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PERSONAL DEVELOPMENT MODULES 9-11

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which factor becomes more emphasized in adolescent friendships compared to childhood?

a)

Strict adherence to school rules

b)

Parental approval and control

c)

Acceptance and mutual understanding

d)

Competitive performance and rivalry

2.

Which similarity is most typical among close adolescent friends?

a)

Opposite interests and goals

b)

Contrasting attitudes about school

c)

Different ages and varied backgrounds

d)

Same age and often same gender

3.

Which is a documented effect of healthy adolescent friendships?

a)

Greater social isolation from peers

b)

Reduced need for adult guidance

c)

Improved self-esteem and adjustment

d)

Lower academic motivation overall

4.

Which description best distinguishes cliques from crowds?

a)

Small groups with close interactions

b)

Temporary teams formed for projects

c)

Large groups defined by shared labels

d)

Online-only networks with anonymity

5.

During the initiation phase of teen romance, which pattern is typical?

a)

Deep emotional intimacy develops

b)

Attraction begins but remains shallow

c)

Long-term exclusivity is expected

d)

Mixed-sex groups are dominant

6.

In the affiliation phase, teens usually prioritize which goal?

a)

Avoiding mixed-sex groups

b)

Companionship over intimacy

c)

Physical closeness only

d)

Immediate commitment

7.

Which feature marks the intimate phase of adolescent relationships?

a)

Opposite-sex pairs begin forming

b)

Same-sex groups provide security

c)

Relationships remain casual

d)

Exclusive long-term commitment

8.

Which statement best characterizes the committed phase in late adolescence?

a)

Short, exploratory dating

b)

Exclusive long-term relationships

c)

Group-centered interactions

d)

Focus on casual companionship

9.

Which component of love reflects emotional connection, trust, and support?

a)

Attraction

b)

Closeness

c)

Commitment

d)

Compatibility

10.

A mature partnership typically includes which combination of components?

a)

All three: attraction, closeness, commitment

b)

Commitment and physical interest only

c)

Attraction and trust only

d)

Closeness and support only

11.

Which qualities most strongly characterize a good relationship?

a)

Competitive one-upmanship

b)

Giving and receiving care

c)

Revealing genuine feelings

d)

Listening and supporting

e)

Building trust and openness

12.

Which dating tip is most aligned with healthy teen relationships?

a)

Keep feelings hidden

b)

Avoid shared interests

c)

Choose non-romantic activities

d)

Focus on impressing others

13.

Which misconception can lead teens to confuse intimacy with sexual activity during the intimate phase?

a)

Believing intimacy is only emotional

b)

Assuming sex equals emotional closeness

c)

Viewing commitment as optional

d)

Prioritizing companionship over romance

14.

Crowds in adolescence are best described as which type of group?

a)

Family-centered peer networks

b)

Short-term project teams

c)

Large, activity-based labels

d)

Small circles of close friends

15.

Which description best defines family as a social system?

a)

Only biological ties among relatives

b)

Temporary group formed for projects

c)

Shared roles and rules guiding members

d)

Informal friendships without structure

16.

Which set lists common elements in a family social system?

a)

Roles and power structures

b)

Multigenerational ties

c)

Emotional and economic support

d)

Workplace hierarchies

17.

Which family structure includes parents and their unmarried children living together?

a)

Nuclear family unit

b)

Extended kin network

c)

Single-parent residence

d)

Step or blended household

18.

Which scenario best represents a single-parent family?

a)

One caregiver raising children

b)

Two parents raising children

c)

Grandparents plus parents together

d)

Parents with stepchildren combined

19.

In a step/blended family, what distinguishes it from other structures?

a)

Presence of stepparents or stepsiblings

b)

Only biological parent-child ties

c)

Multiple generations cohabiting

d)

No adult caregivers present

20.

Which characteristic fits an extended family?

a)

Includes grandparents or other kin

b)

Nonrelated roommates only

c)

Parents and children only

d)

Caregiver living alone

21.

Which parenting style relies on strict, force-based control?

a)

Authoritarian approach

b)

Rejecting or neglecting

c)

Authoritative approach

d)

Permissive approach

22.

Which parenting styles emphasize low expectations or low support?

a)

Permissive style prioritizes low expectations

b)

Rejecting or neglecting shows low support

c)

Authoritarian emphasizes flexible choices

d)

Authoritative uses firm reasoning

23.

Which feature best describes authoritative parenting?

a)

Minimal supervision and support

b)

Inconsistent rules and leniency

c)

Strict rules without discussion

d)

Firm control with reasoning

24.

Which methods are commonly used in family assessment?

a)

Structured interviews

b)

Direct observations

c)

Population censuses

d)

Self-report instruments

25.

What is a genogram primarily used to document?

a)

Weekly household chores list

b)

Family medical and emotional history

c)

Neighborhood safety statistics

d)

Classroom seating arrangements

26.

Which are valid uses of genograms in professional practice?

a)

Medical risk assessment

b)

Sociological and psychological analysis

c)

Counseling and therapy planning

d)

Product marketing strategies

27.

Which statement about genogram components is accurate?

a)

They use symbols and representations

b)

They avoid visual family links

c)

They record only financial data

d)

They exclude emotional patterns

28.

Which statement best captures the goal of Transactional Analysis in shaping ego states?

a)

Strengthen the Adult for balanced behavior

b)

Amplify the Child for spontaneity

c)

Merge Parent and Child to reduce conflict

d)

Empower the Parent for stricter rules

29.

In the PAC framework, which description aligns with the Adult state?

a)

Internalized authority, rules, values

b)

Emotional, spontaneous, intuitive acts

c)

Empathetic, nurturing, protective stance

d)

Logical, rational, objective decisions

30.

Which life position most likely leads to bullying and failed relationships?

a)

I’m Not OK – You’re OK

b)

I’m Not OK – You’re Not OK

c)

I’m OK – You’re Not OK

d)

I’m OK – You’re OK

31.

Which pair correctly matches the life position with its typical outcome?

a)

I’m OK – You’re Not OK: mutual respect and trust

b)

I’m Not OK – You’re Not OK: cooperation and productivity

c)

I’m Not OK – You’re OK: insecurity and inefficiency

d)

I’m OK – You’re OK: positive, productive relationships

32.

Which statement best describes the Parent state in PAC?

a)

Playful, impulsive decision-making

b)

Data-driven problem solving

c)

Internalized voice of rules and values

d)

Balanced emotions and logic

33.

TA was developed by which psychologist and popularized by which author?

a)

Albert Ellis; Viktor Frankl

b)

B. F. Skinner; Aaron Beck

c)

Sigmund Freud; Carl Rogers

d)

Eric Berne; Thomas Harris

34.

Which practice aligns with smoking etiquette in shared spaces?

a)

Leave lit cigarettes in public bins

b)

Smoke near open windows for airflow

c)

Use an ashtray and dispose properly

d)

Share cigarettes to avoid waste

35.

Which guideline reflects responsible drinking etiquette?

a)

Moderate your intake

b)

Avoid mixing different drinks

c)

Stop when you’ve had enough

d)

Encourage louder conversations

36.

Which dating etiquette behavior helps build appreciation and respect?

a)

Keep conversations one-sided

b)

Give small thoughtful gifts

c)

Plan surprise expensive trips

d)

Avoid saying thank you often

37.

Which concept describes TA’s focus in interpersonal understanding?

a)

Eliminating emotions from decisions

b)

Understanding behavior to improve relationships

c)

Promoting strict conformity to rules

d)

Diagnosing mental disorders promptly

38.

Which life position is considered ideal for healthy relationships?

a)

I’m OK – You’re OK

b)

I’m Not OK – You’re OK

c)

I’m Not OK – You’re Not OK

d)

I’m OK – You’re Not OK

39.

Which outcome is most associated with I’m Not OK – You’re Not OK?

a)

Constructive conflict resolution

b)

Respectful collaboration

c)

Balanced mutual trust

d)

No productivity or cooperation

40.

Which statement best represents the Child state in PAC?

a)

Emotional, spontaneous, intuitive responses

b)

Rule-focused, value-enforcing judgments

c)

Evidence-based, objective thinking

d)

Calm, detached authority figure

41.

Which feature is central to social graces as a concept?

a)

Personal preferences over community values

b)

Unchanging rules across all cultures

c)

Strict legal requirements for conduct

d)

Code of behavior guided by societal norms

42.

Which benefit is linked to practicing social graces?

a)

Increasing personal superiority

b)

Eliminating emotional reactions

c)

Guaranteeing universal agreement

d)

Preventing conflict and promoting harmony

43.

Match each of Wayne Matthews’ Five L’s with its core idea.

a)

Loyalty: devotion and standing together

b)

Learning: guidance and value formation

c)

Laughter: stress relief and family balance

d)

Love: emotional closeness and sharing

e)

Leadership: responsible adults guiding rules

44.

Which smoking etiquette choice reduces discomfort for sensitive individuals?

a)

Offer them a cigarette break

b)

Open a window and continue

c)

Avoid smoking around them

d)

Smoke briefly near entrances

45.

Which drinking etiquette avoids disturbing others in public venues?

a)

Debate loudly to show confidence

b)

Keep voices moderate and be considerate

c)

Play loud music to celebrate

d)

Encourage friends to drink faster

46.

Which dating etiquette action best expresses appreciation after a date?

a)

Say thank you and be courteous

b)

Share critiques to help improvement

c)

Evaluate their choices critically

d)

Request extravagant gifts immediately

47.

Which action best reflects party etiquette for adolescents attending a social event?

a)

Dress appropriately for the occasion

b)

Arrive late to seem important

c)

Eat quickly before others arrive

d)

Stay until the hosts leave

48.

Which behavior aligns with phone etiquette during a call?

a)

Avoid identifying yourself

b)

Interrupt to finish their sentences

c)

End the call before the caller

d)

Speak clearly and pleasantly

49.

In social roles and norms, what do norms primarily represent?

a)

Formal job descriptions

b)

Personal preferences in groups

c)

Unwritten rules guiding behavior

d)

Written laws enforced by courts

50.

Which statement accurately describes conformity in adolescent groups?

a)

Conformity eliminates individual identity

b)

Conformity helps maintain social order

c)

Conformity has no social effects

d)

Conformity always harms social order

51.

Which outcome is most associated with maintaining good parent–adolescent relationships?

a)

Reduced major life guidance

b)

Reduced risky behaviors

c)

Greater risky behaviors

d)

Eliminated need for curfews

52.

Which influence remains strong in major life decisions for adolescents?

a)

Media determines all decisions

b)

Teachers make final choices

c)

Parents maintain strong influence

d)

Peer groups primarily decide

53.

Which statement best captures peer influence in early adolescence?

a)

Peer influence is minimal then

b)

Peer influence is strongest then

c)

Peers have no effect on identity

d)

Peer pressure always helps grades

54.

Which consequence can peer pressure lead to during adolescence?

a)

Permanent self-identity

b)

Guaranteed academic honesty

c)

Engagement in risky behaviors

d)

Improved sleep routines

55.

Which statement describes how culture affects adolescent development?

a)

Eliminates discrimination effects

b)

Varies by cultural norms

c)

Defines lifestyle expectations

d)

Shapes beliefs and values

56.

Which characteristic commonly defines adolescent leaders within peer groups?

a)

Isolated and disorganized

b)

Rule-bound but passive

c)

Socially skilled and influential

d)

Unnoticed and indifferent

57.

Groups often deny leadership but still follow which structure?

a)

Complete absence of roles

b)

Teacher-imposed rules only

c)

A clear social hierarchy

d)

Random membership order

58.

According to Self-Determination Theory, what do group members seek?

a)

Uniformity, obedience, control

b)

Rewards, punishments, grades

c)

Popularity, status, fame

d)

Autonomy, connection, competence

59.

Which statement best captures Erikson’s Identity vs. Role Confusion stage during adolescence?

a)

Teens resolve autonomy through separation

b)

Teens explore roles to form a coherent identity

c)

Teens balance industry with inferiority

d)

Teens seek intimacy before defining identity

60.

What is a psychosocial moratorium in identity development?

a)

Immediate commitment to roles without exploration

b)

Formal assessment of personality by clinicians

c)

Period of active exploration without firm commitments

d)

Withdrawal from social interaction permanently

61.

Which are typical components of personal identity for adolescents?

a)

Career and political beliefs

b)

Spirituality and intellectual interests

c)

Blood type and resting heart rate

d)

Culture/ethnicity and personality

62.

Which scenario illustrates Identity Foreclosure?

a)

Choosing a major after broad exploration

b)

Avoiding all decisions about future roles

c)

Committing to a path due to parental expectations

d)

Exploring options without any firm commitment

63.

During Identity Moratorium, an adolescent typically shows which pattern?

a)

Commitment without exploration

b)

Active exploration with no commitment yet

c)

Exploration completed with clear commitment

d)

No exploration and no commitment

64.

Identity Achievement is best described as:

a)

Rejection of commitments and social roles

b)

Continuous exploration without any commitment

c)

Exploration of options followed by commitment

d)

Commitment formed without considering options

65.

According to Cooley’s Looking-Glass Self, what shapes self-perception most directly?

a)

Genetic predispositions

b)

Objective performance metrics

c)

How we think others view us

d)

Innate temperament alone

66.

Arrange the key steps in the Looking-Glass Self process.

a)

Collect biological data about ourselves

b)

Develop self-concept from perceived judgments

c)

Imagine their judgment of us

d)

Imagine how we appear to others

67.

Which practice supports healthy identity development in adolescence?

a)

Evaluating oneself only through others’ opinions

b)

Committing early to meet family expectations

c)

Avoiding exploration to prevent confusion

d)

Learning to assess oneself independently