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Maternity Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Her urine output drops to 18 mL/hr. Priority action?

a)

Increase IV fluids

b)

Stop magnesium infusion

c)

Notify anesthesia

d)

Administer calcium gluconate

2.

A nurse suspects concealed abruption in a patient with minimal vaginal bleeding. Which finding supports this?

a)

Soft uterus

b)

Reassuring FHR

c)

Board-like abdomen

d)

Painless contractions

3.

A client at 37 weeks with gestational hypertension suddenly reports visual halos. Which complication is emerging?

a)

HELLP

b)

Cord prolapse

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Shoulder dystocia

4.

A patient on magnesium sulfate has DTRs 0 and respirations 10. What is the immediate priority?

a)

Bolus LR

b)

Prepare intubation

c)

Administer antidote

d)

Increase oxygen to 6 L

5.

A client with placenta previa begins heavy bleeding. What is the nurse’s FIRST action?

a)

Apply oxygen

b)

Perform Leopold’s

c)

Start large-bore IV

d)

Perform vaginal exam

6.

A newborn of a diabetic mother becomes cyanotic after feeding. Which complication is suspected?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hyperbilirubinemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Polycythemia

7.

A nurse notes late decelerations despite repositioning. What is the next action?

a)

Start amnioinfusion

b)

Stop Pitocin

c)

Insert Foley

d)

Give terbutaline

8.

Which postpartum finding suggests retained placental fragments?

a)

Boggy uterus

b)

Firm uterus with heavy bleeding

c)

Scant lochia

d)

Midline uterus

9.

A client at 34 weeks with preeclampsia has platelets 58,000. Which intervention is CONTRAINDICATED?

a)

Magnesium sulfate

b)

CBC monitoring

c)

Vaginal birth

d)

Epidural placement

10.

Fetal tachycardia with minimal variability most likely indicates:

a)

Maternal dehydration

b)

Fetal sleep cycle

c)

Maternal infection

d)

Cord compression

11.

A diabetic pregnant client has polyhydramnios. What is the fetus at highest risk for?

a)

Kidney agenesis

b)

GI obstruction

c)

SGA status

d)

Nuchal cord

12.

A client in active labor has sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What is suspected?

a)

Cord prolapse

b)

Uterine rupture

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Magnesium toxicity

13.

Priority assessment after artificially rupturing membranes:

a)

Maternal BP

b)

Fetal heart rate

c)

Contraction pattern

d)

Cervical dilation

14.

A client receives terbutaline. Which finding requires immediate reporting?

a)

HR 130

b)

FHR 160

c)

Blood glucose 92

d)

Lung crackles

15.

A laboring patient has persistent variable decelerations. What is the next action after repositioning?

a)

Check cervical dilation

b)

Discontinue Pitocin

c)

Increase oxytocin

d)

Assess for prolapsed cord

16.

A postpartum client with saturated pad in 10 minutes and cool, clammy skin requires which FIRST?

a)

Assess fundus

b)

Obtain blood type

c)

Apply O2

d)

Call provider

17.

A client with suspected uterine rupture may exhibit:

a)

Gradual pain

b)

Loss of fetal station

c)

Sudden hypertension

d)

Stronger contractions

18.

A patient with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium and becomes unresponsive. Vital signs stable. Next action?

a)

Increase O2

b)

Check magnesium level

c)

Assess for clonus

d)

Call rapid response

19.

A laboring patient with epidural suddenly develops profound hypotension. Priority?

a)

Administer terbutaline

b)

Increase IV bolus

c)

Raise HOB

d)

Start oxygen

20.

A newborn of diabetic mother with jitteriness and weak cry should receive:

a)

Warmth first

b)

Glucose check

c)

IV magnesium

d)

Formula after 2 hours

21.

Maternal O-negative, infant O-positive. When must Rhogam be administered?

a)

Immediately postpartum

b)

Only at 28 weeks

c)

At 20 weeks

d)

During labor

22.

Which fetal strip requires immediate delivery?

a)

Early decels

b)

Variable decels with moderate variability

c)

Sinusoidal pattern

d)

Mild tachycardia

23.

The presence of meconium in amniotic fluid with late decelerations indicates:

a)

Maternal dehydration

b)

Fetal compromise

c)

Normal variation

d)

Placenta previa

24.

A client has persistent right upper quadrant pain and increasing AST/ALT levels. This is consistent with:

a)

Previa

b)

Preterm labor

c)

HELLP

d)

PROM

25.

Which medication should NOT be used for PPH in a hypertensive client?

a)

Misoprostol

b)

Pitocin

c)

Carboprost

d)

Methergine

26.

Which labor position best improves fetal oxygenation?

a)

Supine

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Left lateral

d)

High Fowler’s

27.

Which newborn assessment suggests maternal magnesium exposure?

a)

Hypotonia

b)

Shrill cry

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Hyperreflexia

28.

A prolapsed cord is suspected when:

a)

Bradycardia occurs after ROM

b)

FHR accelerations increase

c)

Variable decels resolve

d)

Early decels begin

29.

Which action is PRIORITY when late decelerations appear?

a)

Increase fluids

b)

Begin amnioinfusion

c)

Turn patient to left

d)

Apply fundal pressure

30.

A client reports decreased fetal movement at 38 weeks. First action?

a)

Schedule induction

b)

Perform NST

c)

Assess fundal height

d)

Give juice

31.

A diabetic pregnant client has an A1C of 10%. The newborn is MOST at risk for:

a)

Microcephaly

b)

Cardiac defects

c)

Renal agenesis

d)

Neural tube defects

32.

The nurse notes an FHR baseline of 170 with minimal variability. Priority?

a)

Provide fluids

b)

Turn off Pitocin

c)

Administer terbutaline

d)

Prepare for birth

33.

A patient in transition phase begins hyperventilating. What should the nurse do?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Provide paper bag

c)

Check dilation

d)

Start oxygen

34.

A postpartum mother with firm uterus and bright red spurting blood requires evaluation for:

a)

Atony

b)

Lacerations

c)

Clots

d)

Uterine inversion

35.

A laboring client suddenly reports intense fetal movement loss. Priority?

a)

Check cervix

b)

Call rapid response

c)

Apply continuous FHR

d)

Check glucose

36.

A fetus at +3 station with variable decels requires:

a)

Vacuum delivery

b)

Amnioinfusion

c)

Vaginal exam

d)

Position change

37.

A nurse notes absent variability. Which is the PRIORITY assessment?

a)

Maternal temp

b)

Contraction strength

c)

Cervical dilation

d)

Fetal scalp stimulation

38.

MgSO4 should be discontinued if respirations fall below:

a)

16

b)

14

c)

12

d)

10

39.

A laboring client on Pitocin develops tetanic contractions. First action?

a)

Stop Pitocin

b)

Administer oxygen

c)

Increase fluids

d)

Call provider

40.

A newborn is pale, tachycardic, and has poor perfusion after birth to a diabetic mother. This suggests:

a)

Sepsis

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Dehydration

d)

Polycythemia

41.

A patient with suspected PREVIA arrives with stable vitals. What diagnostic confirms it safely?

a)

Vaginal exam

b)

Double-check fundal height

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Artificial rupture

42.

Which sign suggests impending seizure in preeclampsia?

a)

Decreased urine output

b)

Headache

c)

Hyperreflexia with clonus

d)

Edema

43.

A laboring client’s cervix stops dilating for 4 hours despite strong contractions. Priority?

a)

Notify provider of arrest of labor

b)

Increase Pitocin

c)

Encourage hydration

d)

Ambulate patient

44.

A patient with epidural is unable to move legs and BP is 78/42. First action?

a)

Turn to side

b)

Bolus fluids

c)

Call anesthesia

d)

Increase Pitocin

45.

A fetus with recurrent variable decels needs:

a)

Maternal oxygen

b)

Reduce maternal BP

c)

Amnioinfusion

d)

Delivery

46.

A postpartum patient develops a boggy uterus despite massage. Next action?

a)

Administer oxytocin

b)

Start IV fluids

c)

Insert Foley

d)

Recheck lacerations

47.

Which medication is appropriate for uterine inversion?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Pitocin

c)

Misoprostol

d)

Methylergonovine

48.

Which prenatal sign requires immediate reporting at 30 weeks?

a)

Leg cramps

b)

Persistent vomiting

c)

Linea nigra

d)

Backache

49.

A fetus with no variability and recurrent lates requires:

a)

Repositioning

b)

IV fluids

c)

Emergent birth

d)

Scalp stimulation

50.

Patient in second stage suddenly develops severe abdominal pain, loss of contractions, and fetal bradycardia. Suspect:

a)

Abruption

b)

Cord prolapse

c)

Uterine rupture

d)

Shoulder dystocia

51.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate has a level of 9 mg/dL. Which assessment finding is MOST concerning?

a)

Warmth and flushing

b)

Absent reflexes

c)

Mild nausea

d)

BP 130/80

52.

A patient with preeclampsia begins to have epigastric pain radiating to the shoulder. What should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Induction of labor

b)

Emergency C-section

c)

IV fluids

d)

Fetal scalp electrode

53.

A laboring client with epidural anesthesia shows a prolonged deceleration. First action?

a)

Administer ephedrine

b)

Turn patient to left side

c)

Increase Pitocin

d)

Start amnioinfusion

54.

Which newborn assessment warrants immediate intervention?

a)

Temperature 97.4°F

b)

Blood glucose 32 mg/dL

c)

HR 150

d)

RR 40

55.

A patient with abruptio placentae is at high risk for:

a)

DIC

b)

HELLP

c)

Placenta previa

d)

UTI

56.

A nurse notes fetal late decelerations after epidural placement. What is the likely cause?

a)

Maternal hypotension

b)

Uterine rupture

c)

Cord prolapse

d)

Shoulder dystocia

57.

A postpartum client reports severe perineal pain and a firm uterus. Suspect:

a)

Infection

b)

Perineal hematoma

c)

Atony

d)

Uterine inversion

58.

A newborn has a high-pitched cry, tremors, and poor feeding. Which maternal condition is likely?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Opioid use

d)

Hyperemesis

59.

A nurse observes a sinusoidal fetal pattern. Priority action?

a)

Give O2

b)

Prepare for immediate delivery

c)

Change maternal position

d)

Stop Pitocin

60.

Which maternal condition increases risk of shoulder dystocia?

a)

Low BMI

b)

Gestational diabetes

c)

Polyhydramnios

d)

Hyperthyroidism

61.

A patient at 36 weeks reports gush of fluid followed by greenish discharge. First priority?

a)

Check maternal temp

b)

Assess FHR

c)

Obtain cultures

d)

Start IV

62.

A postpartum client with tachycardia, hypotension, and clear lungs is likely experiencing:

a)

Fluid overload

b)

PPH

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

PE

63.

A laboring client states, “My contractions suddenly stopped.” Fetal station rises. Suspect:

a)

PROM

b)

Hypertonic labor

c)

Uterine rupture

d)

Cord prolapse

64.

A nurse palpates a boggy fundus shifted to the left. Intervention?

a)

Massage fundus

b)

Administer Pitocin

c)

Assist to void

d)

Insert IV

65.

A diabetic mother’s newborn with hematocrit 74% is at risk for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Sepsis

66.

Which finding indicates fetal distress?

a)

Accels with movement

b)

Variability 6–25 bpm

c)

Recurrent late decels

d)

Early decels

67.

A nurse notes the umbilical cord emerging from the vagina. Immediate action?

a)

Insert a Foley catheter

b)

Elevate presenting part

c)

Provide warm compress

d)

Increase Pitocin

68.

A client with preeclampsia has a urine protein of +3. Which other symptom strongly correlates with severe disease?

a)

Heartburn

b)

Headache

c)

Constipation

d)

Insomnia

69.

A postpartum client’s fundus is firm but above umbilicus. What is the likely cause?

a)

Clots

b)

Hematoma

c)

Distended bladder

d)

Inversion

70.

A nurse must intervene when a student nurse does which action during a postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Massages uterus

b)

Calls for help

c)

Lowers the HOB

d)

Checks bladder

71.

A laboring client is 10 cm dilated but refuses to push. Priority?

a)

Apply fundal pressure

b)

Encourage open-glottis pushing

c)

Allow laboring down

d)

Start Pitocin

72.

Which maternal condition increases risk of PPH?

a)

Short labor

b)

Grand multiparity

c)

Low BMI

d)

Early epidural

73.

A newborn of diabetic mother presents with respiratory distress. Suspect:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Low surfactant

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Sepsis

74.

A client receiving Pitocin develops late decels. Which action takes priority?

a)

Increase fluids

b)

Remove Foley

c)

Lower dosage

d)

Stop infusion

75.

Which finding requires immediate intervention in a newborn?

a)

Mild tremors

b)

Grunting

c)

Temp 97.7°F

d)

HR 140

76.

A client in labor suddenly develops chest pain, dyspnea, and cyanosis. The nurse suspects:

a)

Abruption

b)

AF embolism

c)

Cord prolapse

d)

HELLP

77.

A client at 40 weeks has oligohydramnios. The fetus is at risk for:

a)

Cord compression

b)

Macrosomia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Overdistended uterus

78.

A high-risk patient is on continuous magnesium infusion. Which is the BEST indicator therapy is effective?

a)

Decreased BP

b)

Decreased reflexes

79.

A client in labor with HIV should avoid:

a)

IV access

b)

Amniotomy

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Supplemental oxygen

80.

Which situation requires immediate delivery?

a)

Variable decels with moderate variability

b)

Sinusoidal pattern

c)

Early decels

d)

Mild tachycardia

81.

Patient reports decreased fetal movement at 32 weeks. The nurse first:

a)

Asks her to drink fluids

b)

Schedules BPP

c)

Performs NST

d)

Starts amnioinfusion

82.

A diabetic mother’s newborn is at greatest risk for:

a)

Small size

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Respiratory distress

d)

Anemia

83.

Which maternal BP requires immediate intervention?

a)

144/88

b)

132/80

c)

168/112

d)

118/66

84.

A postpartum patient reports dizziness while standing. What is the nurse’s FIRST action?

a)

Give orange juice

b)

Take BP

c)

Massage fundus

d)

Assess lochia

85.

A client with PROM has temp 100.8°F, fetal tachycardia, and foul fluid. Suspect:

a)

Chorioamnionitis

b)

Previa

c)

Abruption

d)

HELLP

86.

A newborn presents with poor muscle tone, low RR, and lethargy after maternal magnesium infusion. Initial action?

a)

Give naloxone

b)

Provide ventilation

c)

Warm the newborn

d)

Feed immediately

87.

While assessing a prolapsed cord, the nurse should avoid:

a)

Using sterile gloves

b)

Elevating the presenting part

c)

Applying warm saline-soaked cloths

d)

Attempting to push cord back inside

88.

A nurse notes blood pressure 90/50, pulse 140, and firm fundus. Priority?

a)

Assess for lacerations

b)

Start Pitocin

c)

Massage fundus

d)

Give magnesium

89.

Which newborn is at highest risk for hypoglycemia?

a)

Late preterm

b)

Infant of diabetic mother

c)

SGA

d)

All of the above

90.

A patient in active labor suddenly complains of severe periumbilical pain. FHR drops to 70. Suspect:

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Previa

c)

Abruption

d)

Cord prolapse

91.

A patient with preeclampsia reports sudden swelling of face and hands. Priority assessment?

a)

Weight

b)

Reflexes

c)

Blood pressure

d)

FHR

92.

Which medication is safest for PPH in an asthmatic patient?

a)

Carboprost

b)

Methylergonovine

c)

Misoprostol

d)

Metformin

93.

A postpartum client unable to void and with fundus 2 cm above umbilicus likely needs:

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Foley catheter

c)

Pitocin bolus

d)

Ultrasound

94.

A newborn’s blood glucose is 28 mg/dL. Priority?

a)

Recheck in 30 min

b)

Immediately feed

c)

Give IV dextrose

d)

Warm infant

95.

The nurse notes variable decelerations every contraction. Immediate action?

a)

Give O2

b)

Turn mother

c)

Notify provider

d)

Prepare for birth

96.

A patient with placenta previa begins contracting every 2 minutes. Priority?

a)

Vaginal exam

b)

Oxygen

c)

Tocolytics

d)

Check reflexes

97.

A postpartum patient develops tachycardia and faintness 6 hours after birth. Fundus firm. Suspect:

a)

Atony

b)

Lacerations

c)

Inversion

d)

Clots

98.

A newborn born through meconium-stained fluid is apneic. Priority?

a)

Stimulate

b)

Suction below cords

c)

Bag-mask ventilation

d)

Feed glucose

99.

A client with diabetes has polyuria, polydipsia, and ketones in urine at 34 weeks. First action?

a)

Start insulin drip

b)

Restrict fluids

c)

Discontinue fetal monitoring

d)

Provide oral glucose

100.

Which fetal tracing requires immediate maternal repositioning?

a)

Baseline 125

b)

Early decels

c)

Late decels

d)

Moderate variability