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US History EOC Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which action best shows Washington’s effort to organize the executive branch at the start of his presidency?

a)

Establishing the Judiciary Act to form courts

b)

Creating four cabinet departments to advise him

c)

Issuing the Proclamation of Neutrality in 1793

d)

Negotiating Jay’s Treaty with Great Britain

2.

What was the main purpose of the Proclamation of Neutrality in 1793?

a)

To demand compensation for seized goods

b)

To avoid foreign wars between Britain and France

c)

To punish Britain for seizing American cargo

d)

To force Spain to open the Mississippi River

3.

Which statement about Jay’s Treaty is accurate?

a)

It caused Spain to ally with Britain against France

b)

It ended British impressment of American sailors

c)

It granted compensation to all U.S. merchants

d)

It temporarily prevented war with Britain

4.

Pinckney’s Treaty with Spain gave the United States which key benefit?

a)

Recognition of American claims in Canada

b)

Right to navigate the Mississippi River and use New Orleans

c)

Exclusive trading rights with Britain in the Atlantic

d)

Compensation for cargo seized by French privateers

5.

Which pair correctly matches the person with their cabinet role in Washington’s administration?

a)

Thomas Jefferson—Attorney General

b)

Edmund Randolph—Secretary of War

c)

Henry Knox—Secretary of State

d)

Alexander Hamilton—Secretary of the Treasury

6.

What sparked the creation of the first two political parties in the United States?

a)

Debates over Hamilton’s economic plan and the national bank

b)

Disagreements about the Louisiana Purchase and western lands

c)

Arguments about slavery expansion into new territories

d)

Conflicts over the Alien and Sedition Acts and free speech

7.

Which beliefs are most associated with the Federalists in the 1790s?

a)

Strong national government and manufacturing

b)

More power to state governments and agrarian strength

c)

Leadership under Alexander Hamilton

d)

Loose construction of the Constitution using the necessary and proper clause

8.

Which positions are most associated with the Democrat-Republicans in the 1790s?

a)

Strength of the nation in farmers

b)

Preference for more power to state governments

c)

Fear that wealthy elites corrupt government

d)

Support for a national bank and assumption of state debts

9.

Which statement best summarizes Washington's Farewell Address warnings for the young nation?

a)

Form permanent alliances to deter foreign wars

b)

Empower parties to manage regional conflicts

c)

Expand sectional loyalty and strong party ties

d)

Avoid sectionalism, parties, foreign entanglements

10.

What was a key result of Eli Whitney's invention of the cotton gin in 1793?

a)

Reduced profitability of Southern cash crops

b)

Immediate abolition of slavery nationwide

c)

Rapid decline of cotton exports to Europe

d)

Increased demand for slave labor in the South

11.

During the XYZ Affair, what did the three French intermediaries demand before talks with U.S. envoys?

a)

Public apology by President Adams

b)

Large bribes and a loan from the United States

c)

An American naval escort to Paris

d)

Immediate U.S. withdrawal from Jay's Treaty

12.

Which description accurately characterizes the Quasi-War of 1798–1800?

a)

Formal land war declared by Congress on France

b)

Undeclared naval conflict between U.S. and France

c)

Blockade of Britain by the American navy

d)

Civil war between Federalists and Republicans

13.

Which components correctly match the Alien and Sedition Acts with their primary aims?

a)

Alien Act lengthened time for citizenship

b)

Alien Act targeted immigrant Democratic-Republicans

c)

Sedition Act criminalized anti-government speech

d)

Sedition Act legalized rebellion against Adams

14.

What core purpose drove Federalists in passing the Alien and Sedition Acts?

a)

Silence opposition and weaken Republicans

b)

Protect immigrant voting rights nationwide

c)

Expand freedom of the press for critics

d)

Invite bipartisan debate on foreign alliances

15.

How did the Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions respond to the Alien and Sedition Acts?

a)

Called for Congress to expand sedition penalties

b)

Asserted state power to nullify unconstitutional laws

c)

Proposed permanent alliance with revolutionary France

d)

Urged states to accept strong Federalist control

16.

Which leaders are most closely linked to strict constructionism of the Constitution?

a)

Thomas Jefferson and James Madison

b)

George Washington and John Jay

c)

John Adams and Alexander Hamilton

d)

Aaron Burr and John Marshall

17.

Which statement best explains the meaning of the Revolution of 1800?

a)

First expansion of voting rights to all men

b)

First peaceful transfer of presidential power

c)

First time Washington warned against parties

d)

First election decided by Supreme Court ruling

18.

What was established by the Supreme Court in Marbury v. Madison (1803)?

a)

Direct election of federal judges

b)

Executive veto over court rulings

c)

Lifetime terms for cabinet officials

d)

Judicial review of congressional acts

19.

Which consequence followed the Louisiana Purchase under Jefferson?

a)

Mexico ceded land to the United States

b)

Slavery was abolished in new territories

c)

Britain surrendered forts in the Northwest

d)

United States nearly doubled its size

20.

What was the primary mission of the Lewis and Clark Expedition?

a)

Invade Canada to defeat Britain

b)

Explore Louisiana territory to the Pacific

c)

Survey Atlantic trade routes to Europe

d)

Establish naval bases on Gulf Coast

21.

Why did Jefferson support the Embargo Act of 1807?

a)

To punish France for selling Louisiana

b)

To avoid war by halting all European trade

c)

To raise revenue through import taxes

d)

To reward New England manufacturers

22.

Which factors pushed the United States toward the War of 1812? Select all that apply.

a)

Native unrest blamed on British influence

b)

Seizure of American cargo ships by Britain

c)

French occupation of New Orleans

d)

British impressment of American sailors

23.

Which event occurred during the War of 1812 and later inspired a national song?

a)

Hartford Convention and Federalist anthem

b)

Defense of Fort McHenry and Key’s poem

c)

Battle of New Orleans and Jackson’s speech

d)

Burning of the White House by Canadians

24.

What was a political outcome of the Hartford Convention?

a)

Congress repealed the Treaty of Ghent

b)

Supreme Court expanded war powers

c)

Democratic-Republicans split into factions

d)

Federalist Party declined as unpatriotic

25.

Which statement about the Battle of New Orleans is accurate?

a)

Won by British with superior numbers

b)

Commanded by Jefferson in person

c)

Led to immediate surrender of Canada

d)

Fought after a peace treaty was signed

26.

What did the Treaty of Ghent accomplish in 1814–1815?

a)

Created new western territories

b)

Guaranteed free trade with Europe

c)

Transferred Florida to United States

d)

Ended the War of 1812 in Belgium

27.

What was a key reason the period under President James Monroe was called the Era of Good Feelings?

a)

Two strong parties fiercely competed nationwide

b)

Only one major party reduced political disputes

c)

Rapid industrialization ended sectional tensions

d)

Foreign wars unified all citizens permanently

28.

Which components were central to Henry Clay’s American System?

a)

Federal funding for internal improvements

b)

Protective tariffs for manufacturers

c)

A national bank to stabilize currency

d)

Free trade with European nations

29.

What line established by the Missouri Compromise marked the boundary for slavery in new territories?

a)

34-32 parallel near the coast

b)

39-42 parallel along the border

c)

36-30 parallel across the nation

d)

30-30 parallel across the continent

30.

What was the primary aim of the Monroe Doctrine announced in 1823?

a)

Support British control over South America

b)

Create a shared European-American governance

c)

Limit further European colonization in the Americas

d)

Invite European colonization in North America

31.

During the Election of 1824, why did Andrew Jackson’s supporters claim a ‘Corrupt Bargain’?

a)

Jackson refused the popular vote result

b)

Henry Clay backed John Q. Adams, then became Secretary of State

c)

William Crawford won, but declined the presidency

d)

The Electoral College awarded Jackson extra electors

32.

Which statement best describes the Spoils System under Andrew Jackson?

a)

Rotation of offices through competitive exams

b)

Temporary appointments to limit corruption

c)

Giving government jobs to loyal supporters

d)

Merit-based hiring for civil service posts

33.

How did voting rights change after the 1820s in many states?

a)

Property requirements expanded to all voters

b)

Property requirements were lowered or eliminated for white males

c)

Women and Native Americans first gained the vote

d)

Only landowners could serve in government

34.

Why did Jackson and many westerners and southerners oppose the national bank during the Bank War?

a)

They believed it favored elite interests over ordinary citizens

b)

They feared it funded internal improvements too heavily

c)

They preferred a stronger national currency backed by silver

d)

They wanted more foreign investment in industry

35.

Which policy move in the Bank War most weakened the Second Bank of the United States?

a)

Vetoing all state bank charters nationwide

b)

Transferring federal deposits to pet banks

c)

Selling bank assets to foreign investors

d)

Raising interest rates on federal loans

36.

What was the central claim of John C. Calhoun during the Nullification Crisis?

a)

States could secede without federal approval

b)

The President could rewrite tariff schedules

c)

States could nullify unconstitutional federal laws

d)

Congress could suspend state legislatures

37.

Which federal action authorized forced relocation of Native American nations to lands west of the Mississippi?

a)

Homestead Act of 1830

b)

Indian Removal Act of 1830

c)

Dawes Severalty Act of 1837

d)

Trail of Tears Proclamation

38.

In Worcester v. Georgia (1832), what principle did the Supreme Court affirm regarding Cherokee territory?

a)

Georgia controlled Cherokee lands fully

b)

Federal troops managed Cherokee courts

c)

Congress abolished tribal governance entirely

d)

Cherokee sovereignty required Georgia to respect rights

39.

Which Supreme Court case established judicial review in the United States?

a)

Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857)

b)

Gibbons v. Ogden (1824)

c)

Marbury v. Madison (1803)

d)

McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

40.

Select the innovations that accelerated early industrialization and communication.

a)

Cotton embargo by southern planters

b)

Interchangeable parts by Eli Whitney

c)

Steam-driven locomotive by Peter Cooper

d)

Telegraph and Morse code by Samuel Morse

41.

Which transportation projects expanded interstate commerce and regional connectivity in the early 1800s?

a)

Erie Canal linking Hudson River to Lake Erie

b)

Hudson River Art Movement paintings

c)

Clermont steamboat by Fulton and Livingston

d)

National Road from Potomac River to West Virginia

42.

Where did major immigrant groups primarily settle between 1815 and 1860?

a)

Irish in rural Deep South; Germans on Pacific Coast

b)

Irish in industrial Northeast; Germans in Midwest

c)

Irish on western prairies; Germans in New England

d)

Irish in Appalachia; Germans in cotton belt

43.

Which best describes a key belief of the Second Great Awakening?

a)

Predestination controls every human choice

b)

Reason alone leads to moral perfection

c)

Church authority determines social reforms

d)

All people can attain grace through faith

44.

Which pair is correctly matched with its reform focus?

a)

Dorothea Dix—temperance in alcohol use

b)

William Lloyd Garrison—support for colonization

c)

Horace Mann—public education reform

d)

Grimké sisters—defense of slavery

45.

What was a central idea of Transcendentalism associated with Thoreau and Emerson?

a)

Obedience to unjust laws preserves order

b)

Religious revival demands strict church hierarchy

c)

Industrial progress defines human worth

d)

Spiritual truth found in nature and individuality

46.

Which statement about the Seneca Falls Convention (1848) is accurate?

a)

Chaired by Polk to promote Manifest Destiny

b)

Held to defend the gag rule in Congress

c)

Organized by Mott and Stanton focusing women’s suffrage

d)

Led by Sojourner Truth demanding abolition only

47.

Which leaders are correctly identified with abolitionism?

a)

Brigham Young advocated gradualism

b)

William Lloyd Garrison published The Liberator

c)

Frederick Douglass wrote his own autobiography

d)

Angelina and Sarah Grimké criticized slavery

48.

What was the purpose of the gag rule adopted in the House of Representatives in 1836?

a)

To fund western exploration expeditions

b)

To mandate Sunday religious services

c)

To shelve all debate on slavery petitions

d)

To require temperance pledges by members

49.

Which best explains Manifest Destiny during the 1840s?

a)

Policy guaranteeing Native control of western lands

b)

Doctrine urging withdrawal from Texas and California

c)

Belief the continent was granted for white expansion

d)

Movement to limit settlement to the original colonies

50.

Which outcome resulted from the Mexican-American War in 1848?

a)

Immediate statehood for Texas and California

b)

End of the Pre-emption Act protecting squatters

c)

Annexation of Oregon from Britain

d)

U.S. gained 500,000 square miles via Guadalupe Hidalgo

51.

Which proposal aimed to ban slavery in land won from Mexico but ultimately did not pass, increasing tensions over slavery?

a)

Free Soil Party platform for white labor

b)

Kansas-Nebraska Act territorial plan

c)

Compromise of 1850 multi-part agreement

d)

Wilmot Proviso measure to bar slavery

52.

Popular sovereignty in the mid-1800s meant what for new territories deciding on slavery?

a)

Courts assign slave status by region

b)

Congress mandates slavery nationwide

c)

Presidents appoint slavery commissioners

d)

Residents vote to allow or ban slavery

53.

Which component of the Compromise of 1850 angered many Northerners by requiring assistance in capturing runaway slaves?

a)

Slave trade banned in Washington DC

b)

California admitted as free state

c)

Fugitive Slave Act enforcement requirement

d)

Popular sovereignty in Mexican Cession

54.

The Kansas-Nebraska Act is best described as which of the following?

a)

Outlawed slavery in all western territories

b)

Expanded the Fugitive Slave Act penalties

c)

Guaranteed free soil across new lands

d)

Divided territory using popular sovereignty

55.

In Dred Scott v. Sanford, the Supreme Court ruled which key point?

a)

Fugitive Slave Act violated free states

b)

Congress must abolish slavery nationally

c)

Popular sovereignty was unconstitutional

d)

African Americans were not citizens

56.

Which statements describe early sparks of the Civil War? Select all that apply.

a)

The Anaconda Plan sought port blockades

b)

John Brown’s raid seized a federal arsenal

c)

South Carolina shelled Fort Sumter’s fort

d)

Lincoln pledged expansion of slavery west

57.

What was Abraham Lincoln’s primary goal at the start of the war?

a)

Maintain the union above all else

b)

Immediately abolish slavery everywhere

c)

Neutrality between North and South

d)

Annex more territory from Mexico

58.

Which leader roles are correctly matched during the Civil War era? Select all that apply.

a)

Harriet Tubman organized the Anaconda

b)

Abraham Lincoln led the Union

c)

John Wilkes Booth commanded the 54th

d)

Jefferson Davis led the Confederacy

59.

Which battle marked a turning point by putting the Confederacy on the defensive and discouraging British recognition of the South?

a)

Battle of Vicksburg along Mississippi River

b)

Battle of Gettysburg in Pennsylvania hills

c)

Battle at Appomattox Courthouse in Virginia

d)

Battle of Antietam in Maryland countryside

60.

What was a key significance of the Union victory at Vicksburg?

a)

Ended the Civil War immediately

b)

Forced Britain to back the Confederacy

c)

Freed enslaved people in border states

d)

Divided the Confederacy geographically in two

61.

The Emancipation Proclamation primarily did which of the following?

a)

Granted voting rights to all men

b)

Freed slaves in border states first

c)

Ended slavery nationwide at once

d)

Freed slaves in rebelling states only

62.

What occurred at Appomattox Courthouse in 1865?

a)

General Lee surrendered to Ulysses S. Grant

b)

Britain intervened to broker a ceasefire

c)

Union recognized the Confederacy’s independence

d)

Lincoln was assassinated during peace talks

63.

Lincoln’s Reconstruction Plan, often called the Ten Percent Plan, proposed what main approach?

a)

Confiscation of Southern plantations

b)

Rapid readmission with loyalty oaths

c)

Military occupation of Southern states

d)

Immediate national voting rights expansion

64.

Which features best describe Radical Reconstruction?

a)

Lenient pardon for loyalty oath takers

b)

Push to cement the Fourteenth Amendment

c)

Harsher policies toward former Confederates

d)

Military governance to enforce civil rights

65.

Match each Civil War Amendment with its main focus.

a)

Sixteenth established federal income tax

b)

Thirteenth abolished slavery nationwide

c)

Fifteenth protected Black men’s right to vote

d)

Fourteenth defined citizenship and protections

66.

Which outcome most directly resulted from the Compromise of 1877?

a)

Women received national voting rights

b)

Federal troops withdrew from the South

c)

Southern states rejoined the Union

d)

The KKK was outlawed nationwide

67.

What was a primary goal of the Freedmen’s Bureau?

a)

Protect plantation owners’ property rights

b)

Negotiate alliances with European powers

c)

Support formerly enslaved people’s transition

d)

Expand western land for cattle drives

68.

Which statement about Western Settlement is accurate?

a)

Barbed wire ended open range cattle drives

b)

Homestead Act limited settlers to ten acres

c)

Dawes Act strengthened tribal land holdings

d)

Gold discoveries discouraged movement west

69.

The 1862 Homestead Act offered settlers which opportunity?

a)

Up to 160 acres with small registration fee

b)

Urban factory jobs with housing

c)

Immediate free land with no conditions

d)

Shared tribal reservations for farming

70.

Joseph Glidden’s 1874 invention impacted ranching by

a)

Preventing settlers from owning land

b)

Enabling fencing that reduced open range

c)

Increasing long-distance cattle drives

d)

Replacing railroads with cattle trails

71.

Which event signaled a backlash in the South during Reconstruction?

a)

Immediate enforcement of civil rights

b)

Rise of Jim Crow segregation laws

c)

Adoption of universal male suffrage

d)

Expansion of the Freedmen’s Bureau

72.

Under the Dawes Act of 1887, what happened to remaining tribal lands?

a)

Granted to railroad companies

b)

Sold to whites with funds placed in a trust

c)

Returned to tribes with federal protections

d)

Reserved for communal grazing only

73.

Which innovation is correctly paired with its inventor during rapid industrialization?

a)

Refrigerated cars – Thomas Edison

b)

Telephone – Alexander Graham Bell

c)

Light bulb – Gustavus Swift

d)

Typewriter – Andrew Carnegie

74.

Which development best explains the national impact of the Transcontinental Railroad completed in 1869?

a)

Ended labor unions nationwide

b)

Linked coasts and expanded markets

c)

Reduced factory work hours

d)

Stopped immigration from Europe

75.

Which group was heavily employed by the Central Pacific in building the Transcontinental Railroad?

a)

Irish immigrants

b)

Italian bankers

c)

Chinese immigrants

d)

German artisans

76.

Which industrialist is correctly matched with his primary business activity?

a)

Andrew Carnegie – investment banking

b)

J.P. Morgan – railroad construction

c)

Cornelius Vanderbilt – steel production

d)

John D. Rockefeller – oil refining

77.

Which term describes entrepreneurs criticized for greed and corrupt practices in the late 1800s?

a)

Robber Barons

b)

Social Gospel

c)

Settlement Houses

d)

Closed Shops

78.

Which tactic was commonly used by businesses to weaken labor unions in the late 1800s?

a)

Blacklist of organizers

b)

Eight-hour day laws

c)

Open-shop hiring rules

d)

Free public libraries

79.

Which set lists typical labor union tactics during the Gilded Age?

a)

Strikes and boycotts

b)

Oaths of loyalty and detectives

c)

Lockouts and blacklists

d)

Riots and assassinations

80.

Which statement best describes laissez-faire government policy in the late 1800s?

a)

Strict control of monopolies

b)

Bans on corporate mergers

c)

Government ownership of railroads

d)

Minimal regulation of businesses

81.

Which immigration fact is accurate for the 1890s United States?

a)

Asian immigration surpassed European arrivals

b)

Most immigrants came from eastern and southern Europe

c)

Immigration was halted by the Pendleton Act

d)

Most immigrants arrived from northern Africa

82.

Which law specifically targeted Chinese immigration during the late 1800s?

a)

Pendleton Civil Service Act

b)

Sherman Antitrust Act

c)

Homestead Act

d)

Chinese Exclusion Act

83.

Which organization is correctly linked with urban political influence through services for votes?

a)

Knights of Labor

b)

AFL

c)

Hull House

d)

Tammany Hall

84.

Which reform ended the Spoils System by establishing civil service exams?

a)

Laissez-faire policy

b)

Pendleton Act of 1883

c)

Sherman Antitrust Act

d)

Gospel of Wealth

85.

What was a primary goal of the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1890?

a)

Ban Chinese immigration

b)

Regulate monopolies

c)

Create closed shops

d)

Expand settlement houses

86.

Which statement best describes the Social Gospel movement of 1870–1920?

a)

Advocated laissez-faire capitalism

b)

Supported closed-shop union rules

c)

Called for faith-driven social reform

d)

Promoted Social Darwinism in business

87.

Which description fits settlement houses like Hull House?

a)

Community aid and education for immigrants

b)

Corporate trusts consolidating industries

c)

Banks financing railroad expansion

d)

Factories using vertical integration

88.

Which problem most hurt farmers in the late 1800s after technological advances increased output?

a)

Falling crop prices from overproduction

b)

High wages for hired farm labor

c)

Shortage of railroad freight capacity

d)

Scarcity of farm equipment suppliers

89.

In the 1896 election, which pairing is accurate regarding silverite support versus the opposing candidate?

a)

William Jennings Bryan vs. William McKinley

b)

Grover Cleveland vs. Benjamin Harrison

c)

Theodore Roosevelt vs. William Taft

d)

Booker T. Washington vs. W.E.B. DuBois

90.

What did Plessy v. Ferguson establish in 1896?

a)

Ban on poll taxes in federal elections

b)

Right of women to vote in all states

c)

Abolition of literacy tests nationwide

d)

Legal doctrine of separate but equal

91.

Which statement contrasts Booker T. Washington and W.E.B. DuBois?

a)

Both rejected higher education for Black Americans

b)

Both supported the Atlanta Compromise

c)

DuBois demanded immediate civil rights

d)

Washington emphasized vocational training

92.

Which factor fueled US imperialism around 1900?

a)

Belief in Anglo-Saxon superiority

b)

Social Darwinism ideology

c)

Fear of domestic railroad monopolies

d)

Desire for new markets for goods

93.

Alfred T. Mahan argued the United States needed which capability to expand and protect trade?

a)

A large modern navy with coaling stations

b)

A continental army for land wars

c)

A network of inland canals only

d)

Isolation from foreign shipping lanes

94.

Which event cluster helped spark the Spanish-American War?

a)

de Lôme letter insulting the president

b)

Annexation of Hawaii before 1890

c)

Sinking of the USS Maine

d)

Yellow journalism sensationalism

95.

After the Spanish-American War, which outcome is correct?

a)

Spain gained control of Hawaii

b)

US lost trade rights in the Pacific

c)

Cuba annexed the United States

d)

US acquired Guam, Puerto Rico, Philippines

96.

Who led the Rough Riders and fought at the Battle of San Juan Hill?

a)

Alfred T. Mahan with W.E.B. DuBois

b)

William McKinley with Ida B. Wells

c)

Teddy Roosevelt with Leonard Wood

d)

Grover Cleveland with Joseph Pulitzer

97.

What was the goal of the Open Door Policy?

a)

Grant Cuba immediate statehood

b)

Close Asian markets to US goods

c)

Allow all nations to trade with China

d)

End US naval expansion plans

98.

What did Theodore Roosevelt’s “Great White Fleet” demonstrate?

a)

Dependence on European escorts

b)

US naval power on a global tour

c)

Commitment to disband the navy

d)

Preference for isolationist policies

99.

Which agreement eased tensions with Japan by reducing discrimination in exchange for limited immigration?

a)

Atlanta Compromise pact

b)

Gentlemen’s Agreement of 1907

c)

Interstate Commerce Act

d)

Platt Amendment resolution

100.

Which policy asserted the U.S. right to collect Latin American debts to prevent European intervention?

a)

Roosevelt Corollary to Monroe Doctrine

b)

Open Door in East Asia

c)

Good Neighbor cooperation pledge

d)

Neutrality Acts in the 1930s

101.

Dollar Diplomacy under President Taft most closely emphasized which approach in Latin America?

a)

Isolation from hemispheric affairs

b)

Direct colonial administration

c)

Cultural assimilation programs

d)

Economic leverage over military force

102.

Which set correctly pairs muckrakers with their reform focus during Progressivism?

a)

Upton Sinclair—unsanitary meat industry

b)

Jacob Riis—urban poverty conditions

c)

Ida Tarbell—corporate corruption in Standard Oil

d)

Eugene V. Debs—antitrust investigation journalism

103.

Which Progressive Era amendment authorized a federal income tax?

a)

16th Amendment established income taxes

b)

17th Amendment required revenue tariffs

c)

18th Amendment taxed alcohol sales

d)

19th Amendment taxed voter registration

104.

What political change did the 17th Amendment bring to U.S. governance?

a)

Direct election of U.S. Senators

b)

Direct primaries for presidency

c)

Recall of federal judges

d)

Popular election of cabinet

105.

Which reform mechanisms were used at the city and state level in the Progressive Era?

a)

Initiatives and referendums

b)

Recall elections for officials

c)

Direct primaries for candidates

d)

Zoning laws and health codes

106.

Which event helped push the U.S. toward entering World War I in 1917?

a)

Zimmermann Telegram proposing Mexico alliance

b)

Unrestricted submarine warfare resumes

c)

Sinking of U.S. merchant ships in March 1917

d)

Assassination of Franz Ferdinand in 1914

107.

Which nations formed the Triple Entente by the start of World War I?

a)

Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy

b)

Ottomans, Bulgaria, Germany

c)

United States, Italy, Belgium

d)

France, Russia, Great Britain

108.

Which tactics were characteristic of World War I combat?

a)

Poison gas deployment

b)

Rapid-fire machine guns

c)

Trench warfare conditions

d)

Regular use of planes

109.

Which U.S. home-front measures supported the war effort during World War I?

a)

Selective service conscription

b)

War Industries Board coordination

c)

Daylight saving time adoption

d)

Victory gardens promotion

110.

The Clayton Antitrust Act primarily aimed to do what?

a)

Raise protective tariff rates

b)

Create federal social insurance

c)

Establish national banking system

d)

Stop unfair corporate practices

111.

Which statement best describes the Niagara Falls Conference in 1909?

a)

Held by Jacob Riis; studied tenement housing

b)

Convened by Booker T. Washington; promoted Tuskegee

c)

Organized by Ida Tarbell; exposed monopolies

d)

Led by W.E.B. Du Bois; spurred creation of NAACP

112.

Which battles are commonly associated with World War I’s Western Front?

a)

Argonne Forest offensive

b)

Chateau-Thierry clash

c)

Marne campaign

d)

Verdun engagement

113.

Which law made it illegal to publicly oppose U.S. participation in World War I?

a)

Emergency Quota Act of 1921

b)

Volstead Act of 1919

c)

Sedition Act of 1918

d)

Espionage Act of 1917

114.

Schenck v. United States (1919) established which principle regarding free speech?

a)

Religious speech is always protected

b)

Only press freedom can be limited

c)

Speech can be curbed to prevent harm

d)

Absolute speech protection in wartime

115.

After World War I, the Treaty of Versailles forced Germany to accept which outcome?

a)

Creation of the League of Nations

b)

Payment of $33 billion in reparations

c)

Immediate withdrawal from the Allies

d)

Annexation of France and Italy

116.

What slogan summarized the domestic policies of Presidents Harding and Coolidge in the early 1920s?

a)

New Deal for America

b)

Return to Normalcy

c)

Great Society programs

d)

Square Deal reforms

117.

Nativism in the 1920s most directly led to which development?

a)

End of Prohibition by 1921

b)

Expansion of the League of Nations

c)

Open immigration from all regions

d)

Conviction in the Sacco–Vanzetti case

118.

Which act enforced Prohibition by defining and regulating alcoholic beverages?

a)

Emergency Quota Act

b)

Espionage Act

c)

Sedition Act

d)

Volstead Act

119.

What central issue was debated during the Scopes Trial?

a)

Creationism vs. evolution

b)

Isolationism vs. intervention

c)

Federalism vs. states’ rights

d)

Communism vs. capitalism

120.

The Harlem Renaissance is best described as which phenomenon?

a)

A prohibition enforcement agency

b)

A flowering of African American arts

c)

A northern industrial migration

d)

A political party in Harlem

121.

Which figures are correctly paired with their cultural contributions during the Harlem Renaissance?

a)

Louis Armstrong — improvisational jazz style

b)

Duke Ellington — mixed jazz with orchestration

c)

Langston Hughes — poetry on African American life

d)

Zora Neale Hurston — fiction set in Florida

122.

Marcus Garvey’s movement promoted which goals for African Americans?

a)

Economic independence and UNIA growth

b)

Political alignment with the KKK

c)

Mass deportations to Europe

d)

Cultural pride and black nationalism

123.

Which statement about media in the 1920s is accurate?

a)

Mass media unified national culture

b)

First talking movie appeared in 1920

c)

Newspapers disappeared by 1928

d)

Radio began after World War II

124.

What economic approach is most associated with Andrew Mellon during the 1920s?

a)

War-time price controls

b)

State ownership of industries

c)

Supply-side economics policies

d)

Demand-side spending programs

125.

Which development is linked to the Great Migration during World War I?

a)

African Americans moved to northern cities

b)

Southern whites relocated to Europe

c)

Immigration restrictions were repealed

d)

Harlem became a federal territory

126.

Which event or policy aimed to limit immigration in the early 1920s?

a)

Scopes Trial

b)

Sedition Act

c)

Emergency Quota Act

d)

Cotton Club ordinance

127.

What was one major social impact of the widespread automobile in the 1920s?

a)

Farm labor became fully mechanized

b)

People moved closer to factories

c)

City streetcars expanded nationwide

d)

Rural isolation decreased for families

128.

Farmers did not share in the 1920s prosperity mainly because

a)

Postwar competition lowered prices

b)

Federal subsidies guaranteed profits

c)

Protective tariffs boosted farm exports

d)

European demand for U.S. crops soared

129.

Which statement describes U.S. isolationism after World War I?

a)

Arms makers discouraged overseas profits

b)

Americans avoided foreign entanglements

c)

Leaders promoted repayment of war debts

d)

The nation sought military alliances

130.

Which pair correctly matches an event with its significance in early aviation and radio?

a)

1920 election broadcast—restricted radio use to government

b)

Lindbergh’s solo flight—proved long‑range air travel feasible

c)

CBS/NBC’s founding—ended commercial advertising nationwide

d)

Kelly Act—banned private aircraft from carrying mail

131.

Which factors contributed to the stock market crash known as Black Tuesday in 1929? Select TWO.

a)

Mandatory savings accounts

b)

Buying stocks on the margin

c)

Even wealth distribution

d)

Overproduction of goods

132.

Which actions characterized President Hoover’s early response to the Great Depression? Select TWO.

a)

Opposed direct federal relief to individuals

b)

Expanded national public works only

c)

Supported state and local public projects

d)

Eliminated the Reconstruction Finance Corporation

133.

Which description best explains the Bonus Army?

a)

World War I veterans demanding early bonuses

b)

Factory workers striking for higher wages

c)

Bankers lobbying for deposit insurance

d)

Farmers protesting agricultural prices

134.

Which statement captures the main aim of Franklin D. Roosevelt’s New Deal?

a)

Return to strict laissez-faire policies

b)

Reduce taxes to shrink government

c)

Expand overseas colonies for trade

d)

End the Depression through federal action

135.

Which program belonged to the First New Deal?

a)

Rural Electrification Administration

b)

Works Progress Administration

c)

Social Security Act

d)

Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC)

136.

Which program was part of the Second New Deal?

a)

Works Progress Administration (WPA)

b)

Federal Deposit Insurance Corp (FDIC)

c)

Tennessee Valley Authority

d)

Securities and Exchange Commission

137.

What was a major importance of the New Deal for Americans?

a)

Raised tariffs to protect all industries

b)

Eliminated all bank failures permanently

c)

Ended unemployment entirely by 1939

d)

Created a safety net and larger federal role

138.

Which factors helped cause World War II in Europe?

a)

Successful League of Nations enforcement

b)

Totalitarianism expanding across nations

c)

Rise of dictators like Hitler and Mussolini

d)

Economic depression and fascism

139.

What did American Neutrality Acts in the 1930s aim to do?

a)

Limit involvement through measures like cash and carry

b)

Form military alliances with Britain and France

c)

Provide immediate troops to European fronts

d)

Declare war after the Munich Conference

140.

Appeasement in the 1930s is best defined as:

a)

Neutrality through isolationist policies

b)

Concessions to avoid conflict with aggressors

c)

Total embargoes against all dictators

d)

Rapid rearmament to deter invasion

141.

Which event brought the United States fully into World War II?

a)

Pearl Harbor attack by Japan

b)

German invasion of Poland

c)

Fall of France to the Nazis

d)

Miracle at Dunkirk evacuation

142.

Which statement about the Double V Campaign is accurate?

a)

Victory over racism abroad and at home

b)

Victory in Europe followed by Pacific

c)

Victory gardens planted across cities

d)

Victory bonds funding military equipment

143.

Which home front symbol represented working women during World War II?

a)

Statue of Liberty

b)

Bald eagle emblem

c)

Uncle Sam poster

d)

Rosie the Riveter icon

144.

What did Korematsu v. United States decide during World War II?

a)

Internment banned as racial discrimination

b)

Internment upheld due to military urgency

c)

Draft declared unconstitutional nationwide

d)

Neutrality Acts overturned by the Court

145.

Which was a turning point in the Pacific War?

a)

Battle of Midway naval victory

b)

Operation Overlord landings

c)

Battle of Stalingrad siege

d)

Miracle at Dunkirk rescue

146.

What was Operation Overlord?

a)

Allied invasion of Normandy, liberating France

b)

Axis blitzkrieg against Poland in 1939

c)

Soviet counterattack at Stalingrad

d)

Japanese island hopping across Pacific

147.

Which event marked the Allied invasion of Nazi-occupied France during World War II?

a)

V-J Day in August 1945

b)

Berlin Airlift 1948

c)

V-E Day in May 1945

d)

D-Day in June 1944

148.

What was the primary goal of the Manhattan Project?

a)

Develop an atomic bomb

b)

Create radar technology

c)

Build jet aircraft

d)

Plan the Marshall Aid

149.

President Truman’s decision to drop atomic bombs was intended to achieve which outcome?

a)

Retaliate for Berlin Blockade

b)

Force Germany’s immediate surrender

c)

Prevent a costly invasion of Japan

d)

Demonstrate power to NATO allies

150.

Which city was hit by the Enola Gay delivering the bomb nicknamed “Little Boy”?

a)

Tokyo in Japan

b)

Kyoto in Japan

c)

Nagasaki in Japan

d)

Hiroshima in Japan