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AL Psych 2 Midterm (25-26)

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SZ Symptom - [ ]: Blunted emotional expression

(a)  

2.

[ ]: Lack of motivation experienced by some with schizophrenia

(a)  

3.

[ ] delusion: A strongly held belief that you are someone with special powers or special abilities, for example that you are a superhero

(a)  

4.

For a diagnosis of schizophrenia, symptoms must have persisted for at least [ ] and not be due to another health condition

a)

1 month

b)

6 weeks

c)

2 months

d)

3 months

5.

Schizophrenia is marked by [ ] distorted beliefs called delusions

(a)  

6.

The sample of the Freeman study was [ ] non-clinical participants.

(a)  

7.

The Sensky study included a follow-up evaluation after [ ], after which the CBT group showed continued improvement while the befriending group's benefit had disappeared.

a)

9 months

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

8.

One of the most common side effects of ECT is

a)

memory loss

b)

weight gain

c)

cardiac issues

d)

tardive dyskinesia

9.

Randomised control trials shown that [ ]% of SZ Ps taking anti-psychotics show significant improvement within 4-6 weeks.

(a)  

10.

Typical anti-psychotics caused some Ps to experience [2 words], or involuntary muscle spasms and abnormal movements of the face and body.

(a)  

11.

The semi-structured interview for Freeman was videotaped, then rated for persecutory content on a [ ] point scale by Freeman, a clinical psychologist.

(a)  

12.

Freeman: Ps took the Brief Symptom Inventory, The Paranoia Scale, The Anxiety Questionnaire, The Sense of Presence Questionnaire, and the [ ] questionnaire, written by the Rs.

(a)  

13.

The VR-Paranoia scale had [ ] total items, each rated on a 4 point scale from 0-3.

(a)  

14.

Freeman conclusion: Higher levels of [ ] and anxiety were significantly correlated with higher levels of persecutory thoughts in VR.

(a)  

15.

These 5 items from Freeman's VR-Paranoia Scale measured VR-[ ].

(a)  

16.

Freeman found [ ] correlation between Ps' VR-persecution and VR-positive scores.

a)

a positive

b)

a negative

c)

no

17.

Freeman conclusion: People DO [ ] mental states to VR characters, usually positive ones, but sometimes persecutory.

(a)  

18.

The most common hallucinations in SZ are

a)

auditory

b)

visual

c)

tactile

d)

olfactory

19.

The biochemical explanation for SZ is that positive symptoms are caused by

a)

excess dopamine in the mid-brain

b)

reduced dopamine in the mid-brain

c)

excess dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

d)

reduced dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

20.

The biochemical explanation for SZ is that negative symptoms may be caused by

a)

excess dopamine in the mid-brain

b)

reduced dopamine in the mid-brain

c)

excess dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

d)

reduced dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

21.

Another cognitive explanation for SZ is that Ps show impaired [3 words], which causes them to struggle to interpret the intentions of others and may contribute to feelings of persecution and paranoia.

(a)  

22.

If you have a fraternal twin with SZ, you have a [ ]% chance of developing it.

(a)  

23.

If you have an identical twin with SZ, you have a [ ]% chance of developing it.

(a)  

24.

Frith's cognitive explanation for schizophrenia suggests the central issue is [ ].

(a)  

25.

The best evidence for the genetic explanation of SZ is that monozygotic twins have a higher [ ] rate than fraternal ones.

(a)  

26.

Block dopamine activity for only a short period of time, reducing side effects

a)

Typical

b)

Atypical anti-psychotics

27.

Which best describes the central result of the Sensky study?

a)

While Ps receiving both CBT and BF theory showed improvement immediately after treatment, only the CBT group's improvement continued 9 months later.

b)

While both CBT and BF patients showed improvement immediately after treatment, only the BF group's improvement continued 9 months later.

c)

Neither group still showed substantial improvement of symptoms at the 9 month follow-up.

d)

Immediately after treatment, the CBT group showed much more improvement compared to the BF group.

28.

The Freeman study showed

a)

no significant differences in persecution scores between males and females

b)

significant differences in persecution scores between males and females

c)

minor differences in persecution score between males and females

29.

Ps undergoing ECT for acute SZ will be given anesthetic and a [ ].

(a)  

30.

Typically, CBT for SZ will last 12-[ ] weekly sessions

(a)  

31.

During CBT, Ps are taught to recognize and [ ] their own delusions, often "reality-testing" them

(a)  

32.

While drug therapy may not reduce hallucinations completely, through CBT Ps can learn strategies to ignore or [ ] them

(a)  

33.

It can take [ ] for people taking anti-depressants to see significant improvement.

a)

1-2 weeks

b)

2-4 weeks

c)

4-6 weeks

d)

6-8 weeks

34.

Oruc: Because serotonin is known to be [2 words], Rs re-analyzed the data by gender, finding there WAS a suggestive association for the polymorphisms in females only.

(a)  

35.

Beck believed depression was reinforced by thought [ ], or maladaptive thinking patterns - such as catastrophising, selective thinking, personalising, and overgeneralisation.

(a)  

36.

Beck believed that trauma or criticism in childhood could cause people to develop a negative [ ], or outlook on life, that caused them to form maladaptive thinking patterns.

(a)  

37.

A score of [ ] on the BDI is where severe depression starts.

a)

11

b)

21

c)

31

d)

41

38.

The BDI is a [ ] test, meaning it attempts to quantify a complex mental process.

(a)  

39.

Manic episodes last at least 1 week and are characterized by: Extreme mood (euphoric or irritable), high levels of activity/energy and self-esteem, rapid speech, and [ ] behavior.

(a)  

40.

Bipolar Type II is characterized by the presence of [ ]-manic episodes, where symptoms are less acute than in a manic episode.

(a)  

41.

The aim of the Oruc study was to investigate whether certain genes involved in the encoding for serotonin receptors could be involved in susceptibility to bipolar. These were the 5-HTT and [ ] genes.

(a)  

42.

Depressive symptoms include: low mood, loss of pleasure/interest in activities, difficulty [ ], feelings of worthlessness or guilt

(a)  

43.

Genetic factors are believed to account for up to [ ]% of bipolar, but identifying specific genes is difficult.

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

80

44.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with sleep, appetite, mood, and anxiety?

(a)  

45.

A diagnosis of depressive disorder can only be made if the individual has never experienced a [ ] episode, as this would indicate bipolar disorder. [The answer is the simplest one-word answer.]

(a)  

46.

A depressive episode is a period of at least [ ] during which there is almost daily depressed mood or decreased interest in activities.

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

1 month

d)

6 months

47.

The Beck Depression Inventory has [ ] items.

(a)  

48.

Each item on the BDI is rated from [ ].

(a)  

49.

Each item on the BDI includes [ ] statements, and Ps choose the one that best describes how they have been feeling during the past 2 weeks.

(a)  

50.

The bipolar group in Oruc was [ ] Ps with BP-I (25 females, 17 males).

(a)  

51.

The CONTROL group in Oruc was [ ] Ps without bipolar disorder, recruited from the hospital staff and friends.

(a)  

52.

Rather than focusing on the underlying philosophy, as Ellis's REBT did, Beck's cognitive restructuring focused more teaching Ps to identify and counter their ANTs, or [ ].

(a)  

53.

All the Ps in the Oruc study were from what country?

(a)  

54.

Seligman believed depression could be explained by your [ ] - or how you explained the bad events that happened to you.

(a)  

55.

Seligman believed that depression stems from a feeling of a lack of control over outcomes, which he called [ ].

(a)  

56.

People with negative/pessimistic attributional style believed that the causes of bad things that happened to them would affect many areas of their lives, aka they would be [ ].

(a)  

57.

People with negative/pessimistic attributional style believed that the causes of bad things that happened to them would last for a long time, aka they would be [ ].

(a)  

58.

MAOI stands for

(a)  

59.

Which anti-depressants specifically may interact with other medications such as pain meds or other anti-depressants, causing headaches or high blood pressure?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

60.

Which anti-depressants specifically target an enzyme responsible for breaking down serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

61.

Which anti-depressants are most frequently prescribed because they typically have the fewest side effects?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

62.

The "C" in ABCDE is the emotional and behavioral [ ] a P experiences as a result of their irrational beliefs.

(a)  

63.

The "D" in ABCDE is forcefully [ ] those irrational beliefs.

(a)  

64.

The "E" in ABCDE refers to the [ ] that the P learns to form.

(a)  

65.

The key point of Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy is that the consequence is most importantly a result of the person's [ ] about the event, rather than the event iself.

(a)  

66.

People with ICDs all experience an increase in tension or [ ] before they perform their undesirable behavior.

(a)  

67.

The K-SAS has 11 items rated on a [ ] scale.

(a)  

68.

The K-SAS has [ ] items.

(a)  

69.

The biological explanation for ICDs is [ ].

(a)  

70.

Behavioral Explanation: People develop an ICD as a result of [ ], especially if the reinforcement schedule is intermittent.

(a)  

71.

According to the Feeling-State Theory, Ps experience an [ ] emotion while performing the behavior, causing the two to become linked.

(a)  

72.

Conditioning those with ICDs to associate their undesirable behavior with an aversive stimulus is [ ].

(a)  

73.

Covert sensitisation for ICDs trains Ps to associate their undesirable behavior with a(n) [ ].

(a)  

74.

The variable most strongly associated with positive treatment response for OAs was a [ ].

(a)  

75.

Clinically relevant treatment in the Grant study was defined as a [ ]% reduction in PG-YBOCS score.

(a)  

76.

The Grant study actually combined the results of two studies, one on [ ], and one on naltrexone.

(a)  

77.

Ps had to be on [ ] in order to be included in the Grant study on opiate antagonists.

(a)  

78.

The Grant sample was [ ] Ps with pathological gambling.

(a)  

79.

To be included in the Grant study, Ps had to score a 5 or higher on the [ ] Gambling Screener.

(a)  

80.

The Grant key study investigated the factors that influenced the effectiveness of [ ] as treatment for pathological gambling.

(a)  

81.

A key point of diagnosing ICDs is that the undesirable behaviors are performed with no discernible [ ].

(a)  

82.

Both cognitive-behavioral treatments for ICDs begin with [ ] exercises to help the Ps immerse themselves in the visualizations.

(a)  

83.

In the Glover study, a 56 year old kleptomaniac was successfully treated using covert sensitisation, specifically by pairing the idea of stealing with nausea and [ ].

(a)  

84.

[ ] were associated with a positive treatment outcome, but only among those taking higher doses.

a)

stronger urges to gamble

b)

family history of alcoholism

c)

age

d)

type of gambling

85.

In Grant, [ ] Ps were more likely to respond to the placebo.

(a)  

86.

ICDs are associated with reduced levels of dopamine in the brain's reward system (the [ ]).

(a)  

87.

Which group was not excluded from the Grant sample?

a)

Bipolar Type I and II

b)

Schizophrenic

c)

Anxiety

d)

Dementia

88.

Which group was NOT excluded from the Grant study?

a)

pregnant women

b)

people with an unstable medical illness

c)

drug users

d)

smokers

89.

First, Ps take part in a progress muscle relaxation procedure, then they visualize themselves being exposed to a trigger for impulsive behaviors. They think about acting on the impulse, then picture themselves leaving the situation. This treatment is known as

a)

imaginal desensitisation

b)

covert sensitisation

c)

deconditioning

d)

systematic desensitisation

90.

Researchers in Grant et al hypothesized that WHICH group would respond better to the placebo?

a)

People with more severe PG

b)

People with less severe PG

c)

Younger people

d)

Older people

91.

Which is NOT true of the feeling-states associated with ICDs?

a)

They are often caused by underlying negative feelings.

b)

They are more intense than typical feelings.

c)

They are usually short-lived.

d)

They persist across different circumstances.

92.

Covert sensitisation can work in [ ] sessions.

a)

2-4

b)

4-6

c)

6-8

d)

8-10

93.

In imaginal desensitisation, each gambling sequence is broken into a series of [ ], including the trigger, anticipating the behavior, arriving at the venue, doing the behavior, having second thoughts, and deciding not to do it.

(a)  

94.

In imaginal desensitisation, each gambling sequence is broken into a series of scenes, including the trigger, anticipating the behavior, arriving at the venue, doing the behavior, having [ ], and deciding not to do it.

(a)  

95.

During imaginal desensitisation, Ps are supposed to listen to their recordings 2-3 times per day, or at least [ ] times in 7 days for homework.

(a)  

96.

In the Glover study, he used covert sensitisation to treat a 54 year old kleptomaniac with a 15 year habit of daily shoplifting by pairing thoughts of the behavior with nausea. She reported significant improvement with only one relapse at the [ ] month check in.

(a)  

97.

T was [ ] years old.

(a)  

98.

Which therapy was used to help T begin counter-conditioning?

a)

psychoeducation

b)

cognitive restructuring

c)

applied tension

d)

exposure

99.

During session 3, T was first exposed to [ ] therapy, which would be used to identify and correct his specific thinking errors (such as catastrophizing)

(a)  

100.

During Session 4, he was also taught about the concept of [ ] (acronym), a personal rating scale created and used to assess distress or discomfort.

(a)  

101.

During Session 5, T was taught about [ ] therapy, used to prevent the sudden drop in blood pressure that causes fainting.

(a)  

102.

The first item on T's fear hierarchy was

a)

Getting a physical

b)

See someone get a phlebotomy (blood draw) in a video

c)

Taking his blood sugar

d)

Wrapping a tourniquet around his arm and touching his veins

103.

The second item on T's fear hierarchy, which he completed with his therapist during Session 6, was

a)

Getting a physical

b)

Seeing someone get a phlebotomy (blood draw) in a video

c)

Taking his blood sugar

d)

Wrapping a tourniquet around his arm and touching his veins

104.

The first step of Applied Tension therapy is to tense muscles in the arms, legs, and trunk for

a)

10-15 seconds

b)

30-45 seconds

c)

45-60 seconds

d)

as long as you can hold it

105.

After tensing, Ps relax muscles for [ ].

a)

10-15 seconds

b)

30-45 seconds

c)

45-60 seconds

d)

20-30 seconds

106.

At session 7, T reported that he had successfully completed three trials of

a)

Having his blood sugar taken by his wife

b)

Taking his own blood sugar

c)

Getting a phlebotomy

d)

Witnessing a phlebotomy life

107.

During session 8, T and his therapist completed which stimulus together, with a max SUDS of 45, going down to "nothing, 0."

a)

Having his blood sugar taken by his wife

b)

Taking his own blood sugar

c)

Getting a phlebotomy

d)

Witnessing a phlebotomy live

108.

T had follow-up sessions with his therapist

a)

4, 10, and 12 months later

b)

4, 8, and 12 months later

c)

3, 6, and 12 months later

d)

3, 6, 9 months later

109.

At the 12 month follow-up, T's BAI had dropped from 41 to [ ].

(a)  

110.

The exposure therapy that T had is also known as [ ].

(a)  

111.

The use of a SUDS allows therapists to gather [ ] data and track improvement.

(a)  

112.

Fears and anxieties become clinical when they interfere with one's behavior or cause [ ] to relationships, occupation, social interactions, or education (career).

(a)  

113.

A patient may have generalised anxiety disorder if they experience symptoms of anxiety on the majority of days for

a)

2-3 weeks

b)

a month

c)

several months

d)

at least six months

114.

Symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder include irritability, sleep disturbance, difficulty concentrating, and [ ].

(a)  

115.

One diagnostic tool for generalised anxiety disorder is the [ ], named for the number of items on it.

(a)  

116.

Each item on the GAD-7 is rated on a scale of [ ], assessing how frequently the symptoms were experienced in the past two weeks.

(a)  

117.

[ ]: Excessive fear or anxiety in response to situations where escape might be difficult - such as public transport, being in crowds, or outside the home

(a)  

118.

The Ost example study lent evidence to the genetic explanation for phobias by finding that [ ]% of blood phobics reported a first-degree relative with the disorder, compared to 29% of other phobias.

(a)  

119.

Before Watson's conditioning, white mice were a(n) [ ] for Little Albert.

(a)  

120.

Watson repeatedly paired the white rat (the neutral stimulus) with a loud noise, the [ ] stimulus.

(a)  

121.

As a result of repeated pairings (or one especially traumatic one), the previously neutral stimulus becomes a [ ] stimulus, with a [ ] response. (Same word goes in both blanks)

(a)  

122.

Freud's [ ] explanation for phobias is that fears are repressed into the subconscious and may be projected onto a stimulus that is perceived as "safer."

(a)  

123.

Little Hans, for example, actually feared (hated?) his father who would not let him sleep with his mother, but he redirected that fear onto [ ] that looked like his dad.

(a)  

124.

Little Hans feared horses with [ ] that reminded him of his father's mustache and blinkers that reminded him of his father's glasses.

(a)  

125.

Little Hans was in the [ ] stage of psychosexual development when he started being attracted to his mother and hating his father.

(a)  

126.

Systematic desensitisation is based on Wolpe's theory of [ ], that it is impossible to hold two contradictory emotions at once (fear and calm).

(a)  

127.

The GAD-7 is a [ ] used by general practitioners rather than a formal diagnostic tool.

(a)  

128.

One item from the GAD-7 is "Trouble relaxing." Another is "Becoming easily annoyed or [ ]"

(a)  

129.

According to Freud, all boys have an [ ] stage as part of their natural psychosexual development where they were sexually attracted to their mothers. But some, like Little Hans, develop a complex that causes a disorder.

(a)  

130.

Freud "studied" Little Hans for [ ].

a)

6 months

b)

10 months

c)

2 years

d)

1 year

131.

Freud gathered a great deal of [ ] data through his letters with Little Hans's father, but that information was likely limited by the father's bias.

(a)  

132.

T was treated for his BII phobia in [ ] sessions.

(a)  

133.

C&D also found that, in addition to fear, [ ] also plays a role in BII phobias, specifically "animal reminder" [ ].

(a)  

134.

For a diagnosis of OCD to be made, the obsession and compulsion must take at least [ ] per day.

(a)  

135.

In the Rapoport (OCD) study, Charles spent

a)

3 hours each day showering

b)

3 hours each day cleaning his room

c)

2 hours each day showering

d)

2 hours each day cleaning his room

136.

Charles's (Rapoport) main obsession was

a)

that his hands were sticky

b)

for order and symmetry

c)

that he would harm or kill other people

d)

that he would deliberately harm himself

137.

The MOCI has [ ] true/false items

(a)  

138.

The Y-BOCS has [ ] items. The first half are about obsessions, then second half about compulsions.

(a)  

139.

A score of [ ] is considered "clinical" on the Y-BOCS

(a)  

140.

Biological explanation: Ps with OCD may have excess [ ], which is the "gas pedal" in the CSTC circuit.

(a)  

141.

Biological explanation: OCD is associated with comparatively low levels of the neurotransmitter [ ], which regulates mood and anxiety.

(a)  

142.

Genetic explanation: Several genes have been implicated for the role they may play in the development of OCD, including: SERT, [ ], and SLITRK3.

(a)  

143.

Like other cognitive explanations, the one for OCD rests on the idea that the obsessive thoughts are a result of [ ]. (2 words)

(a)  

144.

Behavioural explanation - Operant Conditioning: Washing one's hands temporarily alleviates the obsession about germs. This would be

a)

positive reinforcement

b)

negative reinforcement

c)

positive punishment

d)

negative punishment

145.

Psychodynamic explanation: The conflict that causes OCD typically arises during the [ ] stage of psychosexual development, where children become fixated.

a)

oral

b)

anal

c)

phallic

d)

genital

146.

A special type of CBT used to treat OCD is known as [ ].

(a)  

147.

In ERP, the P is taught to tolerate the anxiety caused by the obsession and the goal is to help them become [ ] to it.

(a)  

148.

As part of ERP, Ps create an anxiety [ ] of items that trigger their compulsive behaviors, then work through from least threatening to most threatening.

(a)  

149.

The aim of the Lovell key study was to compared the effectiveness of CBT carried out by [ ] with traditional face-to-face CBT.

(a)  

150.

Face-to-face CBT sessions were 60 minutes, while telephone sessions were [ ] minutes.

(a)  

151.

Each P in the Lovell study received [ ] sessions of CBT and ERP.

(a)  

152.

There were [ ] Ps in the Lovell study on CBT for OCD.

(a)  

153.

Ps in the Lovell study about OCD were given the Y-BOCS, the BDI, and a [ ].

(a)  

154.

Follow-up assessments were completed in the Lovell (OCD) key study after [ ] months.

(a)  

155.

A thought becomes an obsession if it is recurrent and [ ] and interferes with one's normal behavior.

(a)  

156.

A behaviour is a compulsion if it is [ ] and purposeful, with the P feeling they must engage in it according to certain rules.

(a)  

157.

A behaviour is a compulsion if it is repetitious and [ ], with the P feeling they must engage in it according to certain rules.

(a)  

158.

For those with OCD their compulsive behaviors often become [ ] they feel they MUST perform in order to prevent their obsessions from happening.

(a)  

159.

The MOCI takes [ ] minutes to complete.

(a)  

160.

The Y-BOCS takes [ ] minutes to complete.

(a)  

161.

Obsessions are unwanted ideas, [ ], or impulses that intrude on thinking against your wishes and efforts to resist them.

(a)  

162.

Each of the 10 items on the checklist part of the Y-BOCS is rated from 0-[ ].

(a)  

163.

The psychodynamic explanation for OCD is that it arises as a result of trauma that occurred during [2 words] (not stage).

(a)  

164.

SSRIs work by blocking serotonin from being re-absorbed by the [ ] ("the vacuum") which cleans up excess neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft.

(a)  

165.

In his ERP the therapist spent less time on cognitive restructuring (because of his ASD), and instead Jason focused on learning [ ] statements ("Nothing bad will happen.")

(a)  

166.

"Jason" (the 12 year old with ASD) had an initial Y-BOCS of 18, which dropped to [ ], which was maintained at the 3 month follow-up.

(a)  

167.

The Lovell study is what's known as a non-[ ] study, meaning the telephone OCD was not expected to work less well than face-to-face.

(a)  

168.

The Ps in Lovell were recruited from 2 outpatient clinics in the city of [ ], United Kingdom.

(a)  

169.

For the baseline measure, the Ps in Lovell were given the Y-BOCS twice, [ ] weeks apart.

(a)  

170.

Treatment in the Lovell study (OCD) was considered clinically relevant if their Y-BOCS decreased by at least 2 [2 words].

(a)  

171.

[Lovell - OCD] Difference in Y-BOCS score between two groups at 6 month check-in was [ ]

(a)  

172.

Genetic explanation: In a 2010 study, Shmelkov deleted the [ ] gene from a group of mice, after which they showed increasing OCD-like grooming behaviors (until being treated with SSRIs).

(a)  

173.

Common obsessions include contamination, symmetry, unacceptability, and [ ] (either to yourself or others).

(a)  

174.

The caudate nucleus, which is supposed to filter alarm signals, is part of the [ ].

a)

orbitofrontal cortex

b)

striatum

c)

thalamus

d)

occipital lobe

175.

The [ ], which is supposed to filter alarm signals, is part of the striatum.

(a)  

176.

According to the cognitive explanation for OCD, Ps with OCD often demonstrate the [ ] thinking error, where they believe that thinking about something makes it more likely to happen, OR that thinking about something is just as bad as doing it.

(a)  

177.

According to the cognitive explanation for OCD, Ps with OCD often demonstrate the [ ] responsibility thinking error, where they believe that they possess pivotal (and unrealistic) power to provoke or prevent negative outcomes.

(a)  

178.

The behavioural explanation for OCD is based on the idea of [ ] learning - Ps have learned a habit loop is irrational and harmful to them.

(a)  

179.

Freud believed that people with anal-[ ] personalities were stubborn perfectionists who were obsessed with order and control, which caused their neurotic behavior (OCD).

(a)  

180.

How SSRIs work: Because serotonin is less likely to be re-absorbed by the transporter in the pre-synaptic neuron, more is available at the synaptic cleft to be absorbed and processed by a [ ] in the post-synaptic neuron.

(a)