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301 SAFETY 2025 FEG COLLEGE

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best defines a hazard?

a)

A situation with zero chance of harm

b)

A source with potential to cause harm

c)

The outcome after an accident occurs

d)

A rule that prevents all injuries

2.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between hazard and risk?

a)

Hazard is the potential for harm; risk is the likelihood and severity of that harm

b)

Hazard and risk mean exactly the same thing in safety

c)

Risk creates hazards in every situation

d)

Risk exists only when injuries have already happened

3.

Which of the following is considered an incident?

a)

A planned training exercise

b)

An unplanned event that results in or could have resulted in harm

c)

A routine equipment check

d)

A scheduled maintenance task

4.

A slippery floor is an example of a:

a)

Control measure

b)

Hazard

c)

Safe condition

d)

Risk assessment outcome

5.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Risk is the likelihood and severity of harm arising from a hazard

b)

Hazards are always eliminated by signage alone

c)

Personal protective equipment removes the hazard entirely

d)

Incidents are always caused by careless workers

6.

Which of the following is both a hazard and a risk?

a)

An unguarded rotating blade being used by untrained staff

b)

A well-guarded machine with a permit to work

c)

A clean, dry floor with warning signs posted

d)

A tool locked out and tagged out correctly

7.

Who is responsible for identifying hazards in the workplace?

a)

Only managers and supervisors

b)

Only the health and safety officer

c)

Every person in the workplace

d)

External inspectors only

8.

What does the risk assessment tell you?

a)

Who to blame after an incident

b)

The hazards, the level of risk, and the controls required

c)

Only the number of workers on shift

d)

That all work must stop until new rules are written

9.

Which control measure best reduces risk from a hazard?

a)

Elimination of the hazard if feasible

b)

Adding extra warning signs only

c)

Relying on experience instead of controls

d)

Keeping records without action

10.

Which of the following is a preventive action?

a)

Writing a report after an injury

b)

Installing guarding to isolate moving parts

c)

Waiting for a near miss before acting

d)

Ignoring low-probability hazards

11.

If manual handling cannot be avoided, what is the next step under MHOR?

a)

Proceed as usual without changes

b)

Conduct a suitable and sufficient risk assessment

c)

Delegate the task to the newest worker

d)

Wear any available PPE and continue

12.

Which of the following is a key risk factor for manual handling?

a)

Light, stable loads kept close to the body

b)

Awkward posture and twisting while lifting

c)

Use of mechanical aids for heavy loads

d)

Team lifts with clear communication

13.

What does TILE stand for in manual handling?

a)

Task, Individual, Load, Environment

b)

Time, Intensity, Leverage, Ergonomics

c)

Tool, Inspection, Lift, Equipment

d)

Transport, Information, Location, Efficiency

14.

How can teamwork help in manual handling?

a)

It increases individual strain by sharing the load unevenly

b)

It allows loads to be shared and movements coordinated

c)

It removes the need for planning and communication

d)

It eliminates all hazards without controls

15.

What is the best way to assess a new manual handling task?

a)

Rely on previous experience only

b)

Carry out a TILE-based assessment before the lift

c)

Start the lift and adjust technique mid-task

d)

Ask someone else to lift without assessment

16.

Which of the following is the most common injury associated with poor manual handling?

a)

Back strain or musculoskeletal injury

b)

Facial laceration

c)

Hearing loss

d)

Thermal burns

17.

A good handling technique for lifting is

a)

Twist at the waist while lifting quickly

b)

Keep the load close, maintain a neutral spine, and use the legs

c)

Hold the load at arm’s length for balance

d)

Lift with a rounded back to engage more muscles

18.

The correct position for starting a manual lift is

a)

Feet together with knees locked

b)

One foot forward, load close to the body, knees slightly bent

c)

Back arched and arms fully extended

d)

Torso twisted toward the destination

19.

Which of the following is a manual handling hazard?

a)

A small, well-packaged item under 1 kg

b)

A large, unstable load that is hard to grasp

c)

A labeled box with built-in handles

d)

A trolley used on a smooth surface

20.

Which document should record findings of a manual handling risk assessment?

a)

An informal verbal briefing

b)

A completed risk assessment record specific to the task

c)

A generic toolbox talk from last year

d)

A visitor sign-in sheet

21.

PUWER applies to which of the following?

a)

Only equipment used at home

b)

All work equipment used by employees and the self-employed at work

c)

Only new machinery purchased after 2010

d)

Only electrically powered equipment

22.

PUWER inspections should be carried out by:

a)

Any available worker regardless of experience

b)

A competent person with appropriate knowledge and training

c)

Only senior management

d)

A visiting client

23.

Emergency stop devices must be:

a)

Hidden to prevent tampering

b)

Clearly identifiable, readily accessible, and functional

c)

Locked out at all times

d)

Used as the normal means of stopping equipment

24.

PUWER requires that maintenance tasks are carried out:

a)

Only when convenient for production

b)

By competent persons following a safe system of work

c)

By any worker willing to try

d)

Without documentation to save time

25.

What should be done if equipment is found unsafe during inspection?

a)

Continue using it carefully until a spare is available

b)

Tag it and take it out of service until repaired or replaced

c)

Assign it to a more experienced worker

d)

Increase production speed to finish sooner

26.

Why should defective equipment be labeled?

a)

To meet marketing requirements

b)

To warn others and prevent use until the defect is corrected

c)

To reduce the cost of replacement

d)

To speed up routine operations

27.

Legislation relating to the safe use of abrasive wheels can be found in

a)

Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998 (PUWER)

b)

Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations 1992

c)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations 2002

d)

Working Time Regulations 1998

28.

What is one example of suitable PPE under PUWER?

a)

Safety goggles to protect eyes from flying particles

b)

Flip-flops to keep feet cool on hot days

c)

Loose scarves to cover the neck while grinding

d)

Fingerless gloves for better tactile feedback

29.

To operate a powered hand tool, you must be

a)

Unsupervised but inexperienced

b)

Trained, competent, and authorized for the specific tool

c)

Willing to learn while using it on live work

d)

Only familiar with the on/off switch

30.

It is dangerous to run an abrasive wheel faster than its recommended top speed. Why?

a)

It reduces friction and causes smoother cuts

b)

It can cause the wheel to burst due to excessive centrifugal force

c)

It makes the machine more energy efficient

d)

It lengthens the wheel’s service life

31.

RIDDOR applies to which sectors?

a)

Only construction sites

b)

Only manufacturing plants

c)

All work activities and industries, including the self‑employed

d)

Only the public sector

32.

What is a reportable occupational disease under RIDDOR?

a)

Any minor illness such as a cold or flu

b)

A condition specified in RIDDOR that is diagnosed by a doctor and linked to work

c)

Any injury requiring first aid only

d)

Any off‑the‑job illness reported by a worker

33.

If a self‑employed person is injured on another’s premises, who reports it under RIDDOR?

a)

The injured self‑employed person

b)

The person in control of the premises

c)

The enforcing authority

d)

No one; it is not reportable

34.

A lifting machine fails during a lift but no one is injured. Is this reportable under RIDDOR?

a)

Yes, as a dangerous occurrence

b)

No, only if someone is injured

c)

Only if equipment damage exceeds a set cost

d)

Record internally but do not report

35.

How does RIDDOR help improve safety?

a)

By increasing production targets

b)

By requiring reporting so trends can be identified and preventive action taken

c)

By replacing risk assessments

d)

By allowing incidents to be hidden from regulators

36.

An accident report will contain:

a)

Who was involved, what happened, when, where and how

b)

Only the cost of damages

c)

Only the supervisor’s opinion

d)

Names of bystanders only

37.

A permit‑to‑work system is used to ensure:

a)

All routine tasks are recorded for payroll

b)

High‑risk work is formally authorised and controlled with specific precautions

c)

Workers can start tasks more quickly

d)

Only managers perform the work

38.

The reporting of dangerous occurrences is a requirement of:

a)

COSHH

b)

LOLER

c)

RIDDOR

d)

PUWER

39.

If an employee becomes injured or ill at work they should immediately:

a)

Go home without telling anyone

b)

Inform their supervisor and seek first aid/record in the accident book

c)

Keep working until the end of the shift

d)

Call the media

40.

A scaffold guard‑rail must be removed to allow you to carry out a survey. You are not a scaffolder. Can you remove it?

a)

Yes, if you replace it afterwards

b)

Yes, if you are careful and wear PPE

c)

No, only a competent scaffolder may alter scaffolding

d)

Yes, if a colleague watches

41.

How many tiers of COMAH sites exist?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

42.

What differentiates an Upper Tier COMAH site from a Lower Tier site?

a)

Number of employees

b)

Amount and type of dangerous substances relative to threshold quantities

c)

Age of the facility

d)

Proximity to a main road

43.

What is required from all COMAH sites, regardless of tier?

a)

Submission of a Safety Report

b)

An off‑site emergency plan prepared by the authority

c)

A Major Accident Prevention Policy (MAPP)

d)

Daily inspections by regulators

44.

How often must COMAH Safety Reports be reviewed?

a)

Annually

b)

Every three years

c)

At least every five years or after significant change

d)

Only after an incident occurs

45.

Which of the following is a Lower Tier COMAH site requirement?

a)

Submit a full Safety Report to the Competent Authority

b)

Prepare and implement a Major Accident Prevention Policy (MAPP)

c)

Arrange an off‑site emergency plan with the authority

d)

Conduct quarterly public drills

46.

COMAH applies to which types of industries?

a)

Only offices and retail

b)

Any establishment holding dangerous substances above set thresholds

c)

Only small workshops

d)

Only public utilities

47.

What kind of accidents must be notified under COMAH?

a)

Any first‑aid case

b)

Major accidents involving dangerous substances with serious injury, environmental harm or significant damage

c)

Only near‑misses

d)

Only vehicle collisions on public roads

48.

When you walk across the site, what is the best way to avoid an accident with mobile plant?

a)

Wear bright clothing and assume drivers see you

b)

Use designated pedestrian walkways and make eye contact at crossings

c)

Walk close to moving vehicles to pass quickly

d)

Listen for horns rather than looking

49.

A ladder should not be painted because:

a)

It makes it heavier

b)

It can hide defects and damage

c)

It reduces the ladder’s grip

d)

It is prohibited only on metal ladders

50.

Which is the most effective method of reducing contamination to workers?

a)

Rely on warning signs

b)

Provide only disposable gloves

c)

Eliminate or substitute the hazardous substance/process

d)

Ask workers to wash hands more often

51.

What does LOLER stand for?

a)

Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations

b)

Local Operating and Loading Equipment Rules

c)

Load Operations and Lashing Equipment Requirements

d)

Lifting Oversight and Logistics Equipment Regulations

52.

Under LOLER, lifting equipment must be:

a)

Used only outdoors

b)

Suitable, strong and stable, properly maintained and marked with its SWL

c)

Operated by anyone with a driving licence

d)

Tested only when new

53.

Who must carry out LOLER thorough examinations?

a)

Any employee

b)

A competent person

c)

The equipment supplier only

d)

The site safety representative

54.

Before starting a lifting operation, what must be in place?

a)

A detailed plan and risk assessment by a competent person

b)

A verbal instruction from any worker

c)

An equipment receipt

d)

A weather report only

55.

What should be marked on lifting equipment?

a)

The date of purchase

b)

The Safe Working Load (SWL)

c)

The operator’s name

d)

The last job performed

56.

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL)?

a)

The heaviest load the equipment has ever lifted

b)

The maximum load the equipment may safely lift under specified conditions

c)

Half the equipment’s test load

d)

A recommended but non‑mandatory value

57.

When is a lifting operation considered complex?

a)

When it is done indoors

b)

When it requires detailed planning, unusual methods or multiple lifts with higher risk

c)

When using new equipment only

d)

When lifting less than the SWL

58.

Under LOLER, what should happen to defective equipment?

a)

Continue using it with extra care

b)

Mark it with a red tag but keep in service

c)

Remove it from use until repaired and declared safe by a competent person

d)

Use it only for light duties

59.

If lifting people, what must be used?

a)

Any available lifting accessory

b)

Equipment specifically designed and certified for lifting persons

c)

Forklift forks with a pallet

d)

A rope and pulley improvised on site

60.

Which of the following is most important during lifting operations?

a)

Completing the task quickly

b)

Effective communication and supervision with clear signals and exclusion zones

c)

Allowing all workers to stand nearby for visibility

d)

Letting the operator work without guidance

61.

Which of the following substances is NOT covered by COSHH?

a)

Solvents

b)

Biological agents

c)

Asbestos

d)

Wood dust

62.

What does WEL stand for in COSHH?

a)

Worker Environmental Level

b)

Workplace Exposure Limit

c)

Worksite Emission Level

d)

Warning Exposure Level

63.

Which of the following is an engineering control under COSHH?

a)

Local exhaust ventilation (LEV)

b)

Issuing gloves only

c)

Providing training only

d)

Warning signs at entrances

64.

Under COSHH, PPE should be used:

a)

As the first and only control

b)

Only to meet legal paperwork

c)

As a last resort or in addition to other controls when risks remain

d)

Only when employees request it

65.

If a COSHH label is missing on a container, what should you do?

a)

Use the substance if it looks familiar

b)

Smell it to identify before use

c)

Do not use it; quarantine until correctly identified and labelled with safety information

d)

Pour it away to avoid risk

66.

Which is the best way to eliminate a COSHH risk?

a)

Increase ventilation only

b)

Substitute the substance or process with a less hazardous alternative

c)

Rely on respirators only

d)

Reduce shift length

67.

What is the first step in the risk assessment process?

a)

Write a method statement

b)

Identify hazards

c)

Assign personal protective equipment

d)

Calculate costs

68.

First aid facilities are denoted by a:

a)

Red cross on a white background

b)

White cross on a green background

c)

Blue triangle

d)

Yellow star

69.

What are needed to be carried out at regular intervals to maintain a safe and healthy workplace?

a)

Annual financial audits

b)

Regular health and safety inspections of the workplace

c)

Daily production meetings

d)

Weekly celebrations

70.

The main purpose for having a visitor’s book in a workplace is to:

a)

Track lateness for payroll

b)

Record who is on site for security and emergency evacuation accountability

c)

Provide marketing contacts

d)

Replace induction training

71.

What type of personal protective equipment is commonly used in confined spaces?

a)

Earplugs

b)

Respiratory protective equipment (RPE) such as escape sets or breathing apparatus

c)

High‑visibility vests only

d)

Sun hats

72.

PPE must be:

a)

One‑size‑fits‑all and reusable by anyone

b)

Suitable for the risk and user, correctly fitted and properly maintained

c)

Chosen by lowest purchase price only

d)

Optional if workers are experienced

73.

What does CE marking on PPE indicate?

a)

It is made in Europe

b)

It meets the relevant legal safety standards and has been conformity assessed

c)

It is environmentally friendly

d)

It is suitable for all hazards without assessment

74.

PPE should be stored in:

a)

a clean, dry, well‑ventilated locker or cabinet

b)

an open shelf next to chemicals for easy access

c)

the floor of the workshop where it is visible

d)

the trunk of a vehicle exposed to direct sunlight

75.

Which types of Hand gloves are suitable for welding operations?

a)

leather gauntlet welding gloves

b)

thin latex disposable gloves

c)

lightweight cotton knit gloves

d)

plastic food‑handling gloves

76.

The main purpose of visors on hard hats, used when drilling, is to

a)

protect the face and eyes from flying debris

b)

improve ventilation to keep the head cool

c)

provide a mounting point for a headlamp

d)

amplify speech for better communication

77.

When passing metal conduit to a colleague who is working on a tower scaffold, correct PPE must include

a)

a hard hat with a secured chin strap

b)

open‑fingered gloves for dexterity

c)

soft shoes to avoid marking the platform

d)

ear defenders only

78.

It is important to provide valid information/data in a timely manner when dealing with

a)

incident reporting and investigation

b)

personal gossip and opinions

c)

lunch scheduling and breaks

d)

marketing slogans and branding

79.

The lower exposure action value for noise in the workplace is

a)

70 dB(A)

b)

80 dB(A)

c)

85 dB(A)

d)

90 dB(A)

80.

The second action level for noise in the workplace is

a)

75 dB(A)

b)

80 dB(A)

c)

85 dB(A)

d)

95 dB(A)

81.

What does DSEAR stand for?

a)

Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulations

b)

Design Safety and Equipment Approval Requirements

c)

Driver Safety and Emergency Action Rules

d)

Dust Suppression and Emissions Abatement Regulations

82.

Which of the following activities is likely to require DSEAR assessment?

a)

decanting a flammable solvent in a workshop

b)

filing paperwork in an office

c)

watering plants in reception

d)

using a photocopier

83.

What is one example of a DSEAR engineering control?

a)

using intrinsically safe or explosion‑protected electrical equipment

b)

placing warning posters near the workplace only

c)

asking workers to be careful around flammables

d)

scheduling work at a quieter time of day

84.

In the event of an electric shock an appropriate first step emergency action would be to

a)

isolate the power supply before touching the casualty and call for help

b)

pull the casualty away using your bare hands

c)

give the casualty a drink of water and wait

d)

begin CPR immediately without checking hazards

85.

What does the acronym "WEEE" stand for in environmental regulations?

a)

Waste Electrical and Electronic Equipment

b)

Water Emissions and Effluent Extraction

c)

Workplace Energy Efficiency Evaluation

d)

Waste and Environmental Emissions Enforcement

86.

What should be done after completing work in a confined space?

a)

cancel the permit‑to‑work, remove equipment, and secure the space

b)

leave equipment in place for convenience

c)

allow anyone to enter freely once work ends

d)

keep the permit active for future tasks

87.

Why might a confined space be oxygen‑enriched and dangerous?

a)

oxygen from leaking hoses can increase fire and explosion risk

b)

poor ventilation causes only carbon dioxide buildup, which is harmless

c)

high humidity reduces the risk of ignition

d)

noise echoing increases hearing protection needs only

88.

What is the first step before planning work in a confined space?

a)

carry out a risk assessment

b)

issue PPE and start immediately

c)

notify the media of the work

d)

wait for a complaint to be filed

89.

What is the purpose of a permit‑to‑work system in confined spaces?

a)

to formally control work by assessing hazards and confirming controls

b)

to replace training so work can proceed faster

c)

to document toolbox talks only

d)

to reduce paperwork unrelated to safety

90.

You are walking across the site. A large mobile crane reverses across your path. What should you do?

a)

stop, keep clear, and wait for the banksman/signaller to give safe passage

b)

walk quickly behind the crane to save time

c)

shout at the operator and continue walking

d)

tap the counterweight to alert the driver then pass by

91.

On the job injuries and illness cost money, time, and effort. What is the most practical way to manage these

a)

implement a health and safety management system with risk assessment and controls

b)

rely only on personal protective equipment

c)

ignore minor incidents to reduce paperwork

d)

work faster to reduce time on site

92.

Which type of accident kills most construction workers?

a)

falls from height

b)

electrocution

c)

slips and trips on the same level

d)

exposure to noise

93.

What functional area is typically responsible for functions related to design, construction, standards, and r

a)

engineering

b)

human resources

c)

marketing

d)

finance

94.

Who are the customers of the occupational safety function?

a)

all employees and management across the organization

b)

only the safety department staff

c)

external vendors only

d)

members of the public only

95.

What are the two main causes of incidents in the workplace?

a)

unsafe acts and unsafe conditions

b)

poor weather and bad luck

c)

long hours and shift patterns

d)

equipment cost and age

96.

Safety signs consisting of a blue circle with a white symbol are:

a)

mandatory signs

b)

prohibition signs

c)

warning signs

d)

safe condition signs

97.

Which of the following is not recommended to be kept in a first aid kit at work?

a)

pain relief tablets or other medications

b)

sterile dressings and bandages

c)

disposable gloves

d)

adhesive plasters

98.

If you discover a fire at work, what is the first thing you should do?

a)

raise the alarm and initiate evacuation

b)

try to extinguish the fire before telling anyone

c)

finish your current task then report it

d)

open windows to let smoke out

99.

Which of the following fire extinguishers are suitable to be used on electrical fires?

a)

carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguisher

b)

water extinguisher

c)

foam extinguisher

d)

wet chemical extinguisher

100.

What is the purpose of an emergency assembly point?

a)

a designated location to account for all personnel after evacuation

b)

a place to store tools during breaks

c)

a sheltered area for smoking during alarms

d)

a training zone for forklift operations