wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Medical Law and Malpractice Fundamentals

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines malpractice in a healthcare context?

a)

Lawsuits claiming errors in diagnosis or treatment

b)

Criminal charges for violating hospital policies

c)

Administrative penalties for scheduling mistakes

d)

Professional disputes over work assignments

2.

Which example illustrates res ipsa loquitur in a malpractice case?

a)

A delayed appointment due to weather

b)

A patient missing a follow-up visit

c)

A surgical instrument left inside the patient

d)

A billing code entered incorrectly

3.

A nurse leaves a woman in active labor because the shift ends and replacement is late. What negligence does this most closely represent?

a)

Misfeasance during lawful treatment

b)

Abandonment of care by the professional

c)

Nonfeasance of a legal obligation

d)

Malfeasance through unlawful misconduct

4.

Which scenario best matches malfeasance?

a)

Performing a lawful act done incorrectly

b)

Failing to perform a required legal duty

c)

Delaying care due to busy workload

d)

Performing an unlawful act or misconduct

5.

Following surgery, a patient shows internal bleeding because the surgeon did not close all severed capillaries. Which classification fits best?

a)

Misfeasance: lawful act done incorrectly

b)

Abandonment: stopping care

c)

Malfeasance: unlawful misconduct

d)

Nonfeasance: failure to act

6.

A patient has symptoms that should be treated, but the doctor decides to wait without sufficient reason, and harm occurs. What claim might the patient make?

a)

Defamation due to false statements

b)

Battery due to unwanted touch

c)

Fraud due to billing errors

d)

Negligence due to delayed treatment

7.

Which role responsibility aligns with medical law in clinical practice?

a)

Set national insurance reimbursement rates

b)

Write criminal codes for the community

c)

Select hospital paint colors for safety

d)

Follow federal, state, and local legal guidelines

8.

Which element is NOT one of the Four Ds of negligence?

a)

Direct cause

b)

Derelict

c)

Duty

d)

Discovery

9.

In a negligence claim, what does "derelict" refer to?

a)

Failure to meet professional standards

b)

Link between breach and damages

c)

Proof of patient injury

d)

Existence of physician-patient relationship

10.

Which statement best distinguishes civil law from criminal law in malpractice contexts?

a)

Civil law is unintentional; criminal law is intentional

b)

Civil law punishes crimes; criminal law resolves private disputes

c)

Civil law addresses private rights; criminal law addresses public offenses

d)

Civil law uses juries; criminal law uses arbitrators

11.

A tort in malpractice suits is best described as:

a)

A subpoena issued by a court

b)

A formal arbitration decision

c)

A breach of federal criminal statute

d)

An intentional or unintentional civil wrong causing harm

12.

Arbitration in settling malpractice suits primarily involves:

a)

A jury determining guilt beyond reasonable doubt

b)

A judge ordering the physician to pay damages

c)

A neutral expert hearing evidence and deciding the dispute

d)

A prosecutor filing charges in criminal court

13.

Under the law of agency, who can be held liable for a medical assistant’s negligence while performing professional tasks?

a)

The arbitrator overseeing the case

b)

Only the medical assistant personally

c)

The doctor and possibly the employer’s insurer

d)

Only the patient who consented

14.

Which action is part of proper procedure when terminating patient care?

a)

Discard prior records to avoid liability

b)

Send a verbal notice during a call

c)

Document the reason only in billing records

d)

Send a letter and return receipt by certified mail

15.

Which situation most reasonably justifies a physician withdrawing from a case?

a)

Patient changes insurance provider

b)

Patient moves to a nearby city

c)

Patient requests a second opinion politely

d)

Patient refuses to follow instructions repeatedly

16.

Which action best demonstrates the standard of care for a medical assistant when handling patient information?

a)

Maintaining confidentiality of patient records

b)

Posting anonymized cases on social media

c)

Sharing records with family without consent

d)

Keeping only verbal notes of visits

17.

A medical assistant writes in a patient’s chart. What requirement makes this entry legally important?

a)

Charts must be stored for one year

b)

Notes must be signed by patients

c)

Entries must be in pencil only

d)

Entries must be timely and accurate

18.

Which task falls under administrative legal duties related to state reporting requirements?

a)

Scheduling routine follow-up calls

b)

Diagnosing influenza by symptoms

c)

Reporting suspected child abuse to authorities

d)

Ordering patient lab tests independently

19.

A physician cannot see a patient and asks the medical assistant to arrange care. What is the legally sound plan?

a)

Send the patient home without advice

b)

Arrange for another physician in the same practice

c)

Cancel all appointments that day

d)

Tell the patient to call back next week

20.

Which statement best explains why a letter of withdrawal from a case includes a time limit for continued care?

a)

It legally ends malpractice insurance

b)

It prevents billing disputes with insurers

c)

It avoids any transfer of case records

d)

It provides reasonable notice to find new care

21.

In some states, which activity is illegal for medical assistants because it exceeds their scope of training and capabilities?

a)

Preparing consent forms for procedures

b)

Scheduling patients in the appointment book

c)

Diagnosing conditions or prescribing treatment

d)

Recording vital signs during intake

22.

Which action best follows laws for controlled substances in a medical office?

a)

Letting any staff refill narcotic prescriptions

b)

Ignoring dosage complications for convenience

c)

Keeping prescription pads secure at all times

d)

Leaving prescription pads unlocked in a desk

23.

What is the main purpose of sensitive, nonjudgmental communication with patients?

a)

To allow visitors to discuss test results freely

b)

To replace written instructions for all patients

c)

To prevent misunderstandings that could lead to disputes

d)

To decide which information they should receive

24.

A living will most commonly states which preference?

a)

Who inherits the patient’s property

b)

What insurance plan the patient should choose

c)

Which hospital the patient prefers to visit

d)

Whether life-sustaining treatment should be used

25.

What does a Durable Power of Attorney for health care authorize?

a)

A nurse to sign the patient’s prescriptions

b)

A chosen person to make medical decisions

c)

A family friend to access all test records

d)

A lawyer to manage hospital billing

26.

What is the legal function of the Uniform Donor Card?

a)

It allows minors to consent to all procedures

b)

It certifies the patient’s living will witnesses

c)

It states a person’s wish to donate organs

d)

It records allergies for emergency responders

27.

Which practice best maintains patient confidentiality in the office?

a)

Share records only with appropriate staff

b)

Discuss test results with visitors politely

c)

Keep charts open on the front counter

d)

Announce patient names in waiting areas

28.

Why do OSHA regulations matter to medical assistants?

a)

They set rules for patient billing disputes

b)

They authorize organ donation card distribution

c)

They protect workers from job-related health hazards

d)

They provide instructions for living will signatures

29.

Which regulation specifically addresses controlling occupational exposure to infectious diseases for healthcare workers?

a)

EPA Hazardous Waste Framework

b)

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

c)

NIH Clinical Safety Directive

d)

CDC Standard Precautions guidelines

30.

Universal Precautions require treating which materials as potentially infectious, regardless of the patient’s diagnosis?

a)

Saliva and semen only

b)

Blood and certain body fluids

c)

Sweat and urine primarily

d)

Tears and nasal mucus

31.

Which protective gear is appropriate for procedures that may expose the eyes, nose, or mouth to sprays or splashes?

a)

Mask, goggles, or face shield

b)

Respirator and sterile drapes

c)

Cloth mask and cotton apron

d)

Utility gloves and shoe covers

32.

Which glove type is worn only once and then discarded, and should not be reused if torn or damaged?

a)

Utility gloves for housekeeping

b)

Disposable examination gloves

c)

Sterile gloves for minor surgery

d)

Reusable decontamination gloves

33.

After a procedure, which action is part of proper decontamination of work surfaces?

a)

Cover surfaces with paper towels

b)

Air-dry surfaces overnight

c)

Use a 10% bleach solution or EPA-approved germicide

d)

Wipe with water and soap only

34.

Which item is correctly disposed of in leakproof biohazard bags labeled with the biohazard symbol?

a)

Office paper and food wrappers

b)

Household trash and aluminum cans

c)

Body fluids and materials contaminated with blood

d)

Unused gauze and clean gloves

35.

What handling rule helps prevent exposure from used disposable sharp instruments?

a)

Bend or break sharps before disposal

b)

Recap needles to avoid accidental sticks

c)

Rinse sharps and place in regular trash

d)

Do not bend, break, recap, or tamper with sharps

36.

Which container is appropriate for disposing of wastes with body fluids such as gloves and gauze?

a)

Leakproof puncture-resistant color-coded container

b)

Reusable bucket labeled with office logo

c)

Clear plastic bag without markings

d)

Open-top bin lined with paper towels

37.

What should be done with reusable sharp equipment after use in a medical office?

a)

Left on tray until end of day

b)

Wrapped in cloth and stored in cabinet

c)

Rinsed and discarded in regular trash

d)

Placed in puncture-resistant container for reprocessing

38.

Sterilization of disposable instruments is commonly accomplished using which device?

a)

Autoclave using pressurized steam

b)

Ultraviolet light sanitizer

c)

Chemical soak overnight

d)

Dry heat oven for 3 hours

39.

After an exposure incident like a needlestick, what is the first required action?

a)

Wait to see if symptoms appear

b)

Notify the physician/employer immediately

c)

Post on a staff bulletin board

d)

Finish the current patient before reporting

40.

Within how many days must a new employee be offered the HBV vaccination at no cost?

a)

10 days from start date

b)

30 days from start date

c)

60 days from start date

d)

3 days from start date

41.

If an employee is tested for HBV or HIV after exposure, how must the test results be handled?

a)

Shared openly with coworkers

b)

Kept confidential with right to refuse testing

c)

Posted on the clinic notice board

d)

Reported only to patients

42.

Which statement best describes OSHA rules for handling infectious laundry in medical offices?

a)

Laundry should be washed without labels to save time

b)

Laundry can be mixed with regular office waste

c)

Laundry must be bagged, labeled, and handled minimally

d)

Laundry may be handled barehanded if bagged

43.

Which document must be posted to specify hazards, risks, and exposure controls for workplace substances?

a)

Material Safety Data Sheets for substances

b)

Exposure Control Plans for clinics

c)

Employee medical records for staff

d)

OSHA Form 200 for incidents

44.

What is a required component of OSHA training for workers exposed to blood-borne pathogens?

a)

Advanced surgical sterilization techniques

b)

Detailed pharmaceutical compounding methods

c)

Radiation therapy equipment calibration

d)

Causes and symptoms of blood-borne diseases

45.

A refrigerator in a medical office stores blood samples. What OSHA-compliant feature must it have?

a)

UV lights to sterilize the shelves

b)

Built-in handwashing sinks nearby

c)

Glass doors for visibility and audits

d)

Working thermometers to monitor cooling

46.

Which action violates general work area regulations intended to prevent contamination?

a)

Filing patient charts quietly

b)

Applying lip balm in the work area

c)

Using labeled sharps containers

d)

Wearing closed-toe shoes

47.

Which records must be kept for 30 years after a worker leaves employment?

a)

Employee medical and exposure records

b)

Daily appointment schedules

c)

Annual refrigerator maintenance logs

d)

Training videotape checkout lists

48.

An OSHA inspection finds assistants lacked gloves for two months due to employer shortage. What is the likely outcome?

a)

More severe penalty than individual forgetfulness

b)

Immediate clinic closure without appeal

c)

Criminal charges for all assistants

d)

No penalty because gloves are optional

49.

Which item must a workplace hazardous materials inventory include?

a)

Monthly patient vaccination counts

b)

Employee vacation schedules

c)

List of all hazardous substances used

d)

Vendor pricing for office supplies

50.

Which law established U.S. regulations for clinical laboratory testing in physician offices?

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

b)

Food and Drug Modernization Act of 1997

c)

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

51.

Under CLIA ’88, which category includes the simplest tests that pose minimal risk if performed incorrectly?

a)

Moderate-complexity tests with multiple steps

b)

High-complexity tests requiring advanced analysis

c)

Waived tests with minimal judgment needed

d)

Research-only tests not for patient care

52.

Which test is listed as a waived test under CLIA ’88?

a)

Visual urine pregnancy comparison test

b)

Manual differential white blood cell count

c)

Crossmatch for blood transfusion compatibility

d)

Comprehensive metabolic panel by analyzer

53.

Who grants physician offices permission to perform tests on the waived list for billing to Medicare or Medicaid?

a)

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services

b)

State Boards of Pharmacy and Nursing

c)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

d)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation

54.

What is one element that must be included in a medical office’s quality assurance (QA) program?

a)

Exclusive use of high-complexity analyzers

b)

Weekly external audits by federal inspectors

c)

Mandatory publication in peer-reviewed journals

d)

Written policies on patient care and professional behavior

55.

A medical assistant in a physician office is always allowed to perform which type of tests under CLIA ’88?

a)

High-complexity molecular diagnostics

b)

Crossmatching for packed red cells

c)

Waived tests such as fecal occult blood

d)

Moderate-complexity cholesterol analysis

56.

Why is documentation emphasized in QA programs for medical laboratories?

a)

It replaces training and education programs

b)

It eliminates the need for instrument maintenance

c)

It proves procedures exist during inspections or disputes

d)

It ensures only physicians perform all testing

57.

Which step best ensures correct patient identification during blood specimen collection?

a)

Match the test to the specimen container color

b)

Rely on the name written on requisition

c)

Confirm with a coworker in the work area

d)

Ask the patient to spell her name aloud

58.

During pretest preparation for a fasting specimen, which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Stop all medications without guidance

b)

Drink extra coffee to stay alert

c)

Avoid eating after midnight before collection

d)

Arrive any time during the afternoon

59.

What is the correct labeling practice for blood specimens?

a)

Label immediately after collection at bedside

b)

Pre-label containers before the procedure

c)

Attach a sticky note with initials

d)

Label only the test name and date

60.

Which action aligns with safe disposal of hazardous sharps?

a)

Hand used needles to a supervisor

b)

Store used needles in a desk drawer

c)

Recap needles and throw in regular trash

d)

Place used needles in a biohazard sharps container

61.

A specimen with additives must be handled how to prevent clotting?

a)

Store at room temperature for one hour

b)

Shake vigorously for two minutes

c)

Centrifuge before labeling to separate cells

d)

Mix immediately after collection by gentle inversion

62.

Which statement reflects the role of medical ethics in professional conduct?

a)

Only applies when laws explicitly mandate

b)

Guides right and wrong beyond legal requirements

c)

Concerns patient comfort but not safety

d)

Replaces all legal standards entirely

63.

Which scenario illustrates a bioethical issue requiring ethical reasoning?

a)

Choosing the correct tourniquet placement

b)

Using fetal tissue treatments and abortion decisions

c)

Selecting the appropriate needle gauge

d)

Scheduling a morning appointment

64.

Which promise in the Hippocratic Oath focuses on keeping patient information private?

a)

Bill only for direct medical services

b)

Respect colleagues and expose incompetence

c)

Provide competent medical service to all

d)

Maintain patient confidentiality at all times

65.

Which statement best reflects the AMA Code of Medical Ethics expectation for medical assistants?

a)

Prioritize hospital financial interests

b)

Always defer decisions to physicians

c)

Avoid reporting colleagues’ misconduct

d)

Demonstrate ethical behavior in patient care

66.

Which action aligns with the Patient’s Bill of Rights regarding treatment decisions?

a)

Accept all recommended procedures without question

b)

Allow doctor to choose associations for care

c)

Refuse treatment participation and seek alternatives

d)

Permit insurers to set mandatory time limits

67.

What is a key principle of the AAMA’s Code of Ethics?

a)

Testify freely in court about any patient

b)

Share case details in journals without consent

c)

Influence prescription choices for financial gain

d)

Respect confidential information unless legally authorized

68.

Which scenario requires mandatory disclosure by medical professionals?

a)

Reporting certain incidents to state agencies

b)

Discussing cases with friends for advice

c)

Publishing patient names in articles

d)

Releasing charts without written consent

69.

Who owns the information in a patient’s chart, and what right does the patient have?

a)

Insurer owns information and chart together

b)

Hospital owns chart and sets disclosure rules

c)

Physician owns chart; patient owns information

d)

Patient owns information and gets free copies

70.

Which is the safest practice when unsure about releasing medical information?

a)

Provide details over the phone

b)

Share with colleagues casually

c)

Release to expedite care

d)

Do not release until clarified

71.

Which professional duty applies when a colleague acts unethically or cannot perform competently?

a)

Report to protect patients and the profession

b)

Let the supervisor decide privately

c)

Ignore to maintain workplace harmony

d)

Wait until proof is absolute and documented

72.

What ethical billing practice should physicians follow?

a)

Bill only for direct services like referrals

b)

Charge for indirect services to offset costs

c)

Influence prescriptions to boost income

d)

Bill patients for research participation

73.

Under what condition can confidential patient information be disclosed to other health professionals observing a case?

a)

If the observer signs a general waiver

b)

With physician’s verbal permission

c)

Whenever training is considered necessary

d)

With the patient’s written consent