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Grade 12 Final Exam Revision

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of system software?

a)

To manage the hardware and software resources of a computer

b)

To create and edit documents

c)

To perform calculations and manage data

d)

To protect a computer from viruses

2.

Which of the following is an example of system software?

a)

Microsoft Word

b)

Google Chrome

c)

Linux

d)

Adobe Photoshop

3.

Which of the following is not a function of an operating system?

a)

Managing hardware devices

b)

Running application software

c)

Performing data backup automatically

d)

Allocating memory to applications

4.

System software includes which of the following types of software?

a)

Operating systems and utility programs

b)

Word processors and databases

c)

Web browsers and email clients

d)

Antivirus software and firewalls

5.

What is the role of the operating system in a computer system?

a)

To enable users to browse the internet

b)

To manage hardware, software, and user interaction

c)

To convert programming code into machine language

d)

To store and retrieve files from the internet

6.

Which of the following is an example of a multitasking operating system?

a)

DOS

b)

Windows

c)

WordPerfect

d)

Mozilla Firefox

7.

In an operating system, memory management is responsible for:

a)

Securing the computer from malware

b)

Allocating memory space to programs

c)

Installing new hardware devices

d)

Defragmenting the hard drive

8.

Which of the following is not a task performed by system software?

a)

Disk management

b)

Running web browsers

c)

File management

d)

Device driver control

9.

Utility programs are considered part of system software because they:

a)

help manage, maintain, and control computer resources.

b)

are used for creating documents and presentations.

c)

are only used for entertainment purposes.

d)

are part of application software.

10.

Which of the following is the main function of system software?

a)

Allow users to edit documents

b)

Help manage and maintain the computer system

c)

Allow users to browse the internet

d)

Provide access to social media

11.

Device drivers in system software are responsible for:

a)

Translating high-level code to machine code

b)

Enabling communication between hardware devices and the operating system

c)

Protecting the system from viruses

d)

Allowing the user to create files and folders

12.

Which of the following is not an example of an operating system?

a)

Windows

b)

macOS

c)

Android

d)

Microsoft Excel

13.

Which of the following is a mobile operating system?

a)

Linux

b)

Windows

c)

iOS

d)

Ubuntu

14.

Which component of system software handles file management tasks, such as saving, deleting, and organizing files?

a)

Command interpreter

b)

Device driver

15.

What type of system software would manage the communication between a printer and the computer?

a)

Compiler

b)

Device driver

c)

Application software

d)

Firewall

16.

What is the main purpose of a User Interface (UI)?

a)

To manage computer memory

b)

To provide a way for users to interact with the computer system

c)

To compile and execute programs

d)

To monitor background processes

17.

How does a user interface hide the complexity of an operating system?

a)

By displaying code directly to the user

b)

By providing simple commands and visuals for user interaction

c)

By disabling background tasks

d)

By restricting system access

18.

What does UX stand for?

a)

User Experience

b)

Universal Exchange

c)

Ultimate Xperience

d)

User X-ray

19.

What is the difference between UI and UX?

a)

UI is about how it looks; UX is about how it feels and functions

b)

UI is about coding; UX is about graphics

c)

UI focuses on users; UX focuses on software

d)

UI and UX mean the same thing

20.

Which of the following is an example of a Graphical User Interface (GUI)?

a)

Command Prompt

b)

Linux Terminal

c)

macOS Desktop

d)

BIOS Setup Screen

21.

What type of user interface uses icons and windows to interact with the system?

a)

Command-line interface

b)

Text-based interface

c)

Graphical user interface

d)

Form-based interface

22.

A command-line interface (CLI) mainly hides the complexity of the OS by:

a)

Using icons and menus

b)

Allowing users to type commands in human-readable form

c)

Automatically running programs in the background

d)

Translating commands into machine language

23.

Which of the following best describes a well-designed UX?

a)

Complicated navigation and advanced options

b)

Smooth, intuitive interaction and positive user satisfaction

c)

Many system warnings and pop-ups

d)

Hidden functions requiring deep knowledge

24.

The desktop metaphor in an OS interface helps users by:

a)

Showing the computer’s code directly

b)

Representing files and folders visually like real objects

c)

Reducing available features

d)

Limiting user control

25.

How does a mobile OS interface improve UX compared to a desktop OS?

a)

By using smaller icons

b)

By optimizing for touch-based input and simpler navigation

c)

By limiting applications

d)

By removing background processes

26.

Which interface type is most likely used in an ATM machine?

a)

Command-line interface

b)

Graphical user interface

c)

Natural language interface

d)

Gesture-based interface

27.

Why are icons and menus used in a UI?

a)

To confuse users

b)

To reduce CPU usage

28.

What is the main goal of UI design?

a)

To make systems more technical

b)

To make the system easy and efficient for users to interact with

c)

To restrict system access

d)

To reduce processing power

29.

Which of the following improves UX in an application?

a)

Long loading times

b)

Consistent layout and clear navigation

c)

Hidden buttons and features

d)

Complicated command inputs

30.

How do operating systems with GUI hide complex system operations?

a)

By displaying friendly visuals instead of code

b)

By disabling system functions

c)

By hiding files from users completely

d)

By preventing multitasking

31.

What type of interface uses human speech to control a computer system?

a)

Form-based interface

b)

Voice user interface (VUI)

c)

Command-line interface

d)

Graphical user interface

32.

What happens if a UI is poorly designed?

a)

Users find it easy to use the system

b)

The OS performs faster

c)

Users get frustrated and may make more errors

d)

The UX improves

33.

How do UI and UX together improve productivity?

a)

By making tasks easier and faster to perform

b)

By increasing the number of system steps

c)

By adding more background processes

d)

By reducing system compatibility

34.

Why is hiding the OS complexity important for most users?

a)

Because users prefer working directly with system code

b)

Because it makes computers more expensive

c)

Because it allows users to perform tasks without understanding technical details

d)

Because it hides important files permanently

35.

Which of the following is a primary function of an operating system?

a)

Creating software applications

b)

Managing hardware and software resources

c)

Designing user interfaces

d)

Protecting data from hackers

36.

How does an operating system help in running applications on a computer?

a)

By allowing the user to install antivirus software

b)

By creating system backups regularly

c)

By providing a platform for applications to run and managing resources like memory and CPU

d)

By ensuring software is updated automatically

37.

Which of the following tasks is not managed by an operating system?

a)

Running multiple applications simultaneously

b)

Translating high-level programming code into machine language

c)

Allocating memory to different processes

d)

Managing input and output devices

38.

How does an operating system manage memory allocation?

a)

It allows each application to reserve a fixed amount of memory permanently

b)

It allocates memory dynamically to processes and applications based on their needs

c)

It clears the entire memory after every task

d)

It prevents memory leaks by shutting down all programs after a fixed time

39.

Desktop operating systems like Windows and macOS are designed primarily for:

a)

Mobile phones and tablets

b)

Personal computers and laptops

c)

Home automation systems

d)

Embedded devices like microwaves

40.

Which type of operating system is specifically optimized for smartphones and tablets?

a)

Desktop operating system

b)

Mobile operating system

c)

Embedded operating system

d)

Mainframe operating system

41.

Why is security management an essential function of an operating system?

a)

To monitor the CPU’s temperature

b)

To protect the system from unauthorized access and malware

c)

To prevent memory overload

d)

To optimize internet speed

42.

How does an operating system ensure multitasking does not overload the system?

a)

By creating virtual memory for additional storage

b)

By dividing the CPU time into small slices and allocating these to active tasks

c)

By running only one application at a time

d)

By closing applications when memory is full

43.

Virtual memory in an operating system is used to:

a)

Encrypt sensitive data

b)

Provide additional memory by using a portion of the hard disk as if it were RAM

c)

Run applications in the background

d)

Monitor network traffic

44.

In the context of an operating system, what is a process?

a)

A sequence of tasks performed by a computer

b)

A set of instructions executed by the CPU

c)

An instance of a running program, including its current activity

d)

A hardware component that executes software

45.

Which of the following best describes the life cycle of a process?

a)

Creation, execution, and termination

b)

Initialization, execution, and backup

c)

Launch, execution, and closure

d)

Start, run, and finish

46.

During which stage of a process's life cycle is the process created?

a)

Running

b)

Waiting

c)

Ready

d)

New

47.

Which of the following states represents a process that is currently being executed by the CPU?

a)

Ready

b)

New

c)

Running

d)

Terminated

48.

What happens to a process when it is waiting?

a)

It is actively using the CPU

b)

It is ready to run but waiting for resources

c)

It has completed the execution

d)

It is temporarily suspended until an event occurs

49.

How does an operating system manage processes?

a)

By providing a graphical user interface

b)

By coordinating execution, allocating resources, and managing states

c)

By developing new applications

d)

By compressing files for storage

50.

What is one of the key tasks performed by the OS in process management?

a)

Developing new system software

b)

Managing CPU scheduling to determine which process to run next

c)

Installing hardware drivers

d)

Creating user accounts

51.

What is the primary role of an assembler in programming?

a)

To convert high-level programming code into machine code

b)

To translate assembly language code into machine code

52.

What is the primary function of an assembler?

a)

To execute programs line by line

b)

To translate assembly language code into machine code

c)

To execute programs line by line

d)

To optimize the performance of a program

53.

Which of the following statements best describes a compiler?

a)

It translates high-level programming languages directly to machine code.

b)

It converts machine code into assembly language.

c)

It executes code one line at a time.

d)

It is used exclusively for debugging.

54.

What is the main function of an interpreter?

a)

To compile code into a binary executable

b)

To translate high-level programming languages into machine code line by line

c)

To manage memory allocation for programs

d)

To optimize source code for performance

55.

Which of the following best describes how an assembler, compiler, and interpreter differ in execution?

a)

Assemblers and compilers execute code line by line, while interpreters compile the entire code at once.

b)

Interpreters execute code line by line, while compilers translate the entire code at once before execution.

c)

All three execute code simultaneously.

d)

Compilers and assemblers execute code in real time, while interpreters do not.

56.

Which of the following is not a key difference between a compiler and an interpreter?

a)

A) Compilers translate the entire code before execution, whereas interpreters translate code line by line.

b)

B) Compilers produce an intermediate machine code file, while interpreters do not.

c)

C) Interpreters typically result in faster execution than compilers.

d)

D) Compilers check for errors before execution, while interpreters may stop at the first error encountered.

57.

In which scenario would using an interpreter be more beneficial than using a compiler?

a)

When performance and speed are the main concerns

b)

When developing a small script that needs frequent testing and modification

c)

When creating large-scale applications that require optimization

d)

When building embedded systems with limited resources

58.

What is one advantage of using a compiler over an interpreter?

a)

Compilers provide immediate feedback on syntax errors.

b)

Compiled programs generally run faster since they are converted to machine code.

c)

Compilers require less memory to execute.

d)

Compilers can execute code on different platforms without changes.

59.

What is the primary benefit of using virtual memory in a computer system?

a)

It increases the physical memory available to applications.

b)

It allows multiple applications to run simultaneously without using physical RAM.

c)

It improves the speed of the processor.

d)

It enables direct access to the hard drive.

60.

How does virtual memory enhance system performance?

a)

By storing all applications on the hard drive permanently

b)

By allowing the system to swap inactive data from RAM to disk

c)

By eliminating the need for physical RAM

d)

By decreasing the number of running applications

61.

Which of the following statements best describes how virtual memory impacts system resources?

a)

It reduces the overall memory requirements of the system.

b)

It provides a way for applications to utilize more memory than what is physically available.

c)

It prevents memory fragmentation entirely.

d)

It ensures that all data is stored in RAM.

62.

What does SSL stand for?

a)

Secure Socket Layer

b)

Secure Software Link

63.

What does SSL stand for?

a)

Secure Socket Layer

b)

Secure System Layer

c)

Simple Secure Layer

d)

Secure System Lock

64.

What is the purpose of SSL and TLS?

a)

To increase internet speed

b)

To secure data transmission between two systems

c)

To provide data storage on the cloud

d)

To compress large files for faster transfer

65.

What does TLS stand for?

a)

Transport Link Security

b)

Transfer Layer System

c)

Transport Layer Security

d)

Trusted Layer Software

66.

How does SSL/TLS protect data?

a)

By encrypting data transmitted between devices

b)

By deleting unnecessary files

c)

By storing data in secure databases

d)

By compressing data for efficient storage

67.

Which of the following is a common use of SSL/TLS?

a)

Securing email servers

b)

Protecting file systems from corruption

c)

Encrypting data sent between a browser and a web server

d)

Backing up files in cloud storage

68.

What is the main difference between SSL and TLS?

4 lines
69.

How can you tell if a website is using SSL or TLS?

a)

The URL starts with http://

b)

The URL starts with https:// and displays a padlock icon in the browser

c)

The website loads without any delay

d)

The URL includes "secure" in the address

70.

Which protocol typically uses SSL/TLS for securing data?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

HTTPS

d)

POP3

71.

What type of encryption does SSL/TLS use to secure data?

a)

Symmetric encryption only

b)

Asymmetric encryption only

c)

Both symmetric and asymmetric encryption

d)

Hash-based encryption

72.

Why is TLS preferred over SSL in modern systems?

a)

It is easier to configure

b)

It uses less bandwidth

c)

It provides stronger encryption algorithms and security features

d)

It does not require certificates for verification

73.

What is a digital certificate?

a)

A hardware device that stores encryption keys

b)

A document that certifies the identity of a website or user

c)

A software program used for encrypting emails

d)

A certificate awarded for completing an online security course

74.

Which organization is responsible for issuing digital certificates?

a)

Certificate Authority (CA)

b)

Internet Service Provider (ISP)

c)

Domain Name System (DNS)

d)

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

75.

What is the primary purpose of a digital certificate?

a)

To encrypt all internet data

b)

To authenticate the identity of websites or users and enable secure communication

c)

To block unauthorized access to files

d)

To compress data for faster transmission

76.

What information is typically included in a digital certificate?

a)

The user's password and encryption key

b)

The public key, the certificate owner's information, and the issuing authority

c)

The IP address and browsing history of the user

d)

The server location and software version

77.

Which protocol commonly relies on digital certificates for secure communication?

a)

HTTP

b)

HTTPS

78.

How does a digital certificate ensure secure communication?

a)

By generating random encryption keys for each session

b)

By providing a public key that encrypts data, which can only be decrypted by the matching private key

c)

By preventing data compression during transmission

d)

By disabling all unauthorized access

79.

What is the role of a Certificate Authority (CA) in digital certificates?

a)

To store all encryption keys securely

b)

To verify the identity of the certificate requestor and issue the certificate

c)

To block access to unsecured websites

d)

To manage encryption and decryption processes

80.

What is the significance of the expiration date in a digital certificate?

a)

It ensures the certificate is updated regularly for enhanced security

b)

It determines how often the certificate can be used

c)

It limits the lifetime of the certificate to maintain trustworthiness

d)

It indicates when the certificate’s encryption strength will weaken

81.

Which of the following best describes how a digital certificate is verified?

a)

The certificate is compared to a global database of trusted certificates

b)

The browser checks the certificate against the CA's root certificates stored in its trusted certificate store

c)

The user manually enters the certificate details for verification

d)

The certificate is tested by encrypting and decrypting random data

82.

Which type of encryption is typically associated with digital certificates?

a)

Symmetric encryption

b)

Asymmetric encryption

c)

Hash-based encryption

d)

Biometric encryption

83.

What is the main purpose of encryption?

a)

To make files larger

b)

To hide data so only authorised people can read it

c)

To speed up network communication

d)

To delete sensitive information

84.

Symmetric encryption uses:

a)

One key shared for both encryption and decryption

b)

Two different keys

c)

No keys

d)

Only public keys

85.

Asymmetric encryption uses:

a)

One shared key

b)

A private key only

c)

A public key and a private key pair

d)

A password instead of keys

86.

What is a public key in asymmetric encryption used for?

a)

Decrypting private messages

b)

Encrypting data sent to the key owner

c)

Generating passwords

d)

Storing backups

87.

What is the main disadvantage of asymmetric encryption compared to symmetric?

a)

It is less secure

b)

It is slower

c)

It uses no keys

d)

It cannot be used online

88.

What is a digital certificate used for?

a)

To check data speed

b)

To prove the identity of websites and enable secure connections

c)

To store passwords

d)

To block advertisements

89.

HTTPS uses which combination of technologies?

a)

Only symmetric encryption

b)

Only asymmetric encryption

c)

Both asymmetric (for key exchange) and symmetric (for actual data)

d)

No encryption

90.

A firewall does which of the following?

a)

Blocks unauthorized access to a network

b)

Increases internet speed

c)

Stores user passwords

d)

Monitors computer temperature

91.

Which of the following best describes a firewall?

a)

Physically blocks people from entering a room

b)

Filters and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic

c)

Increases internet speed

d)

Stores backup information

92.

Which of the following best describes phishing?

a)

Creating new user accounts

b)

Tricking people into giving personal information through fake emails or websites

c)

Encrypting all company files

d)

Blocking network traffic

93.

What is the main purpose of using a protocol stack like TCP/IP?

a)

To make computers look better

b)

To organize communication into layers with specific roles

c)

To increase the size of the network

d)

To remove the need for routers

94.

How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

7

95.

Which of the following is the correct order of the TCP/IP layers (top to bottom)?

a)

Transport → Application → Internet → Network Access (Link)

b)

Application → Transport → Internet → Network Access (Link)

c)

Network Access (Link) → Internet → Transport → Application

96.

Which layer is responsible for routing data between networks?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network Access (Link)

97.

Which protocol works in the Transport layer?

a)

HTTP

b)

TCP

c)

IP

d)

Ethernet

98.

The Application layer includes which of the following protocols?

a)

TCP and UDP

b)

IP and ICMP

c)

HTTP and FTP

d)

Ethernet and Wi-Fi

99.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model deals with physical addressing (MAC addresses)?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network Access (Link)

100.

IP (Internet Protocol) belongs to which layer?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network Access (Link)