kg

10.

Infuse 650 mL over 5 hours using 15 gtt/mL. Calculate gtt/min.

a)

20

b)

28

c)

33

d)

45

11.

Infuse 300 mL over 2 hours using 10 gtt/mL. gtt/min?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

25

12.

Infuse 1,200 mL over 6 hours using 20 gtt/mL. gtt/min?

a)

40

b)

50

c)

60

d)

66

13.

Infuse 80 mL of an IV antibiotic over 30 minutes using 15 gtt/mL. gtt/min?

a)

20

b)

25

c)

30

d)

40

14.

A medication is ordered at 4 mg/kg for a patient weighing 72 kg. Total dose?

a)

128 mg

b)

216 mg

c)

288 mg

d)

300 mg

15.

What does the prefix “tachy-” mean?

a)

Slow

b)

Fast

c)

Painful

d)

Above

16.

The root “pulmon/o” refers to:

a)

Lungs

b)

Kidneys

c)

Brain

d)

Stomach

17.

The suffix “-megaly” means:

a)

Softening

b)

Enlargement

c)

Breakdown

d)

Infection

18.

“Neuralgia” most closely means:

a)

Nerve pain

b)

Nerve enlargement

c)

Nerve infection

d)

Nerve tumor

19.

“Hypoglycemia” means:

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Low blood sugar

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

High insulin levels

20.

Which situation represents direct contact transmission?

a)

Sharing a drinking glass

b)

Touching a draining wound

c)

Breathing air from a coughing patient

d)

Being bitten by an insect

21.

A contaminated scalpel must be disposed of in a:

a)

Biohazard bag

b)

Regular trash

c)

Sharps container

d)

Chemical waste bin

22.

To safely remove PPE after caring for a patient on contact precautions, the first item removed should be:

a)

Gown

b)

Gloves

c)

Mask

d)

Face shield

23.

The federal agency that sets standards to protect healthcare workers from hazards is:

a)

WHO

b)

FDA

c)

OSHA

d)

CDC

24.

A doctor explains a procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives before a patient signs. This is an example of:

a)

Implied consent

b)

Informed consent

c)

Indirect consent

d)

Refusal of treatment

25.

HIPAA mainly protects:

a)

Fair treatment of employees

b)

Safety of medications

c)

Patient health information

d)

Hospital accreditation

26.

Which task is within a CCMA’s scope of practice?

a)

Interpreting X-rays

b)

Removing sutures as delegated

c)

Changing medication dosages

d)

Ordering labs for a patient

27.

A major adverse effect of opioid medications includes:

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Severe hypertension

d)

Insomnia

28.

A patient receiving morphine becomes unresponsive with slow breathing. Which medication should be prepared?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Naloxone

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Diphenhydramine

29.

Medications ending in "-caine" (e.g., benzocaine) are typically:

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Local anesthetics

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antidepressants

30.

NSAIDs may cause which serious side effect?

a)

Heart block

b)

GI bleeding

c)

Seizures

d)

Hypoglycemia

31.

A patient suddenly develops slurred speech and unequal pupils. What should the CCMA do first?

a)

Offer water

b)

Document and reassess in 1 hour

c)

Notify the provider immediately

d)

Allow the patient to rest

32.

Neuropathic pain is best described as:

a)

Dull and aching

b)

Sharp and stabbing

c)

Burning or electric

d)

Cramping

33.

A normal adult pulse rate is:

a)

40–60 bpm

b)

60–100 bpm

c)

100–120 bpm

d)

120–160 bpm

34.

A temperature of 99.0°F is considered:

a)

Hypothermic

b)

Febrile

c)

Normal

d)

Hyperthermic

35.

You find a teen athlete collapsed on a gym floor. They're unresponsive and only gasping. What should you do first?

a)

Check for bleeding

b)

Begin giving breaths

c)

Activate EMS and get AED

d)

Give a sternal rub

36.

When an AED arrives, which step comes first?

a)

Apply pads

b)

Turn on the AED

c)

Deliver a shock

d)

Stop compressions for 2 minutes

37.

AED states "shock advised." What should happen next?

a)

Continue compressions

b)

Clear the patient and press shock

c)

Remove AED pads

d)

Give two breaths

38.

A post-surgical patient is restless, breathing 28/min, and SpO2 drops to 86%. What is your priority action?

a)

Offer reassurance

b)

Raise the head of the bed and alert the nurse/provider

c)

Have the patient walk

d)

Give oral fluids

39.

A patient reports a painful, red area around a wound with warmth and swelling. Which term best describes this?

a)

Dermatitis

b)

Infection

c)

Abscess

d)

Erythema

40.

A patient weighs 92 kg and is ordered 6 mg/kg of a medication. Total dose?

a)

312 mg

b)

350 mg

c)

552 mg

d)

600 mg

41.

Raymond, a patient with no medical background, is confused about his recent diagnosis of “hypertension.” How would you explain this term in layman’s terms?

a)

High cholesterol

b)

High potassium

c)

High temperature

d)

High blood pressure

42.

Which term best describes a position closer to the midline of the body?

a)

Lateral

b)

Proximal

c)

Medial

d)

Distal

43.

When preparing a patient for a general physical examination, which position is most appropriate for examining the abdomen?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Fowler’s

d)

Lithotomy

44.

Which route of drug administration typically results in the fastest onset of action?

a)

Intramuscular (IM)

b)

Subcutaneous (SC)

c)

Oral (PO)

d)

Intravenous (IV)

45.

Which of the following is the most immediate and appropriate first-line treatment for an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting?

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Bronchodilators

46.

You are entering a medication history into a patient’s electronic health record. Which of the following is the correct way to enter 500 mg of Amoxicillin taken by mouth every 8 hours for 7 days?

a)

500 mg Amoxicillin, PO, q8h × 7 days

b)

500 mg Amoxicillin, PO, q12h × 7 days

c)

500 mg Amoxicillin, IV, q12h × 7 days

d)

500mg Amoxicillin, IV, q8h × 7days

47.

Which link in the chain of infection is directly disrupted by proper hand hygiene practices?

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Portal of exit

c)

Portal of entry

d)

Mode of transmission

48.

When performing CPR on an adult, what is the recommended depth of chest compressions according to the latest American Heart Association guidelines?

a)

2 inches

b)

1 inch

c)

1.5 inches

d)

2.5 inches

49.

Sylvia, a 35-year-old patient with pain following a severe motor vehicle collision, has been prescribed medication by her physician. The medication has a high potential for abuse, but also has accepted medical use for treatment of pain. Which drug schedule would this medication most likely fall?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

50.

Which of the following is considered a critical component of the Rights of Medication Administration?

a)

Right patient

b)

Right prescriber

c)

Right preparation

d)

Right documentation

51.

You find an adult female patient unresponsive and not breathing. After calling for help and initiating CPR, you retrieve an AED. When it arrives, what is the next immediate step you should take?

a)

Continue CPR until emergency services arrive without using the AED

b)

Check for a pulse again before using the AED

c)

Attach the AED pads to the patient’s chest and then turn on the AED

d)

Turn on the AED and follow its prompts before attaching the pads

52.

Mr. Ramirez has been prescribed medication for a skin infection. The medication needs to be applied directly to the affected area to ensure maximum effectiveness and minimal systemic absorption. Which form of medication is the most appropriate?

a)

Capsule

b)

Ointment

c)

Tablet

d)

Oral suspension

53.

Which of the following is the most appropriate method for disposing of unused controlled substances in a clinical setting?

a)

Flushing them down the toilet

b)

Mixing them with coffee grounds and putting them in the normal trash

c)

Returning them to the pharmacy

d)

Incinerating them in a medical waste facility

54.

Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily responsible for determining the bioavailability of an orally administered drug?

a)

Excretion

b)

Metabolism

c)

Distribution

d)

Absorption

55.

Which of the following actions best follows the CDC’s guidelines for preventing healthcare-associated infections in a clinical setting?

a)

Using alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after patient contact

b)

Reusing disposable gowns for multiple patients

c)

Wearing gloves only when you know a patient has an infection

d)

Sterilizing medical instruments using autoclaves after each use

56.

A patient with COPD becomes anxious and says they “can’t catch their breath,” and SpO₂ is 89%. What should the CCMA do?

a)

Leave them alone to calm down

b)

Notify the nurse and prepare pulse oximeter and airway equipment

c)

Lower the head of bed

d)

Give patient water

57.

A 45-year-old patient presents with an elevated blood pressure reading. Which of the following would be considered hypertensive according to the American Heart Association guidelines?

a)

120/80 mmHg

b)

130/85 mmHg

c)

140/90 mmHg

d)

135/88 mmHg

58.

Which term refers to the surgical removal of a portion of the skull?

a)

Craniectomy

b)

Craniotomy

c)

Cranioplasty

d)

Craniosynostosis

59.

Which of the following measures is most effective in preventing the spread of an airborne pandemic?

a)

Regular handwashing

b)

Social distancing

c)

Surface disinfection

d)

Use of N95 masks

60.

If a child weighs 44 pounds, and the medication prescribed is 15 mg/kg, how many mg of medication should the child receive? (Note: 1 kg = 2.2 lbs)

a)

300 mg

b)

150 mg

c)

200 mg

d)

250 mg