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Prof ed set 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process of breaking down complex skills into smaller learnable units is called:

a)

Differentiation

b)

Task analysis

c)

Scaffolding

d)

Chunking

2.

A teacher encourages students to formulate their own problem-solving strategies. This approach is:

a)

Constructivist

b)

Behaviorist

c)

Essentialist

d)

Perennialist

3.

“Learning is strengthened when accompanied by satisfaction.” This refers to Thorndike’s:

a)

Law of Exercise

b)

Law of Effect

c)

Law of Readiness

d)

Law of Intensity

4.

Which principle supports inquiry-based learning?

a)

Learners are passive absorbers

b)

Knowledge is transmitted

c)

Learners construct meaning

d)

Objectives are fixed

5.

The type of motivation where learning occurs due to personal satisfaction:

a)

Extrinsic

b)

Situational

c)

Intrinsic

d)

Operational

6.

A lesson that begins with examples before deriving a rule uses:

a)

Deductive method

b)

Inductive method

c)

Transductive method

d)

Reflective method

7.

A teacher adjusts activities for slow, average, and fast learners. This is:

a)

Remediation

b)

Mastery learning

c)

Differentiated instruction

d)

Enrichment

8.

The teacher lets learners work together to solve a complex task. This is an example of:

a)

Reciprocal teaching

b)

Cooperative learning

c)

Problem-based learning

d)

Peer tutoring

9.

The principle “from concrete to abstract” follows:

a)

Gestalt psychology

b)

Bruner’s modes

c)

Skinner’s Operant theory

d)

Piaget’s cognitive stages

10.

Teacher enhances previous knowledge then connects new topics, This is:

a)

Transfer of learning

b)

Readiness

c)

Spiral progression

d)

Class bridging

11.

The overall blueprint of learning experiences is the:

a)

Syllabus

b)

Lesson plan

c)

Curriculum

d)

Scheme of work

12.

Who introduced the cyclical model: planning → implementing → evaluating?

a)

Taba

b)

Tyler

c)

Goodlad

d)

Dewey

13.

The K–12 curriculum’s nature is:

a)

Subject-centered

b)

Learner-centered

c)

Experience-centered

d)

Teacher-centered

14.

The alignment of intended outcomes, teaching methods, and assessment is called:

a)

Scaffolding

b)

Backward design

c)

Vertical articulation

d)

Curriculum mapping

15.

A curriculum that integrates real-life problems across subjects:

a)

Core curriculum

b)

Hidden curriculum

c)

Interdisciplinary

d)

Remedial curriculum

16.

Curriculum evaluation primarily measures:

a)

Textbook quality

b)

Student study habits

c)

Program effectiveness

d)

Teaching performance

17.

A sudden shift from face-to-face to online learning is an example of:

a)

Linear change

b)

Planned change

c)

Unplanned change

d)

Policy-driven change

18.

DepEd’s MELCs are examples of:

a)

Content standards

b)

Learning competencies

c)

Performance standards

d)

Process standards

19.

The spiral progression approach is most evident in:

a)

Math & Science

b)

MAPEH

c)

PE

d)

Filipino

20.

Curriculum decongestion means:

a)

Adding more activities

b)

Removing unrelated competencies

c)

Increasing test items

d)

Repeating topics in higher grades

21.

A child who can think logically only with real objects is under Piaget’s:

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Preoperational

c)

Concrete operational

d)

Formal operational

22.

Erikson’s stage for adolescents struggling with values and identity:

a)

Industry vs. Inferiority

b)

Identity vs. Role confusion

c)

Autonomy vs. Shame

d)

Intimacy vs. Isolation

23.

Vygotsky’s ZPD refers to:

a)

Tasks done alone

b)

Tasks with assistance

c)

Tasks too difficult

d)

Tasks mastered

24.

“Play is the work of the child.” Who emphasized this?

a)

Maria Montessori

b)

Jean Piaget

c)

Lev Vygotsky

d)

Erik Erikson

25.

The ability to see things from others’ perspectives is:

a)

Egocentrism

b)

Conservation

c)

Decentering

d)

Assimilation

26.

A student who acts shy and avoids social interaction shows which development concern?

a)

Emotional

b)

Moral

c)

Physical

d)

Cognitive

27.

Bandura’s Social Learning Theory emphasizes:

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Observation

c)

Punishment

d)

Conditioning

28.

A student who has difficulty controlling impulses reflects weakness in:

a)

Executive function

b)

Psychosocial stability

c)

Sensorimotor control

d)

Abstract reasoning

29.

The stage when children understand rules and fairness:

a)

Pre-conventional

b)

Conventional

c)

Post-conventional

d)

Amoral

30.

A child who can follow 3-step instructions is at what development area?

a)

Cognitive

b)

Gross motor

c)

Socio-emotional

d)

Language

31.

The type of media delivering real-time interaction:

a)

Asynchronous

b)

Synchronous

c)

Digital print

d)

Non-projected

32.

Zoom classes are examples of:

a)

Blended learning

b)

Modular learning

c)

Face-to-face

d)

Informal learning

33.

The most accessible technology for remote areas:

a)

Computer labs

b)

Internet modules

c)

Printed modules

d)

Smartboards

34.

A simulation program used for practicing a skill is:

a)

Drill-and-practice

b)

Tutorial

c)

Virtual lab

d)

Blog

35.

Technology that supports student-generated content:

a)

LMS quiz

b)

Wikis

c)

PowerPoint

d)

Scanner

36.

The ethical use of ICT in school emphasizes:

a)

Filtering websites

b)

Digital citizenship

c)

Hardware maintenance

d)

Virtual storage

37.

The best tool for interactive visualization:

a)

Chalkboard

b)

Globe

c)

AR/VR

d)

Bulletin board

38.

Flipped classroom model highlights:

a)

Teacher lectures at class

b)

Students watch lectures at home

c)

Students memorize before class

d)

Homework is removed

39.

The use of YouTube videos in class is an example of:

a)

Integration

b)

Immersion

c)

Technology literacy

d)

Computer programming

40.

A teacher who designs her own online quiz is at what skill level?

a)

Routine

b)

Adoption

c)

Transformation

d)

Entry

41.

A test that measures what it intends to measure has:

a)

Reliability

b)

Validity

c)

Objectivity

d)

Usability

42.

A placement test is given to:

a)

Diagnose learning

b)

Form a baseline

c)

Determine readiness level

d)

Certify mastery

43.

When students check each other’s work, this is:

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Peer assessment

d)

Self-reflection

44.

The W in a rubric’s analytic scoring stands for:

a)

Weight

b)

Word choice

c)

Weakness

d)

Width

45.

A test question that cues the correct answer violates:

a)

Construct validity

b)

Test fairness

c)

Test reliability

d)

Content alignment

46.

A performance-based task measures:

a)

Memory

b)

Application of skills

c)

Recognition

d)

Recall only

47.

Table of Specifications aligns:

a)

Objectives with teaching

b)

Test items with objectives

c)

Content with textbooks

d)

Curriculum with teachers

48.

“On-the-spot” questions used to check understanding refer to:

a)

Formative checks

b)

Summative tests

c)

High-stakes tests

d)

Evaluative tests

49.

What is the simplest measure of central tendency?

a)

Median

b)

Mode

c)

Mean

d)

Variance

50.

A test with similar results when repeated shows:

a)

Reliability

b)

Validity

c)

Authenticity

d)

Practicality

51.

Learning through discovery best aligns with:

a)

Behaviorism

b)

Cognitivism

c)

Constructivism

d)

Nativism

52.

Schema theory emphasizes:

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Mental structures

c)

Stimulus-response

d)

Rewards

53.

A student relates new lessons to past experiences. This is:

a)

Transfer

b)

Assimilation

c)

Accommodation

d)

Connectionism

54.

To reduce cognitive overload, a teacher must:

a)

Add more tasks

b)

Present information in chunks

c)

Increase time

d)

Remove visuals

55.

A student motivated by rewards exhibits:

a)

Intrinsic motivation

b)

Extrinsic motivation

c)

Social motivation

d)

Independent motivation

56.

A learner who learns best by manipulating objects is:

a)

Visual

b)

Auditory

c)

Tactile

d)

Verbal

57.

The process of providing temporary support to a learner:

a)

Modeling

b)

Scaffolding

c)

Reinforcing

d)

Observing

58.

A teacher tapping students’ interests uses:

a)

Social learning

b)

Humanistic approach

c)

Gestalt view

d)

Convergent thinking

59.

According to Ausubel, the most important factor in learning is:

a)

Drill

b)

Meaningful reception

c)

Reinforcement

d)

Rewards

60.

A student struggling with abstract reasoning is likely at:

a)

Preoperational

b)

Concrete operational

c)

Sensorimotor

d)

Conventional

61.

Inclusive education primarily supports:

a)

Gifted students

b)

Children with disabilities

c)

Slow learners

d)

All diverse learners

62.

The school’s role in socializing a child is:

a)

Cultural dominance

b)

Social reproduction

c)

Socialization

d)

Marginalization

63.

A teacher who respects cultural diversity practices:

a)

Multiculturalism

b)

Discrimination

c)

Segregation

d)

Centralization

64.

Schools as agents of social change means:

a)

They impose culture

b)

They preserve society

c)

They reform society

d)

They replace traditions

65.

Hidden curriculum refers to:

a)

Written objectives

b)

Actual content

c)

Unintended learning

d)

Required lessons

66.

The idea that education promotes equality:

a)

Social mobility

b)

Cultural lag

c)

Assimilation

d)

Stratification

67.

The philosophy promoting student choice and freedom:

a)

Existentialism

b)

Essentialism

c)

Realism

d)

Marxism

68.

Nationalism in the curriculum is mostly in:

a)

TLE

b)

Araling Panlipunan

c)

MAPEH

d)

Math

69.

The teacher ensures fairness to all learners. This is:

a)

Equity

b)

Equality

c)

Elitism

d)

Meritocracy

70.

Respecting diverse beliefs aligns with:

a)

Critical pedagogy

b)

Democratic classroom

c)

Social Darwinism

d)

Utilitarianism

71.

The most effective classroom management is:

a)

Strict discipline

b)

Proactive behavior support

c)

Punishment

d)

Isolation

72.

A routine indicating transition time improves:

a)

Noise

b)

Discipline

c)

Smooth flow

d)

Seating

73.

A teacher rearranges seats to reduce distractions. This is:

a)

Procedural

b)

Physical management

c)

Behavioral management

d)

Instructional

74.

A rule that is simple, clear, and enforceable is considered:

a)

Dictatorial

b)

Reasonable

c)

Negotiated

d)

Enforced

75.

To prevent misbehavior, a teacher uses:

a)

Reprimand

b)

Proactive strategies

c)

Parent conferences

d)

Suspension

76.

According to Code of Ethics, a teacher must uphold:

a)

Personal beliefs

b)

Professional dignity

c)

Political loyalty

d)

Social bias

77.

The body that regulates the teaching profession:

a)

DepEd

b)

PRC

c)

CHED

d)

CSC

78.

A teacher’s license must be renewed every:

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

5 years

79.

RA 7836 is also known as:

a)

Basic Education Act

b)

Teacher Professionalization Act

c)

Magna Carta for Teachers

d)

Education Act of 1982

80.

A teacher who engages in inappropriate relationship with a student violates:

a)

Professional conduct

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Social responsibility

d)

Loyalty

81.

Teaching demonstration is an example of:

a)

Authentic assessment

b)

Summative assessment

c)

Placement exam

d)

Standardized test

82.

Teachers’ reflection journals develop:

a)

Metacognition

b)

Memorization

c)

Rote learning

d)

Behaviorism

83.

The proper order of lesson delivery is:

a)

Assessment → Presentation → Motivation

b)

Motivation → Presentation → Application

c)

Application → Motivation → Discussion

d)

Evaluation → Motivation → Lesson

84.

Class observation allows student-teachers to:

a)

Copy methods

b)

Judge teachers

c)

Learn actual practices

d)

Do research only

85.

A cooperating teacher provides guidance known as:

a)

Supervision

b)

Peer evaluation

c)

Licensing

d)

Mentoring

86.

The model describing learners as information processors:

a)

Behaviorist

b)

Cognitive

c)

Humanist

d)

Existentialist

87.

A teacher gives a reward after every correct answer. This is:

a)

Fixed interval

b)

Variable interval

c)

Continuous reinforcement

d)

Negative reinforcement

88.

Students who create their own project rubric demonstrate:

a)

Self-regulation

b)

Creativity

c)

Mastery

d)

Accountability

89.

A test that covers broad objectives at once is:

a)

Summative

b)

Formative

c)

High-stakes

d)

Diagnostic

90.

A seating arrangement for collaboration:

a)

Traditional rows

b)

U-shape

c)

Clusters

d)

Auditorium

91.

Parent involvement is essential because:

a)

It reduces teacher load

b)

It improves student performance

c)

It gives parents authority

d)

It fulfills compliance

92.

Which concept emphasizes learner autonomy?

a)

Teacher-centered

b)

Pedagogical

c)

Andragogical

d)

Authoritarian

93.

A teacher uses multiple intelligences framework based on:

a)

Gardner

b)

Gagné

c)

Bloom

d)

Erikson

94.

Higher-order thinking skills are at which Bloom category?

a)

Remember–Understand

b)

Apply

c)

Analyze–Evaluate–Create

d)

Recall

95.

A student who imitates a procedure after watching the teacher exhibits:

a)

Modeling

b)

Conditioning

c)

Scaffolding

d)

Transfer

96.

A teacher uses storytelling to teach values. This exemplifies:

a)

Concept teaching

b)

Value integration

c)

Expository strategy

d)

Discovery learning

97.

The primary purpose of a remedial class:

a)

Enrichment

b)

Acceleration

c)

Address learning gaps

d)

Promote giftedness

98.

An exam where scores are compared with a set standard is:

a)

Norm-referenced

b)

Criterion-referenced

c)

Ipsative

d)

Percentile-based

99.

Which assessment tool is best for evaluating attitude?

a)

Essay

b)

Checklist

c)

Rating scale

d)

Portfolio

100.

The least authentic assessment among the following:

a)

Portfolio

b)

Experiment

c)

Oral presentation

d)

Multiple-choice test

101.

Teacher gives clues to elicit correct answers. This is:

a)

Prompting

b)

Punishing

c)

Modeling

d)

Cueing

102.

A school handbook represents:

a)

Written curriculum

b)

Hidden curriculum

c)

Null curriculum

d)

Enriched curriculum

103.

According to Maslow, the highest level of need is:

a)

Love

b)

Belongingness

c)

Self-esteem

d)

Self-actualization

104.

Students brainstorming ideas uses:

a)

Convergent thinking

b)

Divergent thinking

c)

Linear thinking

d)

Algorithmic thinking

105.

Teacher asks students to differentiate fact from opinion. This assesses:

a)

Recall

b)

Understanding

c)

Critical thinking

d)

Memory

106.

A disruptive student is placed near the teacher. This is:

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Proximity control

c)

Punishment

d)

Segregation

107.

Standard deviation indicates:

a)

Variability

b)

Central tendency

c)

Frequency

d)

Rank

108.

A student who follows commands based on fear demonstrates:

a)

Autonomous morality

b)

Heteronomous morality

c)

Moral relativism

d)

Post-modern morality

109.

A teacher attends seminars to improve skills. This is:

a)

CPD

b)

In-service

c)

Lifelong learning

d)

All of the above

110.

In criterion-referenced testing, scores indicate:

a)

Rank

b)

Mastery

c)

Percentile

d)

Curve

111.

In group work, assigning specific roles promotes:

a)

Free riding

b)

Accountability

c)

Competition

d)

Segregation

112.

A teacher who is strict but supportive uses:

a)

Authoritarian

b)

Authoritative

c)

Laissez-faire

d)

Democratic

113.

A scoring guide with levels of performance:

a)

Answer key

b)

Rubric

c)

Rating chart

d)

Scale

114.

Students learning through hands-on activities follow:

a)

Experiential learning

b)

Direct instruction

c)

Expository teaching

d)

Lecture method

115.

A teacher identifies misconceptions by asking probing questions. This is:

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Remediation

c)

Correction

d)

Summation

116.

Overlapping in classroom management means:

a)

Doing two tasks at once

b)

Correcting misbehavior only

c)

Teaching two lessons

d)

Making students multitask

117.

A philosophy focusing on universal truths:

a)

Pragmatism

b)

Perennialism

c)

Essentialism

d)

Existentialism

118.

A teacher who lets students choose learning activities applies:

a)

Essentialism

b)

Constructivism

c)

Existentialism

d)

Realism

119.

A curriculum that responds to community needs is:

a)

Subject-centered

b)

Problem-centered

c)

Learner-centered

d)

Skill-centered

120.

Instructional objectives must be SMART. The M stands for:

a)

Measurable

b)

Manageable

c)

Meaningful

d)

Multi-step

121.

A student who can learn best through diagrams is:

a)

Kinesthetic

b)

Visual

c)

Verbal

d)

Aural

122.

The practice of assigning homework promotes:

a)

Recall

b)

Reinforcement

c)

Cognitive conflict

d)

Memorization

123.

A test administered at the end of a unit:

a)

Diagnostic

b)

Formative

c)

Summative

d)

Placement

124.

A teacher checking attendance is what management function?

a)

Instructional

b)

Organizational

c)

Behavioral

d)

Structural

125.

A student's right to due process means:

a)

Free grades

b)

Reasonable hearing

c)

Automatic passing

d)

Exemption from discipline

126.

A teacher using humor improves:

a)

Noise

b)

Motivation

c)

Punishment

d)

Noise control

127.

A sudden change in schedules may affect students’:

a)

Memory

b)

Routine

c)

Desire

d)

Focus only

128.

A child experiencing bullying needs:

a)

Enforcement

b)

Counseling

c)

Suspension

d)

Expulsion

129.

Teacher uses items at different difficulty levels. This ensures:

a)

Discrimination

b)

Reliability

c)

Validity

d)

Balanced test

130.

A student justifying actions based on universal ethics is at:

a)

Pre-conventional

b)

Conventional

c)

Post-conventional

d)

Concrete level

131.

A teacher introduces a game to motivate students. This is:

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Engagement strategy

c)

Enrichment

d)

Mastery learning

132.

A test that yields consistent scores has high:

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

c)

Authenticity

d)

Transparency

133.

Teacher designs learning outcomes first before methods. This is:

a)

Constructivist

b)

Backward design

c)

Spiral progression

d)

Banking method

134.

In mastery learning, the minimum passing level is called:

a)

Standard deviation

b)

Cut score

c)

Percentile

d)

Grade equivalent

135.

The theory emphasizing readiness:

a)

Skinner

b)

Piaget

c)

Thorndike

d)

Gagné

136.

The best way to start classroom rules is by:

a)

Teacher imposing

b)

Student-teacher negotiation

c)

Principal approval

d)

Parent involvement

137.

A student who volunteers to help peers shows:

a)

Initiative

b)

Altruism

c)

Autonomy

d)

Responsibility

138.

Teacher encourages critical thinking by:

a)

Asking factual questions

b)

Using open-ended questions

c)

Memorization drills

d)

Lecture method

139.

A tool to document long-term student progress:

a)

Essay

b)

Portfolio

c)

Seatwork

d)

True-or-false

140.

A teacher emphasizes group success. This builds:

a)

Competition

b)

Collaboration

c)

Independence

d)

Individualism

141.

A student who prefers quiet reading corners is:

a)

Kinesthetic

b)

Interpersonal

c)

Intrapersonal

d)

Naturalistic

142.

In test construction, avoiding tricky items improves:

a)

Difficulty

b)

Usability

c)

Discrimination

d)

Distractors

143.

A student who learns by listening is:

a)

Visual

b)

Aural

c)

Kinesthetic

d)

Verbal

144.

Teacher asks students to reflect on their learning. This is:

a)

Metacognition

b)

Motivation

c)

Transfer

d)

Self-efficacy

145.

A student who can solve problems logically is using:

a)

Fluid intelligence

b)

Crystallized intelligence

c)

Emotional intelligence

d)

Spatial intelligence

146.

Teacher relates lessons to real-life situations. This is:

a)

Constructivist

b)

Contextual learning

c)

Traditional teaching

d)

Behaviorism

147.

A student motivated by praise and recognition is driven by:

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Extrinsic

c)

Internal

d)

Neutral motivation

148.

Assessment that requires real-world performance is:

a)

Paper-pencil

b)

Objective test

c)

Authentic assessment

d)

Standardized test

149.

The philosophy focusing on practical learning experiences is:

a)

Pragmatism

b)

Idealism

c)

Perennialism

d)

Essentialism

150.

“Sabay-sabay na pagkatuto at pagkilos” in group work refers to:

a)

 Conformity

b)

Cooperation

c)

Dependence

d)

Leadership

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quiz

Worksheet

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University