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Reproduction Quiz

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main function of the ovaries in the female reproductive system?

a)

Site of fertilization

b)

Oogenesis and hormone production

c)

Fetal development

d)

Production of sperm

2.

Which hormone stimulates the release of an ovum every 28 days?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

3.

What is the site of fertilization in the female reproductive system?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian tubes

d)

Mammary glands

4.

Without fertilization, what happens to progesterone levels and the endometrium?

a)

Progesterone increases and endometrium thickens

b)

Progesterone decreases and endometrium sheds

c)

Progesterone stays the same and endometrium remains

d)

Progesterone increases and endometrium sheds

5.

Which of the following is NOT part of the external genitalia (vulva)?

a)

Labia majora

b)

Labia minora

c)

Clitoris

d)

Uterus

6.

Spermatogenesis starts at puberty and is constant rather than cyclical.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

What are the two main products of the testes?

a)

sperm and testosterone

b)

sperm and estrogen

c)

testosterone and insulin

d)

sperm and adrenaline

8.

What is a common change in the male reproductive system with aging?

a)

prostate enlargement

b)

testicular hypertrophy

c)

increased sperm production

d)

penile lengthening

e)

seminal vesicle shrinkage

9.

Which structure is responsible for storing and maturing sperm in the male reproductive system?

a)

Epididymis

b)

Seminiferous tubules

c)

Vas deferens

d)

Prostate gland

10.

Which gland contributes about 30% of the fluid portion of semen and enhances sperm motility?

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Prostate gland

c)

Bulbourethral glands

d)

Testis

11.

At what age range does menopause, marking the definite end to reproductive capability in women, typically occur?

a)

35-45 years

b)

45-55 years

c)

55-65 years

d)

65-75 years

12.

What hormone decreases in women as they age, leading to increased bone loss, atrophy of urinary meatus, urethral tone, and vaginal epithelium, and increased cholesterol?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Insulin

13.

Which of the following is a risk associated with decreased estrogen in women?

a)

Increased muscle mass

b)

Increased risk for osteoporosis

c)

Decreased cholesterol

d)

Improved urinary tone

14.

Decreased estrogen in women can lead to atrophy of which of the following?

a)

Urinary meatus

b)

Urethral tone

c)

Vaginal epithelium

d)

All of the above

15.

Increased cholesterol due to decreased estrogen increases the risk for ______ in women.

a)

CAD (Coronary Artery Disease)

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypothyroidism

16.

According to the information on age-related changes in men, what happens to testosterone secretion as men age?

a)

It increases

b)

It stays the same

c)

It decreases

d)

It stops completely

17.

Which of the following is a common problem with older age in men, as mentioned in the information?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Enlargement of prostate gland (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

c)

Heart attack

d)

Memory loss

18.

The increase in bone loss with age is greater in men than in women.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Hypertrophy of prostate gland in men leads to ________.

a)

Urine retention

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Hair loss

d)

Improved vision

20.

What does Gravida (G) represent in the context of pregnancy health history (GTPAL)?

a)

Number of pregnancies

b)

Number of pregnancies to term (37 wks)

c)

Births whether alive or stillborn (after 20 weeks gestation)

d)

Born alive (not stillbirth)

21.

Para (P) in the GTPAL system refers to births whether alive or stillborn after how many weeks of gestation?

a)

20 weeks

b)

24 weeks

c)

28 weeks

d)

18 weeks

22.

What does gynecomastia refer to?

a)

Excess breast tissue

b)

Lack of libido

c)

Urethra on underside of shaft

d)

Urethra on dorsum of shaft

23.

Epispadias is a condition where the urethra opens on the ________ of the shaft.

a)

dorsum

b)

ventral side

c)

lateral side

d)

base

24.

Which diagnostic procedure is used to distinguish fluid from a tumor in the breasts?

a)

Mammography

b)

Ultrasound

c)

BRCA-1 genetic testing

d)

Pelvic exam

25.

At what age does the ACS recommend starting annual mammography?

a)

30-34 years

b)

35-39 years

c)

40-44 years

d)

45-49 years

26.

BRCA-1 or BRCA-2 genetic testing is used for detecting which type of cancer?

a)

Cervical cancer

b)

Ovarian cancer

c)

Breast cancer

d)

Lung cancer

27.

What does a Salpingostomy visualize?

a)

Inside of fallopian tubes

b)

Inside of the uterus

c)

Inside of the bladder

d)

Inside of the ovaries

28.

Which of the following should be checked before an endoscopic examination?

a)

If patient is fasting

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Heart rate

d)

Temperature

29.

What is the purpose of insufflation during some endoscopic (or laparoscopic) procedures?

a)

Carbon dioxide gas is pumped into abdominal wall for visualization

b)

Oxygen is injected to increase blood flow

c)

Saline solution is used to sterilize the area

d)

Nitrogen gas is used to numb the tissue

30.

Postoperatively, what should be observed in the patient after endoscopic procedures?

a)

Observe for bleeding and monitor patient for pain in neck, shoulders, upper back from carbon dioxide

b)

Monitor for fever and chills only

c)

Check for skin rashes and itching

d)

Observe for changes in vision and hearing

31.

According to the key diagnostics for males, how often is it best to perform a testicular self-examination?

a)

Once a week

b)

Once a month

c)

Once a year

d)

Every day

32.

During a testicular self-examination, the left scrotum usually hangs slightly ______ than the right side.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

tighter

d)

lighter

33.

According to the key diagnostics for males, how should the spermatic cord feel during a testicular self-examination?

a)

Firm, smooth, and moveable

b)

Hard, irregular, and fixed

c)

Soft, lumpy, and immobile

d)

Tender, swollen, and rigid

34.

What diagnostic methods are used for fibrocystic breast disease?

a)

Mammogram or ultrasound

b)

Blood test

c)

MRI only

d)

X-ray only

35.

What are the treatment options for breast cancer?

a)

Surgery, radiation, chemo, hormones

b)

Only antibiotics

c)

Only warm packs

d)

Only supportive bra