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Performance Management Final Exams

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes an organization’s vision?

a)

It guides daily operations and clarifies who is served

b)

It is the actionable plan connecting mission and vision

c)

It prioritizes initiatives and allocates key resources

d)

It describes the long-term aspiration and future state

2.

A company wants to answer “How will we get there?” Which term should it focus on?

a)

Strategy, outlining an actionable plan to progress

b)

Mission, defining core purpose and existence

c)

Vision, inspiring stakeholders around a goal

d)

Values, listing cultural norms and behaviors

3.

Which is a primary benefit of performance management?

a)

It increases marketing spend without planning

b)

It aligns individual efforts with company goals

c)

It replaces the need for succession planning

d)

It eliminates all training requirements entirely

4.

Which mechanism in Goal Theory explains why challenging goals increase the use of a person’s full skill set?

a)

They narrow attention to priorities

b)

They enable easier task completion

c)

They stimulate sustained effort

d)

They challenge knowledge and skills

5.

A team receives weekly feedback comparing actual behavior to expected standards and adjusts actions accordingly. Which theory best describes this approach?

a)

Expectancy Theory of motivation

b)

Social Cognitive Theory of modeling

c)

Control Theory with feedback loops

d)

Goal Theory by Latham and Locke

6.

An employee doubts their ability to master a new tool, and performance declines. Strengthening which concept would most likely improve outcomes?

a)

Task difficulty alignment

b)

Managerial oversight intensity

c)

Self-efficacy belief

d)

External performance rewards

7.

A manager wants goals that both direct attention and raise effort. Which goal characteristic will most likely produce these effects?

a)

Broad and easy objectives

b)

Specific and challenging goals

c)

Short-term and minimal aims

d)

Flexible and vague targets

8.

Which statement best captures Reinforcement Theory in performance management?

a)

Motivation rises when outcomes are seen as personally valuable

b)

Intrinsic satisfaction reduces the need for external rewards

c)

Successes followed by rewards increase repeated behavior

d)

People attribute results mainly to task difficulty and luck

9.

Expectancy Theory suggests motivation increases when which condition is met?

a)

Effort clearly links to outcomes valued by the individual

b)

Role models demonstrate consistent high productivity

c)

Rewards are always financial and externally controlled

d)

Past performance guarantees future promotion opportunities

10.

Self-efficacy Theory emphasizes which combined influence on future behavior?

a)

Reinforcement principles and expectations about goals

b)

Task difficulty overshadowing individual effort

c)

Circumstances and luck shaping performance outcomes

d)

Intrinsic interests replacing extrinsic motivators

11.

Attribution Theory focuses on how people explain performance using which set of factors?

a)

Training, technology, leadership, culture, strategy

b)

Rewards, role models, expectations, reinforcement, goals

c)

Autonomy, mastery, purpose, feedback, pay

d)

Ability, effort, task difficulty, circumstances, luck

12.

Role modelling motivates employees primarily through what mechanism?

a)

Detailed procedures eliminating individual discretion

b)

Inspiration from someone’s effective approach and results

c)

Guaranteed bonuses tied to meeting fixed targets

d)

Formal policies requiring imitation of senior staff

13.

Which factor primarily concerns competence, motivation, support, and incentives for effective performance?

a)

Manager influence through modeling and coaching

b)

Colleague influence on team attitude effects

c)

Learner influence on personal capability needs

d)

Organizational influence via structures and systems

14.

A team member’s negative attitude spreads and reduces another employee’s effort. Which influence is most directly at play, and what is the best strategic response?

a)

Organizational influence; redesign hierarchy and policies

b)

Learner influence; increase individual technical training

c)

Manager influence; change formal appraisal ratings

d)

Colleague influence; adjust peer norms and feedback

15.

Which statement best captures the purpose of Management by Objectives (MBO) as described by John Humble?

a)

Aligns profit goals with managers’ personal development

b)

Enforces rigid targets regardless of team contribution

c)

Focuses solely on tactical tasks within departments

d)

Replaces performance reviews with informal check-ins

16.

In the MBO cycle diagram, what is the correct sequence from planning to individual action?

a)

Unit objectives → Strategic plan → Individual managers’ plans → Review and control

b)

Tactical plans → Strategic plan → Review and control → Management development

c)

Strategic plan → Tactical plans → Unit objectives → Individual managers’ plans

d)

Management development → Strategic plan → Review and control → Tactical plans

17.

A manager consistently misses agreed key results due to unclear performance standards. What is the most appropriate MBO action to address this?

a)

Replace strategic planning with ad‑hoc task lists

b)

Skip reviews to avoid discouraging the manager

c)

Increase pay immediately to strengthen motivation

d)

Clarify performance standards and secure the manager’s commitment

18.

Which statement best distinguishes Performance Management from Performance Appraisal in terms of timing?

a)

Conducted annually with fixed cycles

b)

All year round with ongoing process

c)

Quarterly with mid-year reviews

d)

Biannual with scheduled checkpoints

19.

Which characteristic aligns most closely with Management by Objectives?

a)

Owned by HR for all staff

b)

Forward looking joint process

c)

Emphasis on quantified performance measures

d)

Ratings used to determine merit

20.

Which formula models performance as a multiplicative function of ability and motivation?

a)

Performance equals motivation divided by ability

b)

Performance equals ability times motivation

c)

Performance equals motivation minus ability

d)

Performance equals ability plus motivation

21.

A team has high ability but near-zero motivation. What outcome best fits the multiplicative view of performance?

a)

Effectively no meaningful performance

b)

Moderately improved overall performance

c)

Substantially increased overall performance

d)

Slightly reduced overall performance

22.

Which set of elements is emphasized in the AMO framework for performance?

a)

Culture, Technology, People

b)

Structure, Size, External environment

c)

Ability, Effort, Organizational support

d)

Ability, Motivation, Opportunity to participate

23.

In the framework diagram, which activity directly focuses on identifying Key Result Areas (KRAs), KPIs, performance targets, and competencies?

a)

Performance goal setting and role alignment

b)

Developing capacity through learning interventions

c)

Evaluating performance using scorecards and incidents

d)

Monitoring performance metrics and timely feedback

24.

A team notices lagging results mid-quarter. Based on the stages diagram, which step should they prioritize next to address gaps before formal rating?

a)

Rating and rewarding recognized achievements

b)

Planning with success metrics refinement

c)

Monitoring with active tracking and feedback

d)

Developing to address poor performance

25.

In the sequence diagram, which ordered pair best represents the flow immediately after performance and development planning?

a)

Action work, development and support → Rating

b)

Performance and development agreement → Action work

c)

Managing performance with continuous monitoring → Competency requirements

d)

Formal review, feedback and assessment → Financial reward

26.

Which step comes first in a comprehensive performance management process?

a)

Link organizational goals to mission and strategy

b)

Regularly assess unit and individual performance

c)

Reward achievement after goals are met

d)

Measure progress on goal achievement

27.

A team notices stalled progress mid-quarter. Which action best addresses this situation within the process?

a)

Reward goal achievement with bonuses

b)

Regularly give feedback to improve performance

c)

Identify sub-goals for departments and workgroups

d)

Link goals to mission and long-term strategy

28.

Which stage in the performance management cycle primarily includes goal setting, performance agreements, feedback, assessment, and coaching?

a)

Analysis and diagnosis stage

b)

Implementation and briefing stage

c)

Design and planning stage

d)

Evaluation and survey stage

29.

A manager notices uneven performance during the year. Which action aligns best with the key elements chain that emphasizes ongoing improvement rather than waiting for annual reviews?

a)

Rely on the performance appraisal process

b)

Start a new performance management policy

c)

Initiate reward and recognition immediately

d)

Provide continuous feedback and monitor progress

30.

What are the best practices for linking performance to rewards and recognition?

a)

Set clear goals

b)

Ensure equity and fairness

c)

Use transparent metrics

d)

Create bias

e)

Offer similar benefits for all employees regardless of performance

31.

Why is it important to link performance with rewards and recognition?

a)

To improve retention

b)

To promote fairness

c)

To divide the team

d)

To drive motivation

e)

To foster selfish culture

32.

What are the methods the company can use to identify high potential, high performing employee?

a)

Performance reviews

b)

360-degree feedback

c)

9-box talent grid

d)

Play darts

e)

Emails

33.

What are the key traits of high performing, high potential employees?

a)

Short tempered

b)

Learning agility

c)

Emotional intelligence

d)

Resilience

e)

Negative mindset

34.

Kay is working at Z Company for 3 years with consistent exemplary performance. John was assigned as the new Manager of Kay. For Y2025, Kay was rated unsatisfactory by John because of initiative and drive by Kay in the performance of her tasks and ensuring the team's success is achieve. John doesn't want anybody to excel in the team but him. Hence, he rated Kay with unsatisfactory. Kay resigned because she cannot accept the rating given by John.What is/are the impact of John's action?

a)

John is correct in rating Kay unsatisfactory because he is the leader and he should be the one who is the only person knowledgable in the team.

b)

John is unfair in his rating because a leader should recognize exemplary work of subordinates working for the team's success

c)

John's action may be construed as constructive dismissal forcing Kay to resign because of the unfair treatment of John

d)

John should be rewarded for ensuring employees know where they stand in the organization

e)

Kay may file a case in DOLE and claim for moral and/or exemplary damage/s

35.

It supports ongoing professional growth and career development

(a)  

36.

It addresses and rectifies specific performance issues

(a)  

37.

What are the modern methods of performance appraisal?

a)

Management by objectives

b)

Behaviorally-anchored rating scale

c)

360-degree feedback

d)

720-degree feedback

e)

Manager's rating only

38.

It is the method used to evaluate and compare employee performance relative to peers, often by placing individuals into categories or ranks based on predefined criteria.

(a)  

39.

Type of performance ranking where the employees are rated on a percentile scale based on performance distribution

(a)  

40.

Type of performance raking method where the employees are ranked from to to bottom, often into fixed percentages

(a)  

41.

Type of performance rating method where evaluators mark presence/absence of behavior or traits

(a)  

42.

Type of performance rating method where it uses terms like "meets expectations" or "needs improvement"

(a)  

43.

Type pf performance rating method where employees are assessed of performance against defined competencies

(a)  

44.

(a)   performance cycle type is best for long term goals and strategic planning

45.

(a)   Performance cycle type is best for agile teams and evolving priorities

46.

(a)   is the structured review where a manager assesses an employe's achievements, competencies, behaviors and overall contribution to the company

47.

(a)   focuses on improving the present and future performance of the team

48.

(a)   involves tracking and evaluating employee activities, behaviors and outcomes to ensure they meet expectations and contribute to organizational goals

49.

(a)   is a type of performance feedback that reinforces good behavior and achievements

50.

(a)   is a type of feedback that gathers inputs from peers, managers and customers

51.

Performance management method that establishes clear, measurable objectives aligned with company strategy

(a)  

52.

Performance management method wherein employees reflect on their own performance and development needs

(a)  

53.

Performance management method wherein team members evaluate each other's contributions and collaboration

(a)  

54.

Performance management method which aligns individual goals with organizational objectives through collaboration

(a)  

55.

Performance management method which is best for organizational-level tracking

(a)  

56.

What does "T" means in SMARTER when creating the performance plan?

(a)  

57.

What does "S" means in SMARTER when creating the performance plan?

(a)  

58.

What does "A" mean in SMARTER when creating the performance plan?

(a)  

59.

In Balanced Scorecard, which perspective focuses in maximizing shareholder and financial value?

(a)  

60.

In Balanced Scorecard, which perspective focuses on optimizing operational efficiency and quality?

(a)  

61.

In Balanced Scorecard, which perspective focuses on innovation and employee development?

(a)  

62.

What are the KPIs in Clients perspective in balanced scorecard?

a)

Return on investment (ROI)

b)

Employee turnover rate

c)

Employee engagement score

d)

Training hours per employee

63.

What are the KPIs in Finance perspective in balanced scorecard?

a)

Customer satisfaction score

b)

Return on investment (ROI)

c)

Revenue growth rate

d)

Operating income

e)

Net promoter score (NPS)

64.

What are the KPIs in Clients perspective in balanced scorecard?

a)

Return on investment (ROI)

b)

Customer satisfaction score

c)

Net promoter Score (NPS)

d)

Market share

e)

Quality control measures

65.

What are the KPIs in Internal perspective in balanced scorecard?

a)

Process efficiency improvements

b)

Inventory turnover

c)

Quality control measures

d)

Cash flow

e)

Net profit margin

66.

It's a performance management theory wherein the focus is on the attention on feedback as a means of shaping behaviour

(a)  

67.

It's a performance management theory wherein the motivation is only likely when a clearly perceived and usable relationships exists between performance and outcomes and the outcome is seen as a means of satisfying needs

(a)  

68.

What is the acceptable threshold of employee attrition rate, in general?

a)

10-15%

b)

15-20%

c)

20-25%

d)

25-30%

69.

What is one goal of an employee after he has rendered exemplary performance in the company at the end of the year?

(a)  

70.

For Y2025, Anna was rated unsatisfactory because of poor performance for the entire year. What are the alternative measures the leader can take to have the performance of Anna on-track for Y2026?

a)

Conduct coaching session

b)

Enrol to performance improvement plan

c)

Issue disciplinary action, Notice to Explain for proor performance

d)

Give reward

e)

Recognize the employee during townhall meeting

71.

What would you do if a key client was extremely dissatisfied with a product or service you were responsible for, and how would you try to turn the situation around?

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72.

Suppose you're juggling multiple urgent deadlines and an executive gives you a high-priority task that conflicts with an existing commitment. How would you prioritize your tasks and communicate the situation?

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73.

How would you motivate a team that is resistant to recent changes in company procedures or experiencing low morale?

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74.

If an important project goal changed after significant progress had been made, how would you manage the necessary rework and adaptation?

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75.

Suppose you're juggling multiple urgent deadlines, all seemingly high-priority. How would you prioritize your tasks and communicate your plan?

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76.

Suppose you were asked to take on a project completely outside your area of expertise. How would you approach this situation and what steps would you take to ensure success?

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77.

Create your performance improvement plan with 3 identified areas of concern, 3 goals and 3 identified desired outcomes. Remember the SMART way of performance planning and be honest in the identification of areas of improvement, goals and desired outcomes.

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