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Neuro Final

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define neuroscience and behavioral neuroscience.

a)

Neuroscience is the study of the nervous system’s structure and function; behavioral neuroscience examines how neural processes give rise to behavior.

b)

Neuroscience is the study of human behavior; behavioral neuroscience focuses only on spinal cord reflexes.

c)

Neuroscience is the study of mental illness; behavioral neuroscience is limited to animal conditioning.

d)

Neuroscience only uses brain imaging; behavioral neuroscience only uses surveys.

2.

Describe how ‘science’ and neuroscience progress.

a)

Through iterative hypothesis testing, replication, and peer review that refine theories over time.

b)

By relying on authority and tradition rather than empirical data.

c)

By collecting anecdotes and forming beliefs without experiments.

d)

Through single, definitive experiments that never require replication.

3.

Characterize how neuroscience is a culmination of many disciplines of basic and social sciences.

a)

It integrates biology, psychology, chemistry, physics, computer science, and related social sciences to study the nervous system.

b)

It excludes biology and focuses only on sociology.

c)

It is purely philosophical and avoids empirical methods.

d)

It studies only one brain region using a single discipline.

4.

Who is the father of neuroanatomy and neuropathology?

a)

Thomas Willis

b)

Santiago Ramón y Cajal

c)

Camillo Golgi

d)

Paul Broca

5.

Know the difference between Phrenology and localization of function.

a)

Phrenology links skull bumps to traits without scientific basis, whereas localization of function maps specific brain regions to specific functions using empirical evidence.

b)

Both are modern, evidence-based neuroscientific theories.

c)

Localization of function claims all brain areas perform the same task, unlike phrenology.

d)

Phrenology is a valid clinical tool, whereas localization is pseudoscience.

6.

Define and use critical components of Scientific Method: IV, DV, control group, experimental group.

a)

The independent variable is manipulated; the dependent variable is measured outcome.

b)

The dependent variable is manipulated; the independent variable is the outcome.

c)

The control group receives the intervention; the experimental group does not.

d)

Variables are unnecessary if random assignment is used.

7.

Know and apply what experimental methods lead to causal inferences.

a)

Randomized controlled experiments with manipulation of an independent variable and appropriate controls.

b)

Cross-sectional correlational surveys without manipulation.

c)

Naturalistic observation without control groups.

d)

Case studies of a single individual.

8.

Evaluate the ‘staining’ methods used to identify neurons.

a)

Golgi staining impregnates a small subset of neurons, revealing full morphology including dendrites and axons.

b)

Nissl staining labels entire neurons, including axons and dendrites in detail.

c)

Hematoxylin–eosin is specific for neurons only and shows complete processes.

d)

Simple iodine stain reveals synaptic vesicles and action potentials.

9.

Define what a neuron is, including its 4 major structural regions.

a)

A neuron is a specialized cell that transmits information; its four structural regions are dendrites, soma, axon, and axon terminals.

b)

A neuron is any cell in the body; the four regions are nucleus, ribosomes, mitochondria, and cytosol.

c)

A neuron is a glial cell; the four regions are astrocyte, microglia, oligodendrocyte, and ependyma.

d)

A neuron is a hormone-secreting gland; the four regions are cortex, medulla, lobes, and sulci.

10.

Identify the role and location of dendrites, soma, axon, and axon terminals.

a)

Dendrites receive input; soma integrates signals; axon conducts impulses; axon terminals release neurotransmitter onto target cells.

b)

Dendrites generate action potentials; soma releases neurotransmitter; axon stores ions; terminals synthesize DNA.

c)

Dendrites myelinate axons; soma forms myelin; axon digests debris; terminals create cerebrospinal fluid.

d)

Dendrites secrete hormones; soma absorbs nutrients; axon digests proteins; terminals produce antibodies.

11.

Briefly define what a synapse is and mention its main components.

a)

A synapse is a junction where a presynaptic terminal communicates with a postsynaptic membrane across a synaptic cleft.

b)

A synapse is a gap in myelin between nodes of Ranvier only.

c)

A synapse is any physical contact between two neurons’ somas.

d)

A synapse is the space inside the nucleus where genes interact.

12.

List major nervous systems and how they are connected.

a)

The central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) connects with the peripheral nervous system via afferent and efferent nerves.

b)

Only the peripheral nervous system exists; the central system is part of the endocrine system.

c)

The central nervous system is isolated and has no connection to peripheral nerves.

d)

The autonomic nervous system operates independently of both CNS and PNS.

13.

Describe the 4 types of glial cells and their functions.

a)

Oligodendrocytes myelinate CNS axons; astrocytes regulate environment and support synapses; microglia provide immune defense; ependymal cells produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid.

b)

Astrocytes generate action potentials; microglia form myelin; oligodendrocytes secrete hormones; ependymal cells digest neurotransmitters.

c)

Ependymal cells myelinate PNS; astrocytes are neurons; microglia are endocrine cells; oligodendrocytes are muscle cells.

d)

All glia have identical functions and are interchangeable.

14.

Identify and label parts of neurons.

a)

Dendrites, soma, axon, and axon terminals are the principal parts to identify and label.

b)

Myelin, skull, skin, and hair are the principal parts to label.

c)

Cortex lobes only are neuron parts.

d)

Nuclei of glial cells are the only parts of neurons.

15.

List major nervous systems and how they are connected.

a)

CNS and PNS communicate through sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) pathways.

b)

Only CNS exists; PNS functions independently.

c)

Somatic and autonomic systems are unconnected to CNS.

d)

CNS signals travel only by hormones, not nerves.

16.

Analyze how different cell types and structures support neurons.

a)

Astrocytes regulate extracellular ions and neurotransmitters; oligodendrocytes provide myelin; microglia remove debris; ependymal cells line ventricles.

b)

Neurons are unsupported by any glial cells.

c)

Only microglia support neurons by generating action potentials.

d)

Skin cells myelinate axons in the brain.

17.

What are the 4 major structural components of a neuron?

a)

Dendrites, soma, axon, axon terminals

b)

Nucleus, ribosomes, mitochondria, lysosome

c)

Astrocyte, microglia, oligodendrocyte, ependyma

d)

Frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

18.

Out of the 4 components, which one includes the axon?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrites

c)

Soma

d)

Axon terminals

19.

TRUE or FALSE: Neurons can contain both endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What is one of the functions of dendritic spines?

a)

They increase postsynaptic contact area to receive synaptic inputs.

b)

They produce myelin along axons.

c)

They propagate action potentials without the axon hillock.

d)

They secrete cerebrospinal fluid into ventricles.

21.

Describe the complete process of an action potential: charges of ions.

a)

Depolarization occurs when voltage-gated Na+ channels open and Na+ (positive) ions rush into the neuron.

b)

Depolarization occurs when Cl− enters and makes the membrane more negative.

c)

Depolarization is caused by K+ leaving the neuron first.

d)

Depolarization does not involve any ion movement.

22.

Describe the complete process of an action potential: flow of different ions, the forces and energy required for ion pumps.

a)

The Na+/K+ ATPase uses energy from ATP to move 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in, maintaining gradients that power ion flow during action potentials.

b)

The Na+/K+ pump requires no energy and moves ions down their gradients.

c)

The Ca2+ pump moves Na+ into the cell and K+ out using no ATP.

d)

Ion pumps operate only during resting potential and shut off during action potentials.

23.

Label and draw an action potential chart: identify the rapid rising phase.

a)

The rapid rising phase corresponds to depolarization due to opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.

b)

The rapid rising phase is hyperpolarization due to K+ efflux.

c)

The rapid rising phase is the absolute refractory period only.

d)

The rapid rising phase occurs when all channels are closed.

24.

Identify what ions contribute to Excitatory and Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.

a)

Na+ influx commonly produces EPSPs.

b)

Ca2+ influx can contribute to EPSPs.

c)

Cl− influx commonly produces IPSPs.

d)

K+ efflux can contribute to IPSPs.

25.

When ionotropic receptors bind a ligand what happens?

a)

A ligand-gated ion channel opens rapidly, allowing specific ions to flow and producing a fast postsynaptic potential.

b)

A G-protein dissociates to alter gene transcription over hours.

c)

The receptor internalizes and permanently blocks ion flow.

d)

Nothing happens until action potentials cease.

26.

When metabotropic receptors bind a ligand what happens?

a)

They open an ion channel directly and cause immediate depolarization

b)

They activate a G protein that triggers second‑messenger cascades to modulate ion channels and gene expression

c)

They internalize the ligand and prevent any signaling

d)

They release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft

27.

Describe Otto Loewi contribution to neuroscience.

a)

Demonstrated chemical neurotransmission with the vagusstoff frog heart experiment

b)

Invented magnetic resonance imaging for brain imaging

c)

Mapped the motor homunculus by stimulating the cortex during surgery

d)

Discovered the ionic basis of the action potential in squid axon

28.

Characterize how ionotropic and metabotropic receptors are similar and different.

a)

Ionotropic receptors are G‑protein coupled and slower; metabotropic receptors are ligand‑gated ion channels and faster

b)

Ionotropic receptors are ligand‑gated ion channels that act rapidly; metabotropic receptors are G‑protein coupled and produce slower modulatory effects

c)

Both are voltage‑gated channels that open during action potentials

d)

Only metabotropic receptors bind neurotransmitters; ionotropic receptors do not

29.

How agonists and antagonists influence receptors.

a)

Agonists bind and activate receptors; antagonists bind but block receptor activation

b)

Agonists block receptors; antagonists activate receptors

c)

Agonists and antagonists both increase receptor signaling

d)

Antagonists remove receptors from the membrane while agonists insert more receptors

30.

Recognize precursors and enzymes to neurotransmitter precursors.

a)

Dopamine synthesized from L‑DOPA via DOPA decarboxylase

b)

Acetylcholine synthesized from choline and acetyl‑CoA via choline acetyltransferase

c)

Serotonin synthesized from tyrosine via tyrosine hydroxylase

d)

GABA synthesized from glutamate via glutamic acid decarboxylase

31.

Understand how to manipulate neurotransmission at pre and postsynaptic neurons.

a)

Blocking the serotonin transporter (SERT) with an SSRI increases serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft

b)

Blocking voltage‑gated Na+ channels increases neurotransmitter release

c)

Inhibiting vesicular transporters increases postsynaptic receptor activation

d)

Enhancing monoamine oxidase activity raises synaptic monoamine concentrations

32.

Understand how pharmacotherapeutics are used to treat psychological disorders.

a)

Benzodiazepines enhance GABA_A receptor function by increasing chloride channel opening frequency, reducing anxiety

b)

Antipsychotics primarily enhance dopamine D2 receptor signaling

c)

SSRIs decrease serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft

d)

Lithium blocks all glutamate receptors

33.

Differentiate between neurodevelopmental stages from egg fertilization to neurulation.

a)

Fertilization → neurulation → cleavage → gastrulation

b)

Fertilization → cleavage → blastula → gastrulation → neurulation

c)

Cleavage → fertilization → gastrulation → neurulation

d)

Fertilization → gastrulation → cleavage → neurulation

34.

Identify anatomical structures, tissue layers formed, and timeline.

a)

Gastrulation forms the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm germ layers

b)

Neurulation forms the heart, lungs, and kidneys directly

c)

Cleavage forms the neural tube from the notochord

d)

Blastula stage creates only ectoderm and mesoderm

35.

Describe the mechanisms driving each process.

a)

Neural plate formation is induced by the notochord signaling to overlying ectoderm to fold into a neural tube

b)

Gastrulation is driven by apoptosis of all ectodermal cells

c)

Cleavage is driven by synaptogenesis between blastomeres

d)

Neurulation occurs only after birth

36.

List and describe the six stages of brain development.

a)

Neurogenesis, cell migration, differentiation, synaptogenesis, programmed cell death, synapse rearrangement

b)

Neurogenesis, glycolysis, differentiation, angiogenesis, apoptosis, mitosis

c)

Cell migration, mitosis, transcription, translation, maturation, vision

d)

Fertilization, cleavage, blastula, gastrulation, neurulation, birth

37.

Describe the development of the neural plate and neural tube.

a)

In humans, neural tube closure begins near the cervical region and proceeds both rostrally and caudally

b)

Neural tube closure starts only at the frontal pole and moves caudally

c)

The neural plate arises from mesoderm rather than ectoderm

d)

Neural tube closure is completed before gastrulation

38.

List and describe the six stages of development.

a)

Differentiation typically follows cell migration in the developmental sequence

b)

Synaptogenesis precedes neurogenesis

c)

Apoptosis occurs before any synapses are formed

d)

Cell migration is the final stage

39.

Compare and contrast synaptogenesis of C. elegans, zebrafish, and mammals.

a)

C. elegans synaptic wiring is largely genetically specified with minimal pruning; mammals show extensive activity‑dependent synaptogenesis and pruning; zebrafish are intermediate

b)

All three species rely exclusively on adult experience for forming synapses

c)

Mammals have fixed synaptic wiring with no pruning; C. elegans shows large activity‑dependent remodeling

d)

Zebrafish lack synaptogenesis

40.

Phenotype vs genotype, and the interaction.

a)

Genotype is an organism’s genetic makeup; phenotype is the observable traits influenced by both genotype and environment

b)

Phenotype describes DNA sequence; genotype describes observed behavior only

c)

Genotype changes with environment while phenotype never does

d)

Phenotype is independent of genotype

41.

Phenylketonuria.

a)

Caused by deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase leading to toxic accumulation of phenylalanine

b)

Caused by excess dopamine synthesis in the basal ganglia

c)

An infectious prion disease

d)

Treated by high‑phenylalanine diet

42.

Methylation and methylation of glucocorticoid receptor.

a)

DNA methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor promoter generally reduces receptor gene expression

b)

DNA methylation universally increases glucocorticoid receptor expression

c)

Histone acetylation decreases receptor transcription

d)

Methylation causes immediate opening of the receptor’s ion channel

43.

What is dementia and Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Alzheimer’s disease is a neurodegenerative dementia characterized by beta‑amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles with progressive memory decline

b)

Dementia refers only to vascular lesions and never includes Alzheimer’s disease

c)

Alzheimer’s disease is an acute reversible confusion state

d)

Alzheimer’s disease is defined by increased dopamine in the striatum

44.

What factors contribute to Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Advanced age

b)

APOE ε4 genotype

c)

Family history

d)

High vitamin C intake

45.

Treatments?

a)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil) provide symptomatic benefit in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease

b)

High‑dose dopamine agonists reverse Alzheimer’s pathology

c)

Broad‑spectrum antibiotics are first‑line therapy

d)

Complete cure is achieved with vitamin supplements

46.

How does the brain decode action potentials from various sensory organs?

a)

Stimulus intensity is often represented by increased firing rate and recruitment of more afferent neurons (population coding)

b)

Only the identity of the neuron matters; firing rate carries no information

c)

All sensory modalities use chemical synapses without action potentials

d)

The brain decodes signals solely by random chance

47.

What is a mechanically‑gated receptor and what is the process of changing physical energy to an action potential called?

a)

A receptor whose ion channel opens with membrane stretch; the conversion of physical energy to neural signals is transduction

b)

A receptor activated only by neurotransmitter diffusion; the conversion is translation

c)

A voltage‑gated receptor; the conversion is transformation

d)

A photopigment receptor; the conversion is replication

48.

Compare phasic vs tonic sensory receptors.

a)

Phasic receptors adapt rapidly and signal changes; tonic receptors adapt slowly and signal sustained stimuli

b)

Phasic receptors are slow‑adapting; tonic receptors are fast‑adapting

c)

Phasic receptors exist only in the visual system

d)

Tonic receptors never fire action potentials

49.

Contributions of Dr. Wilder Penfield and Michael Merzenich.

a)

Penfield mapped somatosensory and motor cortices via direct stimulation; Merzenich demonstrated cortical plasticity and its reorganization with training

b)

Penfield discovered DNA methylation; Merzenich developed MRI

c)

Penfield proved chemical neurotransmission; Merzenich discovered sodium channels

d)

Penfield mapped the hippocampus exclusively; Merzenich studied only spinal reflexes

50.

Compare A‑delta and C fibers.

a)

A‑delta fibers are myelinated and convey fast, sharp pain; C fibers are unmyelinated and convey slow, dull pain

b)

A‑delta fibers are unmyelinated and slow; C fibers are myelinated and fast

c)

Both fibers are motor efferents only

d)

Neither fiber transmits nociception

51.

Dark side of plasticity: Phantom limbs and treatment.

a)

Mirror therapy can reduce phantom limb pain by providing congruent visual feedback

b)

Cutting all remaining nerves reliably cures phantom limb pain

c)

Phantom limb pain is caused solely by inflammation at the stump

d)

Treatment requires only opioid medication

52.

How does touch, pain, and motor transmission move from PNS to/from CNS?

a)

Pain and temperature ascend primarily through the spinothalamic tract

b)

Fine touch ascends via the spinocerebellar tract only

c)

Motor commands descend through the dorsal column pathway

d)

All sensory signals ascend through the corticospinal tract

53.

Describe what sound is (what type of energy) and how it is measured.

a)

Sound is a mechanical pressure wave measured in decibels (dB) for intensity

b)

Sound is electromagnetic radiation measured in lumens

c)

Sound is chemical energy measured in molarity

d)

Sound is thermal energy measured in joules

54.

How does sound ‘look’ and how do pitch and loudness change its ‘look’?

a)

On a waveform or spectrogram, pitch corresponds to frequency (higher pitch = higher frequency) and loudness corresponds to amplitude (greater loudness = larger amplitude)

b)

Pitch is determined by amplitude; loudness is determined by wavelength

c)

Pitch and loudness cannot be represented visually

d)

Higher loudness always lowers frequency

55.

List and describe structural and functional parts of outer, middle, inner ear.

a)

The stapes of the middle ear transmits vibrations to the oval window of the cochlea to initiate fluid motion

b)

The tympanic membrane is part of the inner ear

c)

The cochlea is in the middle ear and contains the ossicles

d)

The malleus contacts the round window

56.

Which specialized cells transduce sound, and how are their transduction channels gated during hearing?

a)

Inner and outer hair cells with mechanically gated tip‑link channels on stereocilia

b)

Spiral ganglion neurons with voltage‑gated sodium channels that open to sound pressure

c)

Cochlear supporting cells with chemically gated chloride channels

d)

Auditory cortex pyramidal neurons with ligand‑gated potassium channels

57.

Which types of deafness are classically recognized in clinical neuroscience? Select all that apply.

a)

Conductive hearing loss

b)

Sensorineural hearing loss

c)

Mixed hearing loss

d)

Central visual field loss

e)

Vestibular hypofunction

58.

How did Bach‑y‑Rita rescue a perpetually falling woman with vestibular failure?

a)

By using an electrotactile tongue display to provide head‑motion signals for balance

b)

By implanting a cochlear device to amplify environmental sounds

c)

By prescribing prism glasses to shift the visual field

d)

By delivering deep brain stimulation to the thalamus

59.

Which pairing correctly matches a main structure of the eye with its primary function?

a)

Cornea: major refractive surface that initially focuses incoming light

b)

Iris: phototransduction of photons into neural signals

c)

Lens: regulates intraocular pressure by draining aqueous humor

d)

Retina: controls pupil diameter to modulate light entry

60.

Which are the principal neuronal cell types that make up the retina? Select all that apply.

a)

Photoreceptors (rods and cones)

b)

Bipolar cells

c)

Ganglion cells

d)

Horizontal cells

e)

Amacrine cells

61.

In the retina, what is the fundamental effect of light on photoreceptors and their synaptic output?

a)

Light causes photoreceptors to hyperpolarize and reduce glutamate release

b)

Light depolarizes photoreceptors, increasing glutamate release

c)

Light triggers action potentials in rods and cones that increase GABA release

d)

Light closes cGMP‑gated channels leading to increased neurotransmitter release

62.

Which brain target primarily mediates non‑image‑forming, circadian visual functions driven by intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)?

a)

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

b)

Lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

c)

Superior colliculus

d)

Primary visual cortex (V1)

63.

Which clinical tests are standard ways to evaluate vision? Select all that apply.

a)

Visual acuity testing (e.g., Snellen chart)

b)

Perimetry to assess visual fields

c)

Color vision testing (e.g., Ishihara plates)

d)

Pupillary light reflex assessment

e)

Bone conduction testing for the cochlea

64.

Which set lists the cell types in the retina’s vertical pathway from photoreception to output?

a)

Photoreceptors → bipolar cells → ganglion cells

b)

Horizontal cells → amacrine cells → ganglion cells

c)

Photoreceptors → amacrine cells → optic nerve

d)

Bipolar cells → photoreceptors → ganglion cells

65.

Which cells constitute the retina’s horizontal (lateral) pathway mediating center‑surround interactions?

a)

Horizontal and amacrine cells

b)

Photoreceptors and ganglion cells

c)

Bipolar and ganglion cells

d)

Microglia and Müller glia

66.

Which statement best describes convergence in rod versus cone pathways?

a)

Rods exhibit greater convergence onto bipolar and ganglion cells, enhancing sensitivity at the cost of acuity

b)

Cones exhibit greater convergence, maximizing sensitivity and reducing spatial resolution

c)

Both rods and cones have minimal convergence, yielding uniformly high acuity

d)

Rods have minimal convergence, optimizing fine detail at the fovea

67.

What is the fovea within the retina?

a)

A small pit with highest visual acuity due to high cone density, minimal convergence, and displaced inner layers

b)

The optic disc where ganglion cell axons exit the eye and no photoreceptors are present

c)

A peripheral region enriched in rods specialized for scotopic vision

d)

A vascularized area with dense capillaries that enhances photon capture

68.

In what ways is synaptic transmission in photoreceptors and bipolar cells special compared with typical spiking synapses? Select all that apply.

a)

Signals are graded rather than transmitted by action potentials

b)

Ribbon synapses support continuous neurotransmitter release

c)

Glutamate release is highest in darkness and decreases with light

d)

Transmission relies exclusively on electrical synapses with gap junctions

e)

Postsynaptic responses are mediated only by inhibitory receptors

69.

Which statement correctly compares and contrasts major components of the retina?

a)

Cones dominate the fovea for high‑acuity, color vision, whereas rods dominate the periphery for sensitivity in low light

b)

Rods dominate the fovea for high‑acuity vision, whereas cones dominate the periphery for color

c)

Horizontal cells convey the eye’s output to the brain via the optic nerve

d)

Ganglion cells are photoreceptors that convert photons directly into action potentials

70.

Which sequence correctly identifies the pathway from the eye to primary visual cortex (V1)?

a)

Optic nerve → optic chiasm → optic tract → LGN → optic radiations → V1

b)

Optic nerve → LGN → optic chiasm → optic tract → V1

c)

Optic tract → optic chiasm → optic nerve → V1 → LGN

d)

Optic nerve → superior colliculus → optic radiations → V1

71.

Is human vision contralaterally organized, and if so, which fibers cross and where?

a)

Yes; axons from the nasal retina cross at the optic chiasm, carrying the temporal visual field contralaterally

b)

Yes; axons from the temporal retina cross at the optic chiasm, carrying the nasal visual field contralaterally

c)

No; all retinal fibers remain ipsilateral throughout the pathway

d)

Only macular fibers cross in the LGN

72.

Which statement about photoreceptor functions and density distributions is accurate?

a)

Cones are densest at the fovea and support photopic, high‑acuity color vision; rods peak parafoveally and mediate scotopic sensitivity

b)

Rods are densest at the fovea and mediate color vision; cones peak in the periphery and support scotopic sensitivity

c)

Rods and cones are uniformly distributed across the retina

d)

Rods and cones function only in bright light

73.

Which characteristics of photoreceptors and their circuits underlie adaptation and receptive field organization? Select all that apply.

a)

Light‑dependent modulation of cGMP‑gated channels adjusts sensitivity (adaptation)

b)

Horizontal‑cell‑mediated lateral inhibition shapes center‑surround receptive fields

c)

Rod pathways saturate in bright light whereas cone pathways sustain photopic signaling

d)

Receptive fields are determined solely by ganglion cell axon diameter

e)

Adaptation is produced exclusively by the iris changing pupil size

74.

Which description correctly identifies high‑order visual processing streams and clinical implications of their disruption?

a)

Dorsal stream (parietal, “where/how”) supports spatial processing; lesions cause optic ataxia. Ventral stream (temporal, “what”) supports object recognition; lesions cause visual agnosia

b)

Ventral stream (parietal, “where”) supports spatial processing; lesions cause optic ataxia. Dorsal stream (temporal, “what”) supports object recognition; lesions cause visual agnosia

c)

Dorsal and ventral streams both originate in the LGN and bypass V1

d)

Damage to either stream produces hemianopia without higher‑order deficits