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WorksheetsASNT SET-2
Total questions: 132
Worksheet time: 2hrs 12mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following inherent discontinuities are associated with the forging process?
a)
A) Bursts, laps, cracks and flakes.
b)
B) Bursts, laminations, scoring and inclusions.
c)
C) Shrinkage, cracks, pipe and flakes.
d)
D) Cracks, seams, laps and laminations.
2.
Which of the following can be produced only with powder metallurgy?
a)
A) Cemented carbide cutting tools.
b)
B) Tungsten filaments for incandescent lamps.
c)
C) Crane hook.
d)
D) None of the above.
3.
Continuous casting process:
a)
A) Can produce small castings at faster rate.
b)
B) Valve castings with smooth surface finish.
c)
C) Square sections in long length.
d)
D) Require rotating mould.
4.
Spark erosion process is most likely to be used in:
a)
A) Welding.
b)
B) Heat treatment.
c)
C) Machining.
d)
D) Forging.
5.
Which of the following may be performed to help prevent corrosion?
a)
A) Electroplating.
b)
B) Cathodic protection.
c)
C) Anodizing.
d)
D) All of the above.
6.
A sampling plan for carrying out NDT is worked out on the basis of AOQL 6%. That means:
a)
A) There is a probability that in the remaining lot 6% of the parts may not meet the quality requirements.
b)
B) There will definitely be 6% defective in the remaining lot.
c)
C) The NDT is carried out only on 6% of the lot.
d)
D) NDT will ensure that 6% of the lot will meet the quality requirements.
7.
The part is an aluminium casting with a very complex design… Linear indications halfway around the base where the thin section is joined are referred as:
a)
A) A dross.
b)
B) Hot tear.
c)
C) Micro shrinkage.
d)
D) Porosity.
8.
The part is a 1/2" thick aluminium plate with a Vee weld. The indication appears in an area that is somewhat dish-shaped:
a)
A) Shrinkage.
b)
B) Non-relevant.
c)
C) A quench crack.
d)
D) A crater crack.
9.
Embrittlement, caused by a physical or chemical change in the metal, is a reduction in:
a)
A) Ductility.
b)
B) Hardness.
c)
C) Hydrogen.
d)
D) All of the above.
10.
The fillet weld size is based on the:
a)
A) Effective fillet weld throat.
b)
B) Length of fillet weld.
c)
C) Theoretical throat.
d)
D) Length of fillet weld leg.
11.
Slab, blooms and billets are:
a)
A) The three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the production of products such as angle iron and channel iron.
b)
B) The shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations.
c)
C) Types of defects that occur during the hot rolling of steel.
d)
D) The three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations.
12.
Which of the following statements is true concerning deformation processes?
a)
A) Hot working usually follows a cold working.
b)
B) Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
c)
C) Hot worked materials must be cold worked before they can be used.
d)
D) Cold working usually follows hot working.
13.
Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size variation and shrinkage, are similar to:
a)
A) Forgings.
b)
B) Castings.
c)
C) Extrusions.
d)
D) Hot-rolled plates.
14.
Casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes and hollow shafts is:
a)
A) Investment casting.
b)
B) Blow casting.
c)
C) Core casting.
d)
D) Centrifugal casting.
15.
The reduction of iron ore by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for combustion of the fuel is carried out in:
a)
A) Blast furnace.
b)
B) An open-hearth furnace.
c)
C) Bessemer converter.
d)
D) A basic oxygen furnace.
16.
On the diagram above, point B is called the:
a)
A) Elastic range.
b)
B) Elastic limit.
c)
C) Yield point.
d)
D) Modulus of elasticity.
17.
Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy in order to determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred to as:
a)
A) Indirect tests.
b)
B) Physical properties test.
c)
C) Destructive tests.
d)
D) Proof tests.
18.
Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of aluminum-based alloys and iron-based alloys?
a)
A) Iron has lower melting point than aluminum.
b)
B) Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment.
c)
C) Iron is preferred in load-carrying designs but should not be used for any deformation-type manufacturing process.
d)
D) All of the above.
19.
Which of the following statements is true concerning deformation processes?
a)
A) Hot working usually follows a cold working.
b)
B) Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
c)
C) Hot worked materials must be cold worked before they can be used.
d)
D) Cold working usually followed by hot working.
20.
Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after cooling but prior to being used in service. What is the principal cause for such cracks?
a)
A) Accelerated corrosion at high temperature.
b)
B) Scattered porosity in the weld.
c)
C) Improper selection in the weld.
d)
D) Excessive residual stresses.
21.
After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to:
a)
A) Tempering.
b)
B) Martensitic.
c)
C) Normalizing.
d)
D) Spheroidizing.
22.
A fatigue failure can often be prevented by utilizing NDT to:
a)
A) Verify the cyclic loading on a component part.
b)
B) Detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers.
c)
C) Measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing cyclic stresses.
d)
D) Determine percent elongation of a material before it is placed in service.
23.
The modulus of elasticity, or Young's modulus, is measure of the material's relative:
a)
A) Yield strength.
b)
B) Tensile strength.
c)
C) Compressive strength.
d)
D) Resistance to stress.
24.
Which method is best to make a one-ton casting?
a)
A) Investment casting.
b)
B) Die casting.
c)
C) Sandcasting.
d)
D) Lost wax casting.
25.
The difference in densities between two adjacent areas on a radiograph is:
a)
A) Subject contrast.
b)
B) Film contrast.
c)
C) Radiographic contrast.
d)
D) Definition.
26.
To avoid static marks:
a)
A) Check lead screens for cracks.
b)
B) Remove the film from wrapper slowly.
c)
C) Under develop.
d)
D) All of the above.
27.
Investment casting?
a)
A) Useful for large castings.
b)
B) Has tolerance of 1/16".
c)
C) Requires no further machining.
d)
D) Pressure is applied while casting.
28.
In Charpy impact test, you will find:
a)
A) Tensile strength.
b)
B) Compressive strength.
c)
C) Plastic deformation.
d)
D) Absorbed energy.
29.
Stress applied when directly proportional to increase or decrease in length are:
a)
A) Elastic deformation.
b)
B) Plastic flow.
c)
C) Creep.
d)
D) Yielding.
30.
Which is a better test to sort out Al 2017-34 and Al 2017-35:
a)
A) ET.
b)
B) UT.
c)
C) RT.
d)
D) Chemical Spot Tests.
31.
While interpreting radiograph of weld a rounded dark area observed on weld. The process is:
a)
A) Gas tungsten arc welding.
b)
B) Plasma arc welding.
c)
C) Submerged arc welding.
d)
D) Ultrasonic welding.
32.
Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit:
a)
A) Age hardening.
b)
B) Work hardening (Cold working).
c)
C) Recrystallization.
d)
D) Plastic deformation.
33.
Identify the most flaw-tolerant crystal structure:
a)
A) BCC.
b)
B) BCT.
c)
C) HCP.
d)
D) FCC.
34.
Which welding process takes place in a vacuum:
a)
A) Plasma arc welding.
b)
B) Electron beam welding.
c)
C) Friction welding.
d)
D) Explosion welding.
35.
An object of one-ton weight is usually produced by (for casting 1 ton or more heavy components, which is most versatile):
a)
A) Investment casting.
b)
B) Sand casting.
c)
C) Die casting.
d)
D) Lost wax process.
36.
The process in which filler material is applied by flowing to a close-fitting joint by capillary action:
a)
A) 315 °C (600 °F).
b)
B) 425 °C (800 °F).
c)
C) 840 °C (449 °F).
d)
D) 600 °C (315 °F).
37.
The term used in powder metallurgy for the bonding of solid particles is:
a)
A) Pressing.
b)
B) Blending.
c)
C) Sintering.
d)
D) Mixing.
38.
Permanent deformation of a material when a stress is applied and then removed is also:
a)
A) Plastic deformation.
b)
B) Elastic deformation.
c)
C) Magnetic deformation.
d)
D) Piezoelectric deformation.
39.
Crater cracks in weld usually result from:
a)
A) Too high heat input.
b)
B) Too low heat input.
c)
C) Wrong welding electrode use.
d)
D) Improper termination of welding arc (improper start of weld).
40.
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70B, Recommended Practice for Electrical Equipment Maintenance, recommends infrared:
a)
A) 10%.
b)
B) 20%.
c)
C) 40%.
d)
D) 95%.
41.
The best high-intensity source of thermal neutrons is:
a)
A) A Cf252 source.
b)
B) An accelerator.
c)
C) A nuclear reactor.
d)
D) A Cf252 source plus a multiplier.
42.
Thermal neutrons have energy:
a)
A) 0.01 to 0.03 eV.
b)
B) 0.3 to 3 eV.
c)
C) 0.3 to 1000 eV.
d)
D) Less than 3 eV.
43.
Which of the following is a characteristic of acoustic emission compared with other methods:
a)
A) Detects geometric form of defects.
b)
B) Requires stress.
c)
C) Less material sensitive.
d)
D) More geometry sensitive.
44.
The major difference between Ultrasonic Testing and Acoustic Emission is that:
a)
A) The former is repeatable but the latter is not.
b)
B) The former requires couplant but the latter does not.
c)
C) Both the above points.
d)
D) Neither of the above points.
45.
Acoustic emission test is used to detect:
a)
A) Reduction in pipe wall thickness due to corrosion and erosion.
b)
B) Crack growth at the moment of formation or propagation.
c)
C) And measure the size of cracks caused due to adverse service conditions.
d)
D) All of the above.
46.
The process in which filler material is applied by flowing to a close-fitting joint by capillary action
a)
A) 315 °C (600 °F)
b)
B) 425 °C (800 °F)
c)
C) 840 °C (449 °F)
d)
D) 600 °C (315 °F)
47.
Which of the following is a characteristic of acoustic emission compared with other methods?
a)
A) Detects geometric form of defects
b)
B) Requires stress
c)
C) Less material sensitive
d)
D) More geometry sensitive
48.
The major difference between ultrasonic testing and acoustic emission is that
a)
A) The former is repeatable but the latter is not
b)
B) The former requires couplant but the latter does not
c)
C) Both the above points
d)
D) Neither of the above points
49.
Acoustic emission test is used to detect
a)
A) Reduction in pipe wall thickness due to corrosion and erosion
b)
B) Crack growth at the moment of formation or propagation
c)
C) Size of cracks caused by adverse service conditions
d)
D) All of the above
50.
Water has penetrated the brick façade; when temperature reaches freezing, the bricks warm slightly. The probable cause is
a)
A) Increased conduction
b)
B) Reduced convection
c)
C) Latent heat of fusion
d)
D) Evaporation
51.
Wien’s Law predicts
a)
A) The maximum temperature at a given wavelength
b)
B) The peak wavelength emitted by a blackbody at a given temperature
c)
C) The range of wavelengths emitted by a surface
d)
D) The heat energy radiated at a given temperature
52.
What is the wavelength of infrared radiation on a sunny day at 50 °C?
a)
A) Close to 5 µm
b)
B) Close to 9 µm
c)
C) Close to 10 µm
d)
D) Between 10–14 µm
53.
In thermography testing, which material is best used for transmission in 8–14 µm?
a)
A) Quartz
b)
B) Glass
c)
C) Germanium
d)
D) Barium titanate
54.
The mass spectrometer vacuum gauge used to monitor pressure during the test is
a)
A) Cold cathode discharge gauge
b)
B) Thermal conductivity gauge
c)
C) Bourdon pressure gauge
d)
D) Bulk pressure gauge
55.
Small leaks can be tested by
a)
A) Liquid penetrant testing & halogen leak testing
b)
B) Ultrasonic testing & acoustic emission testing
c)
C) Helium leak testing & acoustic emission testing
d)
D) Helium leak testing & liquid penetrant testing
56.
The measurement of radiant energy in the visible spectrum is
a)
A) Photometry
b)
B) Spectrometry
c)
C) Geniometry
d)
D) Spectrodiometry
57.
When referring to ASME XI, VT-2 relates to inspection of
a)
A) Mechanical and structural conditions
b)
B) Leakage from pressure-retaining components
c)
C) Surface corrosion
d)
D) All of the above
58.
The prncipal biological effect of infrared radiation is
a)
A) Thermal fatigue
b)
B) Hypothermia
c)
C) Blue hazard
d)
D) Ultraviolet hazard
59.
A measured amount of undercut is detected that is allowable when referenced to an acceptable criteria. The undercut is therefore described as?
a)
A) A defect
b)
B) An indication
c)
C) A flaw
d)
D) None of the above
60.
If a modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection system using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet developer, the dryer should be placed:
a)
A) Before the emulsifier tank
b)
B) After the developer tank
c)
C) Before the developer tank
d)
D) After the wash unit
61.
Dentists have used liquid penetrant inspection to:
a)
A) Locate fine cracks in teeth prior to the availability of x-rays
b)
B) Locate defects in artificial teeth prior to mounting them
c)
C) Verify questionable information gathered from x-rays
d)
D) Identify the filling material
62.
Water washable liquid penetrants differ from post-emulsification penetrants in that water-washable penetrants:
a)
A) Can only be used on aluminum test specimens
b)
B) Need not be removed from the test surface prior to development
c)
C) Have a soapy base
d)
D) Do not need the application of emulsifier before development
63.
When thorough demagnetization is to be accomplished by placing the part in a coil energized with AC of decreasing amperage:
a)
A) East–West
b)
B) North–South
c)
C) Irrelevant (no difference)
d)
D) South–West
64.
The permeability of a material describes:
a)
A) The ease with which it can be magnetized
b)
B) The depth of the magnetic field in the part
c)
C) The length of time required demagnetizing it
d)
D) The ability to retain the magnetic field
65.
The space around a magnet within which ferromagnetic materials are attracted to the:
a)
A) A magnetic field
b)
B) Permeability
c)
C) A hysteresis curve
d)
D) A magnetic poles
66.
With portable prods, which of the following methods is used?
a)
A) HWDC
b)
B) FWDC
c)
C) HWDC three phase
d)
D) FWDC three phase
67.
A forged steel shaft, after a service of five years, is being M.P. tested using AC, wet fluorescent method. The defect being sought is most probably:
a)
A) A forging lap
b)
B) A forging burst
c)
C) A fatigue crack
d)
D) A seam
68.
The most widely used method for sorting of metallic parts utilizes:
a)
A) Acoustic velocity measurement principles
b)
B) Electromagnetic induction principles
c)
C) Radioactive decay properties
d)
D) Sound sensing properties
69.
In eddy current testing of heat exchanger tubes, multi-frequency eddy current units are used:
a)
A) To get higher sensitivity
b)
B) To improve the depth of penetration
c)
C) To minimize the effect of unwanted signals from tube supports
d)
D) To take advantage of natural frequency of test object
70.
Which of the following methods may be used to improve signal-to-noise ratio of an eddy current test system?
a)
A) Filtering or differentiation
b)
B) Phase discrimination
c)
C) Integration
d)
D) All of the above
71.
Lift-off effect is:
a)
A) The large change in impedance with small separation of probe from object
b)
B) Is used to measure thickness of non-conductive coating on conductive materials
c)
C) Can be minimized with spring-loaded probes
d)
D) All of the above
72.
A weld radiograph shows a defect indication. Indication is dark and sharp straight line at the root:
a)
A) Centre-line crevice
b)
B) Lack of side wall fusion
c)
C) Lack of penetration
d)
D) Elongated slag
73.
The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory for:
a)
A) Subject contrast of a radiograph
b)
B) Sensitivity of a radiograph
c)
C) Latitude of a radiograph
d)
D) Definition of a radiograph
74.
Thulium-170 emits which of the following gamma-ray energies?
a)
A) 1.33 and 1.17 MeV
b)
B) 0.084 and 0.052 MeV
c)
C) 0.310 and 0.470 MeV
d)
D) 0.110 and 0.150 MeV
75.
The time it takes to re-establish the electric field intensity required in a G-M counter after the counter has been paralyzed by ion avalanche is called:
a)
A) Resolving time
b)
B) Dead time
c)
C) Quench time
d)
D) Dwell time
76.
Poor radiographic definition can be caused by:
a)
A) Poor film-screen contact
b)
B) Excessive graininess of the film
c)
C) A short source-film-distance
d)
D) All of the above
77.
The tube current applied to an X-ray unit controls:
a)
A) The penetrating power of the radiation
b)
B) The quantity of radiation
c)
C) The focal spot size
d)
D) Both A & B above
78.
In the double-film technique, the arrangement is:
a)
A) Screen-film-screen-film-screen
b)
B) Film-screen-film-screen
c)
C) Screen-film-film-screen
d)
D) Screen-film-film-screen of same speed films
79.
An image quality indicator is used to determine the:
a)
A) Size of a discontinuity in the part.
b)
B) Density of the film.
c)
C) Radiographic contrast.
d)
D) Quality of the radiographic technique.
80.
A 200 mm thick carbon steel plate is welded using SAW process. Which combination will be most suitable for testing the weld?
a)
A) UT + MT
b)
B) RT + PT
c)
C) UT + RT
d)
D) ET + MT
81.
Resonance testing equipment generally utilizes:
a)
A) Pulsed longitudinal waves
b)
B) Continuous longitudinal waves
c)
C) Pulsed shear waves
d)
D) Continuous shear waves
82.
In immersion testing, the near-field effects of a transducer may be eliminated by:
a)
A) Increasing transducer frequency
b)
B) Use of larger diameter transducer
c)
C) Using an appropriate water path
d)
D) Use of a focused transducer
83.
What water path is needed when using a straight beam transducer with a 4-inch (101 mm) focus to place focal spot at a bond line 17 mm deep?
a)
A) 4.12 in
b)
B) 2.06 in
c)
C) 2.06 mm
d)
D) 20.6 in
84.
Irrelevant or false indications from contoured surfaces are likely to result in a:
a)
A) Broad-based indication.
b)
B) Peaked indication.
c)
C) “Hashy” signal.
d)
D) Narrow-based indication.
85.
Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the wavelength of the beam transmitted through medium and:
a)
A) Increased if frequency or crystal diameter is decreased.
b)
B) Decreases if frequency or crystal diameter decreases.
c)
C) Increased if frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased.
d)
D) Decreases if frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased.
86.
In the adjacent figure, zone A is called the:
a)
A) Near Zone.
b)
B) Far Zone.
c)
C) Irregular Zone.
d)
D) Free field.
87.
Which of the following is considered volumetric testing technique:
a)
A) Magnetic particle testing
b)
B) Eddy current testing
c)
C) All of above
d)
D) Ultrasonic testing
88.
The minimum educational qualification requirements of a NDT Level III are:
a)
A) a College degree
b)
B) High school diploma
c)
C) Doctorate
d)
D) None of the above
89.
Credit for training hours is obtained by:
a)
A) Completing sufficient organized training to become familiar with the principles of method and the practices of the applicable test technique.
b)
B) Recording the training hours attended in Training Record and endorsement by NDT Level-III.
c)
C) Attending classroom, library, demonstration and/or on-the-job training.
d)
D) Passing a final examination covering the topics contained in that training program.
90.
The physical test for the personnel being certified:
a)
A) Must be conducted by the certified Level III examiner.
b)
B) By the Level III examiner himself, may be conducted by a medical practitioner, or by anyone approved by an NDT Level-III designated by the employer.
c)
C) Must be conducted by an ophthalmologist.
d)
D) Must be conducted by a Ph.D.
91.
As per CP-189 an NDT instructor:
a)
A) May be used by employer when required to give training.
b)
B) May be used by employer if written in.
c)
C) Certification Procedure.
d)
D) Has to be used by the employer to provide training for Level-I and Level-II.
92.
Passing the ASNT Level-III examination indicates that the successful applicant:
a)
A) Has been tested by ASNT. But his employer is certifying agency and can certify him to Level-III for the company.
b)
B) Based on the ASNT Level-III results, provided that such provision is incorporated in written document.
c)
C) Is of world standard in the method certified for.
d)
D) Is accepted worldwide.
93.
SNT-TC-1A 2020 was not applicable to:
a)
A) Acoustic Emission.
b)
B) Strain Gauge measurement.
c)
C) Visual Testing.
d)
D) B and C.
94.
The recommended number of training hours in particular method are:
a)
A) Listed as a function of the candidate’s education.
b)
B) The same regardless of the candidate’s education.
c)
C) Listed as a function of the candidate’s experience.
d)
D) Reduced if the candidate is being qualified in more than one method simultaneously.
95.
Which of the following parts of Level-I and Level-II examinations should be written?
a)
A) The general and specific.
b)
B) The general and practical.
c)
C) The general, specific and practical.
d)
99. For NDT Level-III certifications which exams are to be taken?
96.
For NDT Level-III certifications which exams are to be taken?
a)
A) Basic, Method and Specific.
b)
B) Basic, Method and Practical.
c)
C) Method, Specific and Practical.
d)
D) Basic, Specific and Practical.
97.
As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, a Level-II:
a)
A) May conduct on-the-job training and guidance of Level-I personnel, with the Level-I training and guiding trainees.
b)
B) Is responsible for the training and examination of Level-I personnel for certification.
c)
C) Must be capable of and responsible for establishing techniques.
d)
D) All of the above are true.
98.
For Level II personnel, practical minimum grade for each sample is:
a)
A) 70%
b)
B) 80%
c)
C) 60%
d)
D) 90%
99.
Certification is:
a)
A) The skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job.
b)
B) Written testimony of qualification.
c)
C) Intended to be conferred by an organization independent from the employer.
d)
D) Independent to be conferred on Level III personnel by ASNT only.
100.
In some cases, the training times recommended for Level-I are greater than for Level-II. Why?
a)
A) In preparing for qualification at Level-I, the candidate should always receive more training than for Level-II, regardless of the NDT method.
b)
B) Some numbers in the table are in error.
c)
C) Candidates for Level-II generally have more formal education than those for Level-I.
d)
D) Some methods require more initial training at Level-I because of differences in complexity and manipulative skills.
101.
A written procedure was prepared by an employer. Who will approve the written procedure as per CP-189?
a)
A) Employer's designated NDT Level III
b)
B) An outside agency’s NDT Level III
c)
C) QC manager of the company
d)
D) President
102.
If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III services, the:
a)
A) Written practice of the outside agency pertains, and it is not necessary for the employer using outside services to have a written practice.
b)
B) Responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside services.
c)
C) Employer utilizing outside services must nonetheless have a Level III in direct employment.
d)
D) Outside agency may certify the personnel of the employer utilizing outside services.
103.
As per CP-189 (2016), when is reinstatement carried out?
a)
A) After expiration, renewal of Level III certificate and revocation.
b)
B) After expiration, suspension and revocation.
c)
C) After expiration, suspension and unethical or incompetent.
d)
D) After expiration, suspension and deficient in job.
104.
Graduation from a 4-year university or college with a degree in engineering or science plus 1 year of experience in NDT comparable to Level II:
a)
A) Graduation from a 4-year university or college with a degree in engineering or science plus 1 year’s experience in NDT comparable to Level II.
b)
B) Graduation from a 4-year college or university with a degree in NDT plus 3 months’ experience in NDT comparable to Level II.
c)
C) 2 years’ experience in NDT comparable to that of a Level II if a high school graduate.
d)
D) 6 years’ experience in NDT if the candidate did not graduate from high school.
105.
As per SNT-TC-1A (2020), recertification:
a)
A) Can be accomplished only by re-examination.
b)
B) Can be based upon evidence of continuing satisfactory performance.
c)
C) Can be at maximum intervals of 7 years.
d)
D) Any of the above.
106.
As per SNT-TC-1A (2016), for near vision acuity the applicant should be able to read a:
a)
A) Jaeger No. 2
b)
B) Jaeger No. 3
c)
C) Jaeger No. 1
d)
D) None of the above
107.
Procedure prepared by outside agency Level III; QC manager prepares question papers; NDT foreman administers and grades the exams. Who approves?
a)
A) NDT Level III
b)
B) QC Manager
c)
C) NDT foreman
d)
D) President
108.
Of the following personnel, which can administer the near-distance visual acuity examination using the reading card with Jaeger letters?
a)
A) An NDT Level III
b)
B) A selected representative of the NDT Level III
c)
C) A plant nurse, if designated by the NDT Level III
d)
D) All of the above
109.
A person got 27 marks out of 40 in Basic and 67 marks out of 90 in Method. Then ____
a)
A) 14 Q out of 20
b)
B) 16 Q out of 20
c)
C) 20 Q out of 25
d)
D) 18 Q out of 20
110.
As per CP-189, NDT Instructor is defined but according to SNT-TC-1A, the NDT Instructor is
a)
A) Not defined
b)
B) Same as defined in CP-189
c)
C) Not defined and given certain provisions
d)
D) Defined but limited
111.
SNT-TC-1A states: “These guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers’ circumstances.” What should be done if this occurs?
a)
A) The employer must change operations to conform to the guidelines
b)
B) The employer must seek relief from ASNT
c)
C) The employer should review recommendations and modify them as needed
d)
D) The employer shall submit a written inquiry to the Interpretation Panel
112.
To pass FMC, the prerequisite is
a)
A) 2 years’ experience in FMC
b)
B) 20 hours of training
c)
C) Passing UT Level II plus 320 hours’ experience
d)
D) Passing UT Level I
113.
As per CP-189 (2016), for Level II practical examination, the minimum number of test samples recommended per method and per technique is
a)
A) Per Method 1, Per Technique 2
b)
B) Per Method 1, Per Technique 1
c)
C) Per Method 2, Per Technique 2
d)
D) Per Method 2, Per Technique 1
114.
May a Level I certified in SNT-TC-1A (2020) be permitted to evaluate and sign for final acceptance of NDE examination?
a)
A) No, Level I performs tests only
b)
B) Yes, Level III may delegate evaluation powers
c)
C) Yes, if allowed by written procedures and employer’s practice
d)
D) Both B and C
115.
For acquiring film interpretation qualification
a)
A) He should have seen 1000 radiographs
b)
B) He should have reviewed minimum 1000 radiographs
c)
C) Number of radiographs shall be addressed in employer’s written practice
d)
D) He should have evaluated minimum 500 radiographs
116.
A Level II certified in Company A leaves and joins Company B. What is required now?
a)
A) He can work as Level II in the new concern
b)
B) He has to write and pass the exam
c)
C) He must attend additional training and pass exam per employer’s written practice
d)
D) He must attend additional training as determined by Level III and pass exam
117.
ASTM E1316 is used to standardize
a)
A) Terminology across all NDT methods in ASNT publications
b)
B) Recommended practices for qualification of NDT personnel
c)
C) Minimum qualification requirements
d)
D) Topical outlines for qualification of NDT personnel
118.
A candidate for re-examination must wait a minimum of:
a)
A) 7 Days
b)
B) 20 Days
c)
C) 30 Days
d)
D) Receive suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level III before examination
119.
When employer uses the ASNT name, acronym and logo in certificates or wallet cards, the employer shall follow the requirement of:
a)
A) ASNT CP 01 2020
b)
B) ASNT CP 105 2020
c)
C) ASNT Policy G-14
d)
D) SNT-TC-1A 2020
120.
How many NDT methods are specified in CP-189 2020?
a)
A) 8
b)
B) 11
c)
C) 12
d)
D) 9
121.
NDT practical examination checklist:
a)
A) is prepared by the employer
b)
B) is prepared by Level II
c)
C) is prepared as per Appendix B of ASNT SNT-TC-1A 2020
d)
D) is prepared as per Appendix C of ASNT SNT-TC-1A 2016
122.
Qualified representative of the employer:
a)
A) Can administer Level I & Level II exam
b)
B) Can do actual administration of Level II
c)
C) Can administer and grade Level I, Level II & Level III exam
d)
D) Can administer Level I & II exam through authorized representative
123.
The actual administration and grading of Level II examination can be done by:
a)
A) NDT Level III
b)
B) Qualified representative of NDT Level III
c)
C) Qualified representative of the employer
d)
D) All
124.
A man has finished Fifth Standard only. Can he be qualified to Level I?
a)
A) Yes
b)
B) No
c)
C) If NDT Level III approves, it is OK
d)
D) If so mentioned in Written Practice
125.
As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, the physical examination requirements are intended to:
a)
A) Assure natural or corrected near-distance acuity in at least one eye such that the applicant can read Jaeger Number 2
b)
B) Each employer’s specific needs
c)
C) Meet specific sections of ASME code
d)
D) Both A and B
126.
In accordance with SNT-TC-1A 2020, which of the following is true for a Level III?
a)
A) Employer may waive examination based on demonstrated ability, achievement, experience and education
b)
B) Employer may delete specific examination if candidate has valid ASNT Level III certificate and documented experience
c)
C) Employer shall recognize only the ASNT Level III certificate holder
d)
D) All of the above
127.
Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when
a)
A) Their material being tested is for an export contract
b)
B) It has been specified by the customer
c)
C) The material being tested is as per ASME code
d)
D) Any of the above cases occurred
128.
Who has to do actual administration and grading of Level III exam
a)
A) Level III
b)
B) Qualified representative NDT Level III
c)
C) Qualified representative of the employer
d)
D) All
129.
SNT-TC-1A 2020 is used
a)
A) For Q & C Personnel
b)
B) Qualification and Certification of the personnel
c)
C) Qualification and Certification of the NDT personnel
d)
D) All of the above
130.
Qualification means
a)
A) Education, Knowledge and Experience
b)
B) Education, Training and Experience
c)
C) Both
d)
D) None
131.
Limited certificates are for
a)
A) Level I
b)
B) Level II
c)
C) Level III
d)
D) All
132.
An oscillator used in generating time-varying current in an ECT instrument usually supplies
a)
A) 1 Hz to 20 kHz
b)
B) 50 Hz to 60 Hz
c)
C) 1 kHz to 2 MHz
d)
D) 0.5 MHz to 4 GHz
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