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pathology practice quiz

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient has chest pain and biopsy shows loss of nuclei with preserved cell outlines. What type of necrosis is this?

a)

Liquefactive

b)

Coagulative

c)

Caseous

d)

Fat

2.

A liver biopsy shows fatty change from long-term alcohol use. What type of cell injury is this?

a)

Reversible injury

b)

Irreversible injury

c)

Coagulative necrosis

d)

Gangrene

3.

A lymph node biopsy shows shrunken eosinophilic cells with fragmented nuclei (apoptotic bodies). What process is seen?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Autolysis

d)

Coagulation

4.

Tuberculosis lesion shows cheese-like material. What type of necrosis?

a)

Fat

b)

Caseous

c)

Liquefactive

d)

Fibrinoid

5.

Brain infarction produces soft, liquefied tissue. What necrosis is this?

a)

Liquefactive

b)

Coagulative

c)

Fat

d)

Gangrenous

6.

A patient with chronic hypertension shows increased left ventricular wall thickness. What adaptation is this?

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Atrophy

d)

Metaplasia

7.

A smoker’s bronchi show replacement of columnar epithelium with squamous epithelium. What adaptation?

a)

Dysplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Hyperplasia

d)

Hypertrophy

8.

Cells show increased eosinophilia and membrane rupture after ischemia. What process?

a)

Reversible injury

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Necrosis

d)

Autophagy

9.

Atherosclerotic plaque rupture shows deposits of calcium around dead cells. What is this?

a)

Dystrophic calcification

b)

Metastatic calcification

c)

Hyalinization

d)

Amyloidosis

10.

Hyperparathyroidism leads to calcium deposition in normal tissues. This is:

a)

Dystrophic calcification

b)

Metastatic calcification

c)

Caseous necrosis

d)

Fibrinoid necrosis

11.

Muscle wasting after limb immobilization is:

a)

Atrophy

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Metaplasia

d)

Hyperplasia

12.

A thyroid gland shows increased cell number due to elevated TSH. This is:

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Hyperplasia

c)

Metaplasia

d)

Dysplasia

13.

Pancreatitis shows chalky white deposits in fat tissue. Which necrosis?

a)

Fat

b)

Caseous

c)

Coagulative

d)

Liquefactive

14.

Immune-mediated vasculitis shows bright pink necrotic vessel walls. What necrosis?

a)

Caseous

b)

Fibrinoid

c)

Fat

d)

Gangrene

15.

A diabetic foot turns black and dry. What is this?

a)

Wet gangrene

b)

Dry gangrene

c)

Gas gangrene

d)

Liquefactive necrosis

16.

A patient’s colon becomes swollen and dark after bacterial infection in dead tissue. This is:

a)

Dry gangrene

b)

Wet gangrene

c)

Caseous necrosis

d)

Fibrinoid necrosis

17.

Cells show DNA fragmentation but intact membranes. This describes:

a)

Necrosis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Atrophy

d)

Autophagy

18.

A brain infarct shows cystic space formation. What process explains this?

a)

Coagulative necrosis

b)

Liquefactive necrosis

c)

Atrophy

d)

Calcification

19.

A patient taking chronic steroids shows smaller adrenal cortex. This is:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Atrophy

d)

Metaplasia

20.

A biopsy shows early reversible injury. Which finding is typical?

a)

Karyolysis

b)

Cell swelling

c)

Eosinophilic cytoplasm

d)

Nuclear fragmentation

21.

A cut shows redness and warmth. These are caused by:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Platelet activation

d)

Edema

22.

A pus-filled abscess mainly contains:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Macrophages

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

23.

Chronic inflammation of the lung shows clusters of macrophages. What describes this pattern?

a)

Abscess

b)

Granuloma

c)

Fibrosis

d)

Edema

24.

A patient with asthma shows eosinophils in sputum. This is linked to:

a)

Parasites

b)

Viral infection

c)

Allergic inflammation

d)

Fungal infection

25.

Adhesion of leukocytes to endothelium is mediated by:

a)

Histamine

b)

Integrins

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Collagen

26.

Edema in acute inflammation results from:

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Increased vascular permeability

c)

Increased lymphatic flow

d)

Decreased plasma proteins

27.

A biopsy shows multinucleated giant cells. This is typical of:

a)

Acute inflammation

b)

Chronic granulomatous inflammation

c)

Edema

d)

Necrotizing fasciitis

28.

A wound shows fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition. This is the stage of:

a)

Acute inflammation

b)

Chronic inflammation

c)

Resolution

d)

Tissue remodeling

29.

An allergic reaction releases histamine. Which effect is caused?

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Vasodilation + permeability

c)

Fibrosis

d)

Thrombosis

30.

Formation of pus suggests:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Neutrophil-rich inflammation

c)

Macrophage activation

d)

Fibrosis

31.

A wound becomes swollen due to leaking plasma proteins. What mechanism?

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Endothelial contraction

c)

Platelet adhesion

d)

Fibrosis

32.

Chronic inflammation shows mainly:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Lymphocytes and macrophages

c)

Basophils

d)

Platelets

33.

A granuloma forms around TB bacteria. What cell dominates?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Macrophage

d)

Mast cell

34.

Chemotaxis primarily involves:

a)

RBCs

b)

WBC movement toward injury

c)

Platelets

d)

Collagen

35.

Fever in inflammation happens due to:

a)

IL-1 and TNF

b)

IgE

c)

Complement

d)

Histamine

36.

Chronic inflammation causes tissue destruction due to:

a)

Platelets

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Macrophage enzymes

d)

Complement C5a

37.

A patient has a viral infection. Which WBC is increased?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophils

38.

A wound shows blood vessel sprouting. This process is:

a)

Scar maturation

b)

Angiogenesis

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Necrosis

39.

Hypertension damages endothelial cells leading to chronic inflammation. Which molecule increases adhesion?

a)

Heparin

b)

Selectins

c)

Albumin

d)

Collagen

40.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis shows thick inflamed synovium. This is:

a)

Acute inflammation

b)

Chronic autoimmune inflammation

c)

Necrosis

d)

Edema

41.

A patient with right-sided heart failure develops leg swelling. What causes this edema?

a)

Increased plasma proteins

b)

Increased hydrostatic pressure

c)

Lymphatic blockage

d)

Sodium loss

42.

A nephrotic syndrome patient shows low albumin and body swelling. Select right mechanism?

a)

High hydrostatic pressure

b)

Low oncotic pressure

c)

Lymphatic obstruction

d)

Inflammation

43.

A woman has pinpoint red skin spots after platelet count drops. Select right diagnosis?

a)

Hematoma

b)

Ecchymosis

c)

Purpura

d)

Petechiae

44.

Trauma leads to a large blue-purple skin patch. This is:

a)

Petechiae

b)

Purpura

c)

Ecchymosis

d)

Thrombus

45.

A patient has liver cirrhosis with abdominal fluid. Mechanism?

a)

Increased oncotic pressure

b)

Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal vein

c)

Decreased sodium

d)

Increased lymphatic drainage

46.

A deep vein thrombosis forms due to stasis. This relates to:

a)

Virchow's triad

b)

Complement activation

c)

Gangrene

d)

Apoptosis

47.

A septic patient develops warm skin and low blood pressure. Which shock?

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Septic

d)

Neurogenic

48.

A patient with massive blood loss becomes pale with rapid pulse. What shock?

a)

Septic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Neurogenic

49.

A heart attack causes pump failure and hypotension. Which shock?

a)

Septic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Hypovolemic

d)

Hemolytic

50.

A patient on warfarin develops spontaneous bruises. Reason?

a)

Platelet dysfunction

b)

Clotting factor deficiency

c)

Vessel rupture

d)

Leukopenia

51.

A man with DIC shows widespread microthrombi. What is the major danger?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Organ failure

c)

Platelet overproduction

d)

Increased RBC count

52.

A woman develops swelling due to lymphatic obstruction from tumor. This edema results from:

a)

High hydrostatic pressure

b)

Low oncotic pressure

c)

Lymphatic blockage

d)

Sodium depletion

53.

A patient in shock has cold, clammy skin. This suggests:

a)

Septic shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Allergic shock

d)

Neurogenic shock

54.

A child has bleeding under the skin in patches 3–10 mm. This is:

a)

Petechiae

b)

Purpura

c)

Hematoma

d)

Ecchymosis

55.

A lung shows blood-filled alveoli after heart failure. What is this?

a)

Edema

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Infarction

d)

Atrophy

56.

Atherosclerosis leads to vessel narrowing and tissue ischemia. What complication may follow?

a)

Fat necrosis

b)

Coagulative necrosis

c)

Caseous necrosis

d)

Hydropic change

57.

A patient with hypertension develops microaneurysms in vessels. What type of hemorrhage may occur?

a)

Petechiae

b)

Purpura

c)

Ecchymosis

d)

Hematoma

58.

A cancer patient develops thrombosis due to tissue factor release. Mechanism?

a)

Platelet deficiency

b)

Hypercoagulability

c)

Vasodilation

d)

High fibrinolysis

59.

A patient with anaphylaxis becomes hypotensive. What shock?

a)

Septic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Hypovolemic

d)

Anaphylactic

60.

A patient’s leg shows pitting edema. What substance accumulates?

a)

Blood

b)

Protein-poor fluid

c)

Pus

d)

Calcium

61.

Chronic liver disease reduces albumin production. This causes:

a)

Increased oncotic pressure

b)

Decreased oncotic pressure

c)

Increased hydrostatic pressure

d)

Lymphatic obstruction

62.

A person with long flight immobility develops DVT. What part of Virchow’s triad?

a)

Hypercoagulability

b)

Endothelial injury

c)

Stasis

d)

Vessel compression

63.

A patient with bacterial meningitis develops petechiae. Cause?

a)

Low WBC

b)

Platelet consumption in DIC

c)

Increased RBC

d)

Dehydration

64.

A child with vitamin C deficiency has gum bleeding. Mechanism?

a)

Platelet disorder

b)

Vessel wall fragility

c)

Clotting factor deficiency

d)

High fibrin

65.

A patient with pulmonary embolism shows sudden dyspnea. Source is usually:

a)

Arterial thrombus

b)

Leg DVT

c)

Heart valve

d)

Aneurysm

66.

A man has a red, swollen limb after venous thrombosis. What causes the redness?

a)

Arterial block

b)

Increased hydrostatic pressure

c)

Tissue necrosis

d)

Dehydration

67.

A teenage girl with nosebleeds and heavy menses has normal platelets but prolonged PTT. This suggests:

a)

Platelet defect

b)

Coagulation factor defect

c)

Vessel fragility

d)

Polycythemia

68.

An elderly patient collapses with low blood pressure after myocardial infarction. Likely outcome of shock?

a)

Complete recovery

b)

Multi-organ failure

c)

Hypercoagulation

d)

Pitting edema

69.

A man has pink frothy sputum after left-sided heart failure. This is:

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Hematoma

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Purpura

70.

A patient with splenomegaly has low platelets and widespread small bleeding spots. This is:

a)

Petechiae

b)

Ecchymosis

c)

Purpura

d)

Hematoma