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IS 321 Final review

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one of the following is not aligned with Babich's UX principles for mobile user experience?

a)

Focus on the visibility of interface elements

b)

Support user with navigation as much as possible

c)

Minimize the need for typing

d)

Make sure that all potentially necessary information is available on the same screen

2.

For whom are navigation codes/keyboard shortcuts typically considered to be an effective navigation mechanism?

a)

None of these responses are accurate

b)

External users with access to only part of the system

c)

Novice users with no experience

d)

Users with some, but limited experience

e)

Experienced users who prefer shortcuts

3.

Which one of the following statements regarding the UI/UX is true?

a)

Technical design of the user interface APIs is the most important element of user experience design

b)

It is best to deal with user experience issues primarily during business analysis activities, early in a project

c)

User experience design issues should be left to experts only

d)

It is important to consider user experience throughout the development process

4.

How many menu options would be needed for a system with 20 search/select CRUD screens given that the count of options is normally very close to the number of CRUD screens?

a)

16 menu options

b)

29 menu options

c)

27 menu options

d)

22 menu options

5.

When defining a CRUD UI Search (or Select) screen, which of the following is true?

a)

We need to determine which activity diagram action (or step) the screen corresponds to.

b)

We need to determine a few key data attributes (or fields) to use as search filters.

c)

We need to determine the unique footer for this screen

d)

By default, we should include all of the attributes (or fields) in the underlying entity.

6.

Which of the following concepts covers the broadest range of interactions between a company and its customers?

a)

User experience

b)

usability

c)

user satisfaction

d)

human-computer interaction

7.

Which one of the following regarding user experience (UX) design is true?

a)

All given items are true

b)

Initial user experience modeling contributes to user experience design

c)

User stories contribute to user experience design

d)

Use cases contribute to user experience design

8.

What is the term commonly used for a user interface element used as part of the interface that is used to enter input or provide guidance to the system?

a)

Control

b)

Feature

c)

Metaphor

d)

Affordance

9.

When determining user role-level access for a CRUD UI model, which of the following is not relevant:

a)

Row-level access.

b)

Read/update access (none, read-only, or update).

c)

Each user role.

d)

Device access (none, web browser, mobile application, or both)

10.

Which one of the following concepts specifically focuses on minimizing the resources (such as time and human effort) that are needed to achieve a particular goal?

a)

Effectiveness

b)

Efficiency

c)

User experience

d)

User satisfaction

11.

Which one of the following defines a feature:

a)

A collection of user interface controls

b)

A system capability that allows a user to achieve a specific goal with the software

c)

Individual element on a screen providing functionality

d)

Characteristics of a user interface component that define and suggest possible uses for the component

12.

Which one of the following is not one of the human-computer collaboration principles for system characteristics?

a)

Avoid using data regarding a user's past actions

b)

Customize vocabulary for organizational needs

c)

Provide transaction level navigation and progress guidance

d)

Identify the causes underlying a problem and determine how it can be resolved

e)

Avoid using data regarding a user's past actions

13.

Which control would you choose if the user needs to be able to select zero to five of five possible options?

a)

Picker

b)

Toggle

c)

Check boxes

d)

radio button

14.

What is a commonly used term for an integrated collection of information displays that focus on key performance indicators (KPIs)?

a)

Dashboard

b)

Query panel

c)

BI tool

d)

Analytics platform

15.

Which one of the following controls is intended for presenting a large number of possible values for the user to select one?

a)

Radio button group

b)

Slider

c)

Toggle

d)

Picker

16.

Which one of Nielsen's heuristics does the following system behavior demonstrate: the system offers a different navigation mechanism depending on the user's experience level and choice?

a)

Flexibility and efficiency of use

b)

Visibility of system status

c)

Error prevention

d)

Aesthetic and minimalist design

17.

A system with 72 entities (read: relational tables) would generally include how many CRUD screens, given that the screen count is normally double the entity count?

a)

144 screens

b)

72 screens

c)

100 screens

d)

200 screens

18.

Which of the following controls allows a user to select multiple options?

a)

List box and Check boxes

b)

Radio buttons and List box

c)

Radio buttons and Check boxes

d)

Radio buttons

19.

Input validation categories include all the following except:

a)

List of acceptable values

b)

Breadcrumbs

c)

Prevention of empty values

d)

Range control

20.

Which is the preference order for these courses of action by the system according to the human-computer collaboration model?

a)

d, c, b, a

b)

c, d, a, b

c)

a, b, c, d

d)

d, c, a, b

e)

c, d, b, a

21.

Which one of the following statements regarding forms of usability evaluation is false?

a)

In heuristic evaluation, current or prospective users perform the tests

b)

In usability testing, current or prospective users perform the tests

c)

In cognitive walkthrough, experts perform the tests

d)

In heuristic evaluation, experts determine if a system is aligned with a predefined set of principles

22.

What are breadcrumbs?

a)

Controls that allow user to use text search to access a specific functionality

b)

Graphical symbols that provide access to specific functionality

c)

Components of a dialogue diagram

d)


A mechanism for showing how the current screen is associated with other screens in its hierarchy

23.

Which one of the following represents an approach in which each application is bundled together with its system tools, configuration files, and libraries into a container, separated from other containers but still sharing the same host operating system and hardware infrastructure?

a)

Containerization

b)

SaaS

c)

Virtualization

d)

Cloud computing

24.

Which one of the following statements regarding Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) is correct?

a)

None of the given items is correct.

b)

The reliability and speed of a VPN depends on the performance of the underlying network.

c)

VPNs operate only on the organization's own infrastructure.

d)

VPNs cannot be used for addressing organizational networking needs beyond a single campus

25.

(CH13) Which one of the following networking elements moves packets from a device with a specific numeric address such as 138.26.115.27 to another device with another specific address such as 46.215.39.253 in a global addressing space?

a)

Internet protocol

b)

Ethernet cable

c)

Network switch

d)

MAC address

26.

A specification for a medical diagnostic software service articulates that it needs to produce results for every test that gets valid input in less than three minutes. Which dimension of FURPS+ does this requirement represent?

a)

Supportability

b)

Performance

c)

Functionality

d)

Reliability

27.

Which one of the following statements regarding the Kotusev (2017) enterprise architecture model is correct?

a)

The IT-tools part of the model consists of Standards, Landscapes, and Designs

b)

The business-focused part of the model consists of Visions

c)

Kotusev emphasizes that the enterprise architecture needs of all organizations are the same

28.

Which one of the following has been the foundational and dominant structured data management technology for several decades?

a)

NoSQL databases

b)

Relational databases using SQL

c)

Data lake

d)

Hadoop

29.

Which one of the following architectural models/model sets include Enterprise Service Bus as a core element?

a)

monolithic

b)

Service Oriented Architecture

c)

Microservices

d)

Monolithic and Microservices

e)

Monolithic and Service Oriented Architecture

30.

Which one of the following layers is responsible for governing the use of a physical medium in a specific network context?

a)

Presentation Layer

b)

Network Layer

c)

Application Layer

d)

Data Link Layer

31.

Which one of the following is likely to be associated with major one-time costs?

a)

Neither vertical nor horizontal scaling

b)

Both vertical and horizontal scaling

c)

Vertical scaling

d)

Horizontal scaling

32.

Which Zachman actor role is mostly interested in artifacts at the level of conceptual models (such as EER, Activity diagram, conceptual representation of the network)?

a)

Director

b)

Owner

c)

Planner

d)

Designer

33.

Which one of the following has the broadest scope?

a)

Enterprise architecture

b)

Technology architecture

c)

Data architecture

d)

Application architecture

34.

Which one of the following is not one of the model types in the Zachman framework?

a)

People

b)

Time

c)

Data

d)

Speed

35.

In the TIME model, which one of the following reflects a combination that suggests a need to migrate an application?

a)

High technical condition - high business value

b)

Low technical condition - low business value

c)

Low technical condition - high business value

d)

High technical condition - low business value

36.

An application integrates all of its program code into an integrated unit that is either deployed in its entirety or not at all, and all of its elements use one centralized data store. Which architectural model does the application follow?

a)

Service Oriented Architecture

b)

Cloud-based

c)

Client/server

d)

Monolithic

e)

Microservices

37.

Which one of the following is not one of the four typical layers in a multi-tiered client/server model?

a)

Presentation layer

b)

Data storage layer

c)

Business logic layer

d)

Data transformation layer

38.

The only hardware that a company owns include client devices and a network system that provides the client devices access to the public Internet and, using a VPN, to a service provider's cloud computing services. From the service provider, it gets data processing and data storage capacity but no application software. The company must provide its own application platform and applications. Which model is it following?

a)

PaaS

b)

IaaS

c)

Microservices

d)

SaaS

39.

Which one of the following best reflects the meaning of architecture as context for systems development?

4 lines
40.

(CH13) Which one of the following best reflects the meaning of architecture as context for systems development?

a)

The high-level, foundational system environment decisions that, once implemented, are hard to change

b)

Technical design of the features and functional designs of the system

c)

Design of the space in which development teams work, including how to network multiple development team locations

d)

Non-functional requirements of the system

41.

Which one of the following is not a Zachman actor role?

a)

Planner

b)

Subcontractor

c)

Director

d)

Designer

e)

Subcontractor

42.

(CH13) Specification for a medical diagnostic software service articulates that the service needs to be available 99.995% of the time and never unavailable for more than 10 minutes at a time. Which dimension of FURPS+ does this requirement represent?

a)

Supportability

b)

Functionality

c)

Reliability

d)

Security

43.

Compared to containerization, which one of the following statements regarding virtual machines is true?

a)

Virtual machines are more lightweight

b)

Virtual machines do not share the same host operating system

c)

Virtual machines are individual physical computers

d)

Virtual machines require fewer resources

44.

For large, complex systems, most of the data for development:

a)

Is created by developers.

b)

Is created by IT testers/QA staff.

c)

Flows from the production environment towards the development environment.

d)

Flows with code updates from the development environment towards the product environment.

45.

Which of the following is NOT a technique for reducing risk of deploying bad updates to production when implementing DevOps:

a)

Automated security tests.

b)

Paying down technical debt.

c)

Re-architecting the application to implement a monolithic architecture.

d)

Safe deployment patterns (blue-green, canary, and cluster immune deployments)

46.

(CH16)Which of the following is NOT true of DevOps deployment:

a)

Is enabled by the general industry trend toward larger, more expensive, and longer software projects.

b)

None of these responses are true

c)

Deploys features more frequently to production than traditional

d)

Extends agile development principles to deployment.

47.

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches is the most simple, straightforward, and least expensive to implement, yet also the most intrinsically risky?

a)

Direct deployment.

b)

Parallel deployment.

c)

Phased deployment.

d)

All of these can reduce risk equally, but they are not all equally feasible.

48.

Which of the following data preparation tasks are typically conducted by the business, not by IT:

a)

Automated updates of new data via Extract, transform, and load (ETL).

b)

Data anonymization.

c)

Data refresh.

d)

Manual updates of new data.

49.

The fundamental characteristic(s) of progressing to Continuous Integration is:

a)

Automatic merging and integration of code updates into an environment with significant integration and regression testing.

b)

Updating code updates less than once a week.

c)

Implementation of automated and frequent updates to the Master/Production environment.

d)

None of these responses are accurate.

50.

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches offers the best approach for reducing deployment risk, although it is often impractical since it is the highest cost approach:

a)

Direct deployment.

b)

Parallel deployment.

c)

Pilot deployment.

d)

Phased deployment.

51.

Which of the following is NOT a key deployment capability specifically needed to progress beyond Continuous Development (CDE) to Continuous Deployment (CD)?

a)

Automated functionality tests.

b)

Automated security tests.

c)

Promoting safer deployments.

d)

Enabling piecemeal feature deployments.

52.

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches is more compatible with a microservices architecture than a monolithic architecture?

a)

Direct deployment.

b)

Parallel deployment.

c)

Phased deployment.

d)

All of these can reduce risk equally, but they are not all equally feasible.

53.

The fundamental progression from traditional deployment to DevOps is:

a)

Traditional → Continuous Deployment → Continuous Delivery → Continuous Integration

b)

Traditional → Continuous Integration → Continuous Deployment → Continuous Delivery

c)

Traditional → Continuous Deployment → Continuous Integration → Continuous Delivery

d)

Traditional → Continuous Integration → Continuous Delivery → Continuous Deployment

54.

Traditional software deployments are characterized by:

a)

Infrequent deployments (e.g., three or four times per year).

b)

Highly automated testing.

c)

Automated, routine deployment processes.

d)

None of these responses are characteristics of traditional software deployments.

55.

Activities that prepare the business to adapt to and take advantage of new system features are called:

a)

Software deployment.

b)

Change management.

c)

System testing.

d)

Test-driven development.

56.

Which of the following is NOT a typical source of deployment risk (a.k.a., implementation risk):

a)

Deploying software defects or bugs

b)

Failure to anonymize data

c)

Poor performance and reliability

d)

Security flaws

57.

In systems projects, comparing the flow of updates to code vs. the flow of updates to data:

a)

Code flows from Dev to Prod and data flows from Prod to Dev.

b)

Code flows from Prod to Dev and data flows from Dev to Prod.

c)

Both code and data updates flow from Prod to Dev.

d)

Flows of code and data depend on whether the project uses an agile, plan-driven, or hybrid approach.

58.

Which of the following does NOT characterize the evolution of a typical system project from the 1980s until now?

a)

A. Project durations have gotten much shorter.

b)

B. Project costs of failure have increased to the point where a single project can result in the organization going bankrupt.

c)

C. Project infrastructure has increasingly focused on virtual machines and cloud computing.

d)

D. Project budgets have gotten much smaller.

59.

A project that fails to do which the following tasks or events cannot add value to the business:

a)

Define a Definition of Success.

b)

Formally approve a business case.

c)

Finalize the project charter.

d)

Implement DevOps techniques.

e)

Go live deployment to production.

60.

Which of the following is NOT a typical change management area as discussed in the textbook:

a)

Refactoring software.

b)

Data preparation.

c)

User acceptance testing.

d)

Updating training manuals.

61.

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches first deploys all software features to a subset of users, then later to remaining users:

a)

Direct deployment.

b)

Parallel deployment.

c)

Pilot deployment.

d)

Phased deployment.

e)

All of these can be used in this manner.

62.

What is a factor that make software deployments risky:

a)

Software deployments may change the way employees work via automation or streamlining.

b)

Software deployments often must be implemented in a short amount of time (for example, over a weekend).

c)

There is often little to confirm the software deployment changes were correctly implemented.

d)

All of these factors make software deployments risky.

63.

The fundamental characteristic(s) of progressing to Continuous Deployment is:

a)

Implementing automated deployments of code from Development to Test/QA with automated integration and regression tests.

b)

Implementation of data anonymization.

c)

Implementation of automated and frequent software updates to the Master/Production environment.

d)

None of the following