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Adv Mod Final

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In bone densitometry, which score compares a patient's bone mass to that of a healthy 30-year-old adult?

a)

A. T-score

b)

B. Z-score

c)

C. BMD index

d)

D. Risk ratio

2.

Which of the following are benefits of using DEXA for bone density evaluation?

a)

A. Non-invasive procedure

b)

B. High radiation exposure

c)

C. Short scan times

d)

D. High-resolution images

3.

Which cell is primarily responsible for bone resorption?

a)

A. Osteoblast

b)

B. Chondrocyte

c)

C. Osteoclast

d)

D. Osteocyte

4.

Which structure regulates contrast in CT imaging by adjusting the grayscale range?

a)

CT number

b)

Matrix

c)

Window width

d)

Pixel size

5.

Which imaging modalities use ionizing radiation?

a)

MRI

b)

PET

c)

Nuclear Medicine

d)

Ultrasound

6.

The principle behind the ultrasound transducer is based on the:

a)

Compton effect

b)

Photoelectric effect

c)

Piezoelectric effect

d)

Doppler shift

7.

Which imaging modality most commonly uses hydrogen nuclei for signal production?

a)

CT

b)

PET

c)

MRI

d)

NM

8.

Glucose metabolism is most directly evaluated using which modality?

a)

Radiography

b)

CT

c)

PET

d)

Sonography

9.

The BRCA1 gene mutation is most commonly associated with increased risk of:

a)

Breast cancer

b)

Lung cancer

c)

Colon cancer

d)

Skin cancer

10.

Which type of cancer is most commonly diagnosed in women?

a)

Colon cancer

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Lung cancer

d)

Prostate cancer

11.

Which MRI field strength unit is equivalent to 10,000 gauss?

a)

1 Tesla

b)

0.5 Tesla

c)

2 Tesla

d)

0.001 Tesla

12.

Palliative radiation therapy is used primarily to:

a)

Eliminate deep tumors

b)

Provide comfort by reducing symptoms

c)

Enhance surgical precision

d)

Promote cell regeneration

13.

Which structure acts as the pivot point in tomography?

a)

Pivot point

b)

Axis of rotation

c)

Fulcrum

d)

Scan axis

14.

Bone-building cells that also help maintain bone density are called:

a)

Chondrocytes

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Myocytes

15.

Which imaging techniques may supplement arthrography for further joint evaluation?

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

NM

d)

Sonography

16.

The device that delivers external-beam radiation therapy with high precision is the:

a)

Orthovoltage unit

b)

Betatron

c)

Linear accelerator

d)

Gamma camera

17.

The correct localization method for breast lesions in mammography includes: (select all that apply)

a)

Quadrant system

b)

Clock system

c)

Body surface mapping

d)

Areola system

18.

Which types of MRI units require active cooling systems?

a)

Resistive

b)

Permanent

c)

Superconducting

d)

Ion-field units

19.

What is the main reason screening mammograms contribute to higher patient dose?

a)

Use of low kV

b)

High pitch

c)

Backscatter

d)

Small focal spot

20.

The principle used in modern ultrasound imaging is:

a)

Scatter theory

b)

Piezoelectric effect

c)

Photon emission

d)

Refraction physics

21.

Sound waves travel most efficiently through:

a)

Air

b)

Bone

c)

Soft tissue

d)

Fluid

22.

An MRI scanner operates by aligning hydrogen nuclei using:

a)

Ionizing radiation

b)

Electric current

c)

Magnetic field

d)

X-rays

23.

Peak bone mass is generally achieved around age:

a)

10–15

b)

20–30

c)

40–50

d)

60–70

24.

Which of the following are used in double-contrast arthrography?

a)

Barium

b)

Gaseous agent

c)

Water-soluble iodinated contrast

d)

Fat-based contrast

25.

A matrix in digital imaging represents:

a)

A single voxel

b)

An array of rows and columns

c)

Resolution algorithm

d)

CT number scale

26.

A T-score of -2.6 most likely indicates:

a)

Normal

b)

Osteopenia

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Severe osteoarthritis

27.

Which modalities would be very inappropriate for evaluating fetal development?

a)

A. Ultrasound

b)

B. CT

c)

C. PET

d)

D. MRI

28.

Which cancer therapy involves placing radioactive material directly inside or near a tumor?

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

External-beam radiation

c)

Brachytherapy

d)

Gamma knife

29.

Which test compares a patient’s BMD to that of an age- and gender-matched group?

a)

T-score

b)

Z-score

c)

L-score

d)

R-score

30.

During arthrography, what is injected prior to contrast media?

a)

General anesthetic

b)

Local anesthetic

c)

Sedative

d)

Barium

31.

Which are essential when performing orthoroentgenography?

a)

A. Precise centering

b)

B. High kVp

c)

C. Immobility

d)

D. Collimated beam

32.

Which modalities are most appropriate for long bone length evaluation?

a)

Microdose radiography

b)

Nuclear medicine

c)

CT

d)

Ultrasound

33.

Which of the following are involved in both diagnostic and therapeutic ERCP procedures?

a)

A. Biliary drainage

b)

B. Stent placement

c)

C. Pain management

d)

D. Biopsy retrieval

34.

Which biliary structure connects the gallbladder to the common bile duct?

a)

Hepatic duct

b)

Cystic duct

c)

Portal vein

d)

Bile canaliculi

35.

The radiation oncology team member who calculates dose distribution is the:

a)

Oncologist

b)

Dosimetrist

c)

Therapist

d)

Physicist

36.

Which modalities rely heavily on metabolic activity for image production?

a)

A. PET

b)

B. NM

c)

C. CT

d)

D. Sonography

37.

If the uterine tubes are patent, the injected contrast media will _____.

a)

Flow back into the uterus

b)

Flow into the peritoneal cavity

c)

Be absorbed by the ovaries

d)

Remain in the uterine tubes

38.

Which of the following typically use non-ionizing radiation?

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Radiation therapy

39.

A cholangiogram is most commonly performed to assess for:

a)

Cirrhosis

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Gallstones

d)

Liver cancer

40.

Accurate radiation dose measurement in therapy planning is known as:

a)

Simulation

b)

Dosimetry

c)

Shielding

d)

Absorptivity