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Worksheets

Injury and Illness Final

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most common, 0.5 inch to 2 inch (1.5 inch most common); Quality varies depending on manufacturer

a)

Linen

b)

Elastic

c)

Hybrid

d)

Moleskin

e)

Rigid

2.

Can return to original length after being stretched, used when needing strong support

a)

Linen

b)

Elastic

c)

Hybrid

d)

Moleskin

e)

Rigid

3.

Combo of linen and elastic, used to cover linen tape at times

a)

Linen

b)

Elastic

c)

Hybrid

d)

Moleskin

e)

Rigid

4.

Very thick tape, expensive, used when extra support is needed

a)

Linen

b)

Elastic

c)

Hybrid

d)

Moleskin

e)

Rigid

5.

Needs special tape underneath as it cannot be applied directly, can stay on for several days

a)

Linen

b)

Elastic

c)

Hybrid

d)

Moleskin

e)

Rigid

6.

Type of Elastic tape used to decrease pain, improve function (allows for normal ROM); Can be cut into I, Y, or fan shape, can stay for several days

a)

Kinesio Tape

b)

I'm the right answer

c)

Zinc Oxide Tape

d)

Underwrap

7.

True or False; Taping techniques vary considerable between AT to AT

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Purposes of protective taping

a)

Provide support and stability

b)

Prevent injury

c)

There is no purpose

d)

To keep athletes out of sports

9.

Select methods of skin preparation

a)

Clean and dry skin (remove dirt and shave)

b)

Ensure no allergies to adhesives/tape

c)

Foam pads at high friction areas

d)

Apply underwrap in smooth fashion (protects skin)

10.

Standard version of ankle taping

a)

Closed basket weave

b)

Open basket weave

c)

Closed toe weave

d)

Open toe weave

e)

Ankle anchor

11.

Helps prevent inversion ankle sprains

a)

Closed basket weave

b)

Open basket weave

c)

Closed toe weave

d)

Open toe weave

e)

Ankle anchor

12.

Used with acute sprains to assist with preventing swelling (leaving open the front, no heel locks or figure 8s)

a)

Closed basket weave

b)

Open basket weave

c)

Closed toe weave

d)

Open basket weave

e)

Ankle anchor

13.

Restrict extension of great toe, anchor at toe

a)

Closed basket weave

b)

Open basket weave

c)

Turf toe taping

d)

Open basket weave

e)

Ankle anchor

14.

In a closed basket weave, how many stirrups are applied

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

2; 1 starts medial malleoli side and 1 starts lateral malleoli side

15.

In a closed basket weave, how many heel locks are applied

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

2; 1 starts medial malleoli side and 1 starts lateral malleoli side

16.

Taping used to give someone an arch, keeps medial foot from flattening, anchor at ball of foot

a)

Longitudinal arch

b)

Lateral arch

c)

Medial arch

d)

Foot arch

17.

Restricts dorsiflexion (prevent stretching Achilles)

a)

Longitudinal arch

b)

Elbow, Wrist, and Hand taping

c)

Collateral knee ligament taping

d)

Achilles tendon taping

18.

Uses fans to stabilize either side provides eternal support to knee joint, not done often (bracing is easier)

a)

Longitudinal arch

b)

Elbow, Wrist, and Hand taping

c)

Collateral knee ligament taping

d)

Achilles tendon taping

19.

For hyperextensions in these areas, used to stabilize joints

a)

Longitudinal arch

b)

Elbow, Wrist, and Hand taping

c)

Collateral knee ligament taping

d)

Achilles tendon taping

20.

CSA certification is required for

a)

Football helmets

b)

Eye guards and ice hockey helmets

c)

Shoulder pads

d)

Thigh pads

21.

Protective equipment must:

a)

Be durable

b)

Allow movement

c)

Dissipate forces

d)

Wear away as sport progresses

e)

Restrict movement

22.

Sports the NOCSAE sets standards for

a)

Football

b)

Softball

c)

Baseball (helmets)

d)

Ice Hockey

e)

Basketball

23.

Prevent excessive head motion, attached to shoulder pads (used in ice hockey or football)

a)

Nose guards

b)

Mouth guards

c)

Neck rolls

d)

Headgear

24.

Rules for fitting a football helmet

a)

Interior must be 1 finger width above eyebrow, fits snug against forehead

b)

Ear hole lines up with canal, neck pad snug to head

c)

Cheek pads fit against cheeks, chin straps snug and square to chin

d)

Face mask: 3 finger width from nose, lower than the chin

e)

Interior must be loose and 1 finger width above the eyebrow, fits loose against forehead

25.

Other helmet rules

a)

Lacrosse: 4 point chin strap, NOCSAE standards

b)

Batting: NOCASE standards, earflaps little league through college

c)

Batting: must have cage, earflaps little league through college

d)

Lacrosse: 2 point chin strap, NOCSAE standards

26.

Facts about football face masks

a)

QBs and Receivers- no center bar

b)

Running/Defensive backs- center bar

c)

Running/Defensive backs- no center bar

d)

Linemen, Defensive ends, linebackers- extended masks with center bar

e)

Linemen, Defensive ends, linebackers- no center bar

27.

Three types of hockey face masks

a)

Full wire: small square openings

b)

Full plastic: clear plastic, required for college age and younger

c)

Half plastic: Professional players

d)

Half plastic: required for college age and younger

e)

Full plastic: small square openings

28.

For football and lacrosse, designed for position (Ex: QBs have small ones, lacrosse ones are thin)

a)

Shoulder pads

b)

Shoulder lifts

c)

Elbow pads

d)

Hand pads

29.

Thinner padding, worn under shoulder pads to provide additional padding

a)

Shoulder pads

b)

Shoulder lifts

c)

Elbow pads

d)

Hand pads

30.

pull on pads/elbow sleeves for protection

a)

Shoulder pads

b)

Shoulder lifts

c)

Elbow pads

d)

Hand pads

31.

Similar to gloves, protect bony areas

a)

Shoulder pads

b)

Shoulder lifts

c)

Elbow pads

d)

Hand pads

32.

Ways to protect sternum and thorax

a)

Rib protector

b)

Chest protector

c)

Thigh protector

d)

Stomach protector

e)

Back protector

33.

Types of foot protection

a)

Heel cups

b)

Arch supports

c)

Heel pads

d)

There are none

34.

Three types of ankle braces that are reusable and less expensive tan tape

a)

Elastic

b)

Lace-up

c)

Hinged

d)

Rigid

e)

Linen

35.

Excessive body temperature

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Dehydration

36.

Body temp drops below 95, extreme cold (body tries to conserve heat)

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Dehydration

37.

Prolonged exposure to hot, humid conditions (Heavy sweating, clammy, muscle cramps, fatigue)

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Heat Exhaustion

d)

Dehydration

38.

Extended exposure to cold, superficial freezing of issue (Pale, cold skin, loss of sensation); Ears, nose, fingers vulnerable

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Heat Exhaustion

d)

Frostnip

39.

Prolonged exposure to hot, humid conditions (Heavy sweating, clammy, muscle cramps, fatigue)

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Heat Exhaustion

d)

Dehydration

40.

Disorder where body has difficulty clotting blood (safe sports: swimming, cycling)

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Heat Exhaustion

d)

Hemophilia

41.

Which gland regulates body temperature, hunger, and thirst

a)

Pineal

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pituitary

d)

Adrenal

42.

Results from dehydration and loss of sodium from sweating

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Dehydration

c)

Over exertion

d)

Heat sweats

43.

1 of top three killers of athletes and soldiers (takes 7-14 days for body to adapt to exercising in the heat)

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Dehydration

c)

Exertional Heat Stroke

d)

Heat sweats

44.

Dangerously low blood sodium levels caused from drinking excessive water (intracellular swelling, vomiting, disorientation, headache, seizures)

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Exertional Heat Stroke

d)

Heat sweats

45.

Condition caused by inadequate caloric intake affecting multiple body systems, affects both men and women (athletes)

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Relative Energy Deficiency in Sport (RED-S)

d)

Heat sweats

46.

Fainting/Dizziness due to high temperatures

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Dehydration

c)

Heat syncope

d)

Heat sweats

47.

Select the signs of heat stroke

a)

Body temp over 104

b)

Hot, red, dry skin

c)

Confusion

d)

Rapid, strong pulse

e)

Shivering and pale skin

48.

True or False; Most accurate way to determine core body temp is by a rectal thermometer

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Approximate percent dehydration can reduce muscle strength by

a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

5%

d)

3%

50.

Process that cools the body

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Precipiatation

d)

Sling psychrometer

51.

Comprehensive representation of environmental conditions, solar radiation and wind speed factored in

a)

Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT)

b)

Wet Bulb Geographical Temperature (WBGT)

c)

Wind Blur Globe Technical (WBGT)

52.

Measures temperature read by thermometer covered in wet cloth, mirrors how human body cools itself with sweat

a)

Wet bulb

b)

Black globe

c)

Dry bulb

53.

Used to measure solar radiation, heats globe and wind blow across cooling it

a)

Wet bulb

b)

Black globe

c)

Dry bulb

54.

Calculates air temp measured in shade

a)

Wet bulb

b)

Black globe

c)

Dry bulb

55.

Select the rules for tornadoes

a)

Indoors: low, reinforced area (bathroom, closet)

b)

Outdoors: Low ditch and lie as flat as possible

c)

Do not get into or stay in a car

d)

Stay in a car, get in the trunk

e)

Indoors: Hide in a reinforced room with lots of windows

56.

True or False; Horseflies are the most common sting/bite

a)

True

b)

False; Bee stings are most common

57.

How long should you wait after a lightning strike before resuming play

a)

30 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

1 hour

58.

Common signs/symptoms of asthma

a)

Shortness of breath, Wheezing

b)

Allergies, Emotional distress, Exercise

c)

Coughing

d)

Rash

59.

Body system affected by asthma

a)

Digestive

b)

Respiratory

c)

Cardiovascular

d)

Nervous

60.

Normal adult bp

a)

120/80

b)

140/90

c)

100/70

d)

160/100

61.

High bp, often above 140/90

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Type 2 diabetes

62.

Electrical rhythms in brain are interrupted, causes can be chemical, neurological, infectious, or traumatic

a)

Hypertension

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Type 2 diabetes

63.

shaking, loss of consciousness, loss of bladder control

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Grand Mal Seizures

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Gout

64.

Inflammation of joints which leads to changes in joint surface (swelling, joint deformity, pain, stiffness)

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Grand Mal Seizures

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Gout

65.

Uric acid builds in joint, painful (lots of swelling, hard to move joint, usually in one joint)

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Grand Mal Seizures

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Gout

66.

Systemic condition that attacks synovial joints, over growth of connective tissue, debilitating (feet and hands most common)

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Grand Mal Seizures

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Gout

67.

Menstrual cycle not started by 16, Cessation of menstruation; Caused by low body weight, high stress, eating disorder

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Grand Mal Seizures

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Osteoporosis

68.

Loss of bone density, Caused by poor nutrition, hormonal imbalance (high risk of fractures)

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Rhabdomyolysis

c)

Grand Mal Seizures

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Osteoporosis

69.

Serious condition caused by muscle injury from blow/overwork, muscle fibers die, blood absorbs toxins and kidney cannot excrete them (tissue damage)

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Rhabdomyolysis

c)

Grand Mal Seizures

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Osteoporosis

70.

Low blood pressure, caused by dehydration, blood loss, or medications

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Hypotension

71.

Lack of iron in body, usually from diet

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Type 2 diabetes

72.

Abnormally shaped red blood cells, reduce oxygen delivery

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Type 2 diabetes

73.

Body cannot produce insulin

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Type 2 diabetes

74.

Body produces insulin but cannot use it

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Type 2 diabetes

75.

Taking insulin but failing to eat, blood sugar stays low (Lightheadedness, weak, headache)

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Insulin shock

76.

Referred pain from appendicitis is usually located in the

a)

Lower right abdomen

b)

Lower left abdomen

c)

Upper right abdomen

d)

Back

77.

Signs of hyperglycemia

a)

Frequent urination

b)

Excessive thirst

c)

Fatigue

d)

Rash

e)

Decrease in iron in bloodstream

78.

Sickle cell crises can occur because

a)

Cells stick to vessel walls causing blockage in capillaries

b)

Fever rises

c)

Blood sugar crashes

d)

Too much oxygen delivered

79.

True or False; Athletes should eat foods easy to digest before games

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Heartburn occurs when:

a)

Stomach acid enters esophagus

b)

Stomach is empty

c)

Body temp rises

d)

Blood sugar is low

81.

Diabetes that occurs only in pregnant women

a)

Type 1 Diabetes

b)

Type 2 Diabetes

c)

Type 3 Diabetes

d)

Gestational Diabetes

82.

Showing signs toward type 2 diabetes, blood sugar levels are high (blood glucose higher than 130)

a)

Type 1 Diabetes

b)

Type 2 Diabetes

c)

Type 3 Diabetes

d)

Gestational Diabetes

e)

Prediabetes

83.

True or False; Pre existing conditions should be identified on the pre participation screen or health history intake forms

a)

True

b)

False

84.

True or False; Caffeine is considered a stimulant

a)

True

b)

False

85.

A major side effect of excessive caffeine intake in athletes is

a)

Improved strength

b)

Dehydration due to diuretic effect

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Decreased heart rate

86.

Nicotine causes

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Increased breathing rate

d)

Improved endurance

e)

Nothing changes

87.

Alcohol is classified as a

a)

Stimulant

b)

Depressant

c)

Steroid

d)

Narcotic

88.

Blood doping helps athletes by:

a)

Increasing red blood cells for better oxygen delivery

b)

Increasing joint mobility

c)

Strengthening bones

d)

Improving vision

89.

Substance other than food that can change body's chemistry (Ingested, Inhaled, Under tongue, Injected, Topical)

a)

Drug

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Caffeine

d)

Tobacco

90.

Have medical purpose, may be prescribed by a physician; Used to treat disease or infection

a)

Therapeutic Drugs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Non-Steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)

d)

Local Steriods

91.

Ex: Aspirin, Ibuprofen; relieve pain, fever, and inflammation

a)

Therapeutic Drugs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Non-Steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)

d)

Local Steriods

92.

Injected/Applied to skin, reduce swelling and pain (can only have 2-3 injections per year)

a)

Therapeutic Drugs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Non-Steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)

d)

Local Steriods

93.

Maintain airway, prescription only (Used with asthmatics in inhalers)

a)

Beta-adrenergic drugs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Non-Steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)

d)

Local Steroids

94.

Fight bacterial infections by assisting white blood cells

a)

Beta-adrenergic drugs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Non-Steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)

d)

Local Steroids

95.

Alcohol facts

a)

Liver must process the alcohol as a toxin

b)

Take liver 1 hour 20 minutes to detoxify 1 drink

c)

Loss of consciousness occurs when content is 0.4%

d)

Excessive drinking=cirrhosis

96.

Using combo of different steroids over period of time to avoid taking single high dose at once

a)

Stacking

b)

Delaying

c)

Drugging

97.

What is a dietary supplement according to the FDA

a)

Only vitamins and minerals

b)

Any substance used to enhance athletic performance

c)

Vitamins, minerals, herbs, amino acids, etc

d)

Only plant based extracts

98.

Approximately what percentage of athletes use dietary supplements

a)

10-20%

b)

25-30%

c)

58-62%

d)

90-95%

99.

What major law defines dietary supplement regulation in the U.S.

a)

FDA Purity Act

b)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)

c)

Nutrition Information Act

d)

Supplement Safety Initiative

100.

Water soluble vitamins

a)

Vitamin B

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin D

e)

Vitamin K

101.

Fat soluble Vitamins

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin E

e)

Vitamin B

102.

Third party testing ensures

a)

Supplement tastes good

b)

Ingredients match label and contain no banned substances

c)

Cheaper cost

d)

Bigger packaging

103.

Top supplements used

a)

Multivitamins, Vitamin C

b)

Protein products

c)

Sports drinks, Sports bars, Energy drinks

104.

Results of a positive drug test

a)

Loss of scholarship

b)

Ban from play

c)

Stripping of medals

d)

Monetary fines

e)

Criminal charges

105.

Law defining and regulating dietary supplements, passed in 1994

a)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)

b)

Random Medicine Act

c)

Comprehensive Dietary Education Act (CDEA)

106.

Red flag on supplement labels

a)

Small font size

b)

Proprietary blend

c)

Contains electrolytes

d)

Includes serving size

107.

Supplement categories most likely to be recalled

a)

Hydration products

b)

Muscle building, weight loss

c)

Sexual enchancement

d)

Vitamin supplements

e)

Probiotics

108.

Why are proprietary blends a concern

a)

More expensive

b)

Ingredients are hidden

c)

Contain only vitamins

d)

Contain only protein

e)

Improve performance

109.

There is a reasonable probability that the use or exposure to a product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death

a)

Class I Recall

b)

Class 2 Recall

c)

Class 3 Recall

110.

Health concerns with dietary supplements

a)

Cardiovascular issues- Hypertension, cardiac issues and death

b)

Renal issues- Kidney damage can occur, especially with supplements with herbs

c)

Hepatic issues- 20% drug induced liver injuries

d)

Seizures- Acute neurotoxicity can occur after ingestion of dietary supplements

e)

Medication Interactions- Can react to medication

111.

WADA prohibited at all times

a)

Anabolic agents

b)

Beta-2 agonists

c)

Peptide hormones, growth factors, related substances or mimetics

d)

Diuretics or masking agents

112.

WADA prohibited in competition

a)

Stimulants

b)

Narcotics

c)

Cannabinoids

d)

Glucocorticoids

113.

Enhancing physical performance

a)

Ergogenic

b)

Interstellar

c)

Food safe

114.

Which regulating body's recognized supplements were used for this presentation

a)

FDA

b)

World Anti Doping Agency

c)

International Olympic Committee

d)

NCAA

115.

Caffeine is classified as which type of compound

a)

Amino acid

b)

Natural alkaloid

c)

Simple carbohydrate

d)

Organic acid

116.

Recommended starting dose of caffeine for athletes

a)

0.5 mg/kg

b)

1-3 mg/kg (~200 mg)

c)

10 mg/kg

d)

No less than 600 mg

117.

Where is creatine primarily stored in body

a)

Liver

b)

Brain

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

Heart

118.

Main function of Phosphocreatine (PCr) in muscle

a)

Increase fat oxidation

b)

Provide immediate energy 15-20 seconds

c)

Improve oxygen uptake

d)

Break down lactate

119.

Why do some individuals not respond to creatine supplementation

a)

Have more Type 1 muscle fibers

b)

Muscle creatine is already near maximum

c)

Lactose intolerant

d)

Don't eat enough carbs

120.

Primary performance of beta-alanine

a)

Increased VO2 max

b)

Reduced fat mass

c)

Improved performance in 60-24 second high intensity events

d)

Enhanced flexibility

121.

Foods high in nitrate

a)

Red meat

b)

Dairy

c)

Green leafy and root veggies

d)

Citrus fruits

122.

____ kal = 1 gram carb

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

9

123.

____ kal = 1 gram protein

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

9

124.

____ kal = 1 gram fat

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

9

125.

% of carbs in diet

a)

Non athletes- 40-65%

b)

Athletes- 55-65%

126.

How much of diet should come from fats

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

50%

127.

How much protein should make up diet

a)

5-10%

b)

10-15%

c)

15-20%

d)

30-40%

128.

Healthy weight loss should not exceed

a)

0.5 lbs per week

b)

1-2 lbs per week

c)

5 lbs per week

129.

What BMI qualifies as obese

a)

18

b)

22

c)

30+

130.

Micronutrients

a)

Vitamins

b)

Minerals

c)

Protein

d)

Water

e)

Fats

131.

True or False; calories in and out = energy balance

a)

True

b)

False

132.

Calories in > Calories out

a)

Weight gain

b)

Weight loss

c)

Maintance weight

133.

Calories in < Calories out

a)

Weight gain

b)

Weight loss

c)

Maintance weight

134.

Calories in = Calories out

a)

Weight gain

b)

Weight loss

c)

Maintance weight

135.

Examples of simple carbs

a)

Honey

b)

Fruit

c)

Whole grain bread

d)

Soda

e)

Sports drinks

136.

Examples of complex carbs

a)

Whole grain bread

b)

Pasta

c)

Cereal

d)

Candy

e)

Vegetables

137.

Pregame meals

a)

High in carbs and fluids

b)

Avoid spices

c)

Eat 3-4 hours prior

d)

Balanced food that’s familiar

138.

Postgame meals

a)

Complex carbs with protein and fat

b)

Replenish water

c)

Eat tons of candy

d)

Avoid spices

139.

How much carbs should athlete consume post exercise first 4-6 hours

a)

0.5 g/kg

b)

1-1.2 g/kg

c)

2 g/kg

d)

3-4 g/kg

140.

Muscle damage affects glycogen recovery because

a)

Speeds glycogen synthesis

b)

Fully prevents glycogen storage

c)

Doesn’t affect glycogen storage

d)

Impairs glycogen synthesis

141.

When is muscle protein synthesis elevated after protein intake

a)

1 hour

b)

3-5 hours

c)

Up to 24 hours

d)

Only during exercise

142.

How much protein should be consumed before sleep for recovery

a)

10-20 g

b)

20-40 g

c)

5-10 g

143.

Most common injury for athletes, especially football; stiffness of connective tissue dependent on collagen

a)

Soft tissue injuries

b)

Muscle injuries

c)

Hard tissue injuries

d)

Tissue injuries

144.

Select some recovery techniques

a)

Hydrotherapy

b)

Active recovery

c)

Massage

d)

Stretching