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EFD Policy 409-501

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of the policy regarding inoperable fire protection services?

a)

To establish guidelines for fire drills

b)

To provide guidance for fire watch due to inoperable fire protection services

c)

To train fire department personnel

d)

To manage fire department budgets

2.

Who is responsible for patrolling the premises and watching for fire according to the document?

a)

Fire watch

b)

Fire guard

c)

Fire Chief

d)

Fire Marshal

3.

What is a 'Fire watch' as defined in the document?

a)

A person who is properly trained to patrol the premises

b)

A temporary measure to ensure continuous surveillance of a building

c)

A high-risk activity involving welding and brazing

d)

A type of fire alarm system

4.

Which of the following is considered a high life-risk occupancy?

a)

Residential homes

b)

Office buildings

c)

Hospitals

d)

Retail stores

5.

What activities are included under 'Hot work' as per the document?

a)

Fire drills and training

b)

Cutting, welding, and brazing

c)

Fire alarm testing

d)

Building inspections

6.

Who should ensure that a fire watch is implemented upon notification by the fire official?

a)

Fire guard

b)

Fire watch

c)

Fire Chief or the authorized designee

d)

Building owner

7.

What is one of the responsibilities of the Fire Marshal during a fire watch?

a)

Determine the minimum level of fire watch service

b)

Install smoke alarms

c)

Conduct fire drills

d)

Provide medical assistance

8.

What must each assigned fire guard be provided with during a fire watch?

a)

A fire extinguisher

b)

At least one means of direct communication with Dispatch

c)

A first aid kit

d)

A fire hose

9.

When should the fire watch continue until?

a)

Until the Fire Marshal leaves the premises

b)

Until the automatic fire protection or detection system is back in service

c)

Until the fire guards are tired

d)

Until the property owner decides to stop it

10.

What is the purpose of the document mentioned in section 410.1?

a)

To provide guidelines for the provision and installation of smoke alarms

b)

To conduct fire drills

c)

To train fire guards

d)

To inspect buildings for fire hazards

11.

Who is responsible for smoke alarm installations according to section 410.2?

a)

Property owners

b)

All uniformed personnel

c)

Fire guards

d)

Residents

12.

Who is eligible for the smoke alarm installation program mentioned in section 410.3?

a)

Any resident of the state

b)

Only a person(s) living within the city limits of Edmond

c)

Only business owners

d)

Only fire department personnel

13.

What type of property should smoke alarms not be installed in?

a)

Single family rental homes

b)

Commercial businesses

c)

Residential homes

d)

Apartments

14.

What information must be gathered by personnel installing smoke alarms in a rental property?

a)

Name of the tenant, tenant address, tenant phone number

b)

Name of the landlord, landlord address, landlord phone number

c)

Name of the fire department, fire department address, fire department phone number

d)

Name of the homeowner, homeowner address, homeowner phone number

15.

What should be done if the assigned personnel cannot perform the smoke alarm installation on the day of the assignment?

a)

The installation should be canceled

b)

The homeowner should install the alarm themselves

c)

The assignment may be passed to other personnel

d)

The installation should be postponed indefinitely

16.

What should fire suppression crews do if they receive an emergency call during a smoke alarm installation?

a)

Ignore the emergency call

b)

Continue with the installation

c)

Respond to the emergency call and return to complete the installation later

d)

Cancel the installation permanently

17.

How often should the battery or batteries of a smoke alarm be replaced, except for lifetime batteries?

a)

Monthly

b)

Yearly

c)

Every 5 years

d)

Every 10 years

18.

Where should wall-mounted smoke alarms be placed?

a)

At least four inches from any wall

b)

Between 4 and 12 inches from the ceiling

c)

Near windows, outside doors, or air ducts

d)

On the floor

19.

For whom are smoke alarms with strobe lights intended?

a)

Children

b)

Elderly

c)

Hearing impaired

d)

Pets

20.

Where should smoke alarms be placed according to the document?

a)

Near windows

b)

Near or within the sleeping area and within 9ft. of an electrical outlet

c)

Outside doors

d)

In the kitchen

21.

What should be done to maintain a smoke alarm properly?

a)

Monthly testing

b)

Painting the alarm

c)

Replacing the alarm every 5 years

d)

Ignoring dust and debris

22.

What is the purpose of the Edmond Fire Department Burn Permit process?

a)

To allow open burning without any restrictions

b)

To control the open burning of trees, tree limbs, shrubs, and brush

c)

To prevent any kind of burning

d)

To allow burning only during the night

23.

What is the required distance for a burn pile from structures off the property?

a)

50 feet

b)

100 feet

c)

150 feet

d)

200 feet

24.

What should be done if a recipient moves outside of the city limits or no longer meets the requirements for a smoke alarm?

a)

Keep the alarm

b)

Return the alarm to the Edmond Fire Department

c)

Sell the alarm

d)

Discard the alarm

25.

What is a commercial burn permit issued for?

a)

Land clearing operations

b)

Recreational campfires

c)

Cooking on charcoal grills

d)

Outdoor fireplaces

26.

How far must commercial burns be conducted from any occupied structures?

a)

No closer than 500 feet upwind

b)

No closer than 300 feet upwind

c)

No closer than 200 feet upwind

d)

No closer than 100 feet upwind

27.

What is a special burn pile used for?

a)

Cooking on charcoal grills

b)

Bon Fire, Cooking Fire, Prescribed Burn

c)

Clearing vegetation for construction

d)

Outdoor fireplaces

28.

Is a permit required for campfires at Lake Arcadia campgrounds?

a)

Yes, always

b)

No, but EFD makes daily determination

c)

Yes, only on weekends

d)

No, never

29.

Who makes the daily determination on the ability to use campfires, charcoal grills, and fireplaces at City of Edmond Parks and Lake?

a)

The Mayor

b)

EFD personnel

c)

The City Council

d)

The Police Department

30.

How long are residential burn permits valid for?

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

30 days

d)

90 days

31.

What must applicants do to verify if burning is allowed on a daily basis during the duration of their permit?

a)

Call the Fire Department burn line

b)

Check the city website

c)

Visit the Fire Department in person

d)

Email the Fire Department

32.

What may result from failure to comply with any provision of any burn permit?

a)

Loss of future burning privileges

b)

A fine of $100

c)

Community service

d)

A warning letter

33.

Who is responsible for checking the weather conditions each morning of the normal work week?

a)

The acting on-duty Battalion Chief

b)

The Chief of Fire Prevention

c)

An employee designated by the Chief of Fire Prevention

d)

The local weather station

34.

What is the acceptable wind speed for burning?

a)

At or below 10 MPH

b)

At or below 15 MPH

c)

At or below 20 MPH

d)

At or below 25 MPH

35.

What is the acceptable ceiling height/cloud cover for burning?

a)

Above 500 feet

b)

Above 1,000 feet

c)

Above 1,500 feet

d)

Above 2,000 feet

36.

When is burning prohibited if the wind conditions are predicted to increase?

a)

After 1000 hours

b)

After 1500 hours

c)

Before 1000 hours

d)

Before 1500 hours

37.

What is the minimum humidity level required when "Red Flag Alerts" are issued?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

38.

When is burning allowed during "Clean Air Alerts" or "Ozone Alerts"?

a)

Commercial burning only

b)

Residential burning only

c)

Campfires only

d)

Charcoal grills only

39.

What is the time frame for acceptable burning times?

a)

Three hours after sunrise until three hours before sunset

b)

Four hours after sunrise until four hours before sunset

c)

Five hours after sunrise until five hours before sunset

d)

Six hours after sunrise until six hours before sunset

40.

When is burning not allowed to start or begin?

a)

After 1000 hours or before 1500 hours

b)

After 1500 hours or before 0900 hours

c)

After 0900 hours or before 1500 hours

d)

After 1500 hours or before 1000 hours

41.

What is the default message of the burn line application at 15:00?

a)

It's a burn day

b)

No burn day

c)

Burn day status unknown

d)

Check back later

42.

Which number should be called to change the burn message?

a)

405-216-7999

b)

405-216-7432

c)

405-216-8249

d)

405-216-7000

43.

What should be done if a burn pile is found burning trash or building materials?

a)

Leave it to burn out naturally

b)

Extinguish it completely

c)

Notify the local jurisdiction

d)

Cover it with soil

44.

When should illegal burns occurring on holidays be reported to the Fire Prevention Office?

a)

Immediately

b)

Within 24 hours

c)

On the next regular business day

d)

At the end of the week

45.

What materials are allowed in Special Burn Piles?

a)

Trash and paper

b)

Wood pallets and clean construction lumber

c)

Plastic and metal

d)

Household waste

46.

Which of the following types of fires do not need a permit?

a)

Grilling or cooking food for commercial purposes

b)

Recreational fires in a fire pit larger than 3 feet by 3 feet

c)

Grilling or cooking food for non-commercial purposes

d)

Fires in an outdoor fireplace larger than 3 feet by 3 feet

47.

What is the purpose of the policy described in section 500.1?

a)

To establish the requirements for fire safety

b)

To establish the requirements for documentation of patient responses

c)

To establish the requirements for medical training

d)

To establish the requirements for emergency evacuation

48.

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for defining a patient according to section 500.1.1?

a)

Has a chief complaint

b)

Has obvious symptoms of injury or illness

c)

Is a medical professional

d)

Appears to be disoriented or to have impaired psychiatric function

49.

What does AMA stand for in the context of the document?

a)

American Medical Association

b)

Against Medical Advice

c)

Advanced Medical Assistance

d)

Acute Medical Attention

50.

According to section 500.3, when must a Patient Care Report (PCR) be completed?

a)

Only for patients who are transported to a hospital

b)

Only for patients who refuse medical care

c)

For every patient response

d)

Only for patients who are deceased

51.

What should be done if a person does not meet the criteria required for the definition of a patient?

a)

They should be ignored.

b)

They should be recorded in the department's incident reporting system.

c)

They should be treated as a patient.

d)

They should be sent to another department.

52.

Who should perform an EMS evaluation for non-medical requests for assistance?

a)

Any department member

b)

A qualified department member

c)

A patient

d)

A hospital staff member

53.

What should be done for continuous quality improvement in EMS?

a)

Ignore the PCR

b)

Review copies of the PCR and discuss any areas of concern

c)

Only review the PCR if there is a problem

d)

Discard the PCR after use

54.

How should PCRs be maintained and secured?

a)

In a random manner

b)

Consistent with the Patient Medical Record Security and Privacy Policy

c)

Without any specific guidelines

d)

By the patients themselves

55.

What is the purpose of the Periodic Automatic Replenishment (PAR) level system?

a)

To increase the cost of medical supplies

b)

To establish medical supply inventories for the safety and welfare of patients and employees

c)

To reduce the number of employees

d)

To eliminate the need for budgeting

56.

Who establishes the levels for the PAR system?

a)

The Chief of EMS or Quartermaster

b)

The patients

c)

The hospital staff

d)

The department's janitorial staff

57.

How often are supplies scheduled for delivery in the PAR system?

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Annually

58.

How should medications be kept secure according to the guidelines?

a)

By leaving them in an open area

b)

By keeping them secure from unauthorized handling or use

c)

By allowing anyone to access them

d)

By sending them through regular mail

59.

Who is responsible for inventorying narcotic medications?

a)

EMT

b)

Paramedic

c)

EMS Chief

d)

Quartermaster

60.

How should medications be protected from high temperatures?

a)

By storing them in a refrigerator

b)

By utilizing shaded areas for prolonged parking of vehicles

c)

By keeping them in their original packaging

d)

By exchanging them for in-date medications

61.

What should be done with out-of-date medications?

a)

They should be disposed of immediately

b)

They should be exchanged for in-date medications as soon as possible

c)

They should be kept in their original packaging

d)

They should be protected from high temperatures

62.

Who should provide direction regarding the disposition of medications subject to product alerts or recalls?

a)

EMT

b)

Paramedic

c)

EMS Chief

d)

Quartermaster

63.

When are medications with expiration dates indicating only a month and year deemed expired?

a)

On the last day of the month shown

b)

On the first day of the month shown

c)

On the exact date shown

d)

One month after the date shown