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Worksheets

Servsafe Certificate Exam Review 1

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a foodborne-illness outbreak?

a)

When two or more food handlers contaminate multiple food items

b)

When an operation serves contaminated food to two or more people

c)

When two or more people report the same illness from eating the same food

d)

When the CDC receives information on two or more people with the same illness

2.

Which is a ready-to-eat food?

a)

Uncooked rice

b)

Raw deboned chicken

c)

Sea salt

d)

Unwashed green beans

3.

Why are preschool-age children at a higher risk for foodborne illnesses?

a)

They have not built up strong immune systems.

b)

They are more likely to spend time in a hospital.

c)

They are more likely to suffer allergic reactions.

d)

Their appetites have increased since birth.

4.

Which is a TCS food?

a)

Bread

b)

Flour

c)

Sprouts

d)

Strawberries

5.

Which is a common risk factor for foodborne illness?

a)

Reheating leftover food

b)

Serving ready-to-eat food

c)

Using single-use, disposable gloves

d)

Purchasing food from unsafe sources

6.

Raw chicken breasts are left out at room temperature on a prep table. What is the risk that could cause a foodborne illness?

a)

Cross-contamination

b)

Poor personal hygiene

c)

Time-temperature abuse

d)

Poor cleaning and sanitizing

7.

What is TCS food?

a)

Food requiring thermometer checks for security

b)

Food requiring trustworthy conditions for service

c)

Food requiring training commitments for standards

d)

Food requiring time and temperature control for safety

8.

Which government agency is responsible for regulating and inspecting meat, poultry, and eggs?

a)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b)

U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)

c)

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

d)

The Public Health Service (PHS)

9.

What are the most common symptoms of a foodborne illness?

a)

Diarrhea, vomiting, fever, nausea, abdominal cramps, and dizziness

b)

Diarrhea, vomiting, fever, nausea, abdominal cramps, and headache

c)

Diarrhea, vomiting, fever, nausea, abdominal cramps, and jaundice

d)

Diarrhea, vomiting, fever, nausea, abdominal cramps, and tiredness

10.

How does most contamination of food happen?

a)

Through contaminated water

b)

When contaminants are airborne

c)

When people cause the contamination

d)

Through the use of contaminated animal products

11.

What is the most important way to prevent a foodborne illness from bacteria?  


a)

Control time and temperature

b)
  1. Prevent cross-contamination. 

c)
  1. Practice good personal hygiene. 

d)
  1. Practice good cleaning and sanitizing. 

12.

What is the most important way to prevent a foodborne illness from viruses?  


a)
  1. Control time and temperature. 

b)
  1. Prevent cross-contamination. 

c)
  1. Practice good personal hygiene.  

d)
  1. Practice good cleaning and sanitizing. 

13.

Parasites are commonly linked with what type of food?   


a)

Rice

b)

Poultry

c)

Seafood

d)

Canned Foods

14.

A guest had a reversal of hot and cold sensations after eating seafood. What most likely caused the illness? 


a)
  1. Parasites  

b)
  1. Allergic reaction  

c)
  1. Biological toxins

d)
  1. Chemical contamination 

15.

How should chemicals be stored to prevent chemical contamination? 


a)
  1. Away from prep areas 

b)
  1. On the floor between uses 

c)
  1. On the work surface of prep tables 

d)
  1. With food supplies below prep tables 

16.

To prevent the deliberate contamination of food, a manager should know 


a)
  1. when to register with the EPA. 

b)
  1. how to fill out an incident report. 

c)
  1. where to find Safety Data Sheets in the operation. 

d)
  1. whom to contact about suspicious activity. 

17.

What should food handlers do to prevent food allergens from being transferred to food? 


a)
  1. Use clean and sanitized utensils when prepping the order.  

b)
  1. Cook food to the appropriate minimum internal temperature. 

c)
  1. Store cold food at 41ºF (5ºC) or lower. 

d)
  1. Label chemical containers correctly. 

18.

What step should be taken if a manager suspects a foodborne-illness outbreak?  


a)
  1. Reheat the suspected product to safe temperatures. 

b)
  1. Provide as little information as possible to the regulatory authority. 

c)
  1. Deny that the operation has anything to do with the foodborne-illness outbreak. 

d)
  1. Set aside the suspected product and label it with “do not use” and “do not discard.” 

19.

A food handler who has just bused tables must do what before handling food?  


a)
  1. Change apron

b)
  1. Wash hands

c)
  1. Put disposable gloves back on

d)
  1. Wipe hands on a cloth towel

20.

As part of handwashing, food handlers must scrub their hands and arms for at least   


a)
  1. 3 seconds.

b)
  1. 5 seconds.

c)
  1. 10 seconds.

d)
  1. 20 seconds.

21.

To work with food, a food handler with an infected hand wound must  


a)
  1. cover the wound with an impermeable cover and wear a single-use glove.

b)
  1. cover the wound with an impermeable cover and limit contact with food.

c)
  1. wash hands and bandage the wound with an impermeable cover.

d)
  1. apply ointment and bandage the wound with an impermeable cover.

22.

How should food handlers keep their fingernails?  


a)
  1. Short and unpolished

b)
  1. Long and unpolished

c)
  1. Long and painted with nail polish

d)
  1. Short and painted with nail polish

23.

Which piece of jewelry is a food handler allowed to wear?  


a)
  1. Diamond ring

b)
  1. Leather-band watch

c)
  1. Medical bracelet

d)
  1. Plain-band ring

24.

What must food handlers do after touching their hair, face, or body?  


a)
  1. Wash their hands

b)
  1. Rinse their gloves

c)
  1. Change their aprons

d)
  1. Use a hand antiseptic

25.

Where should personal items, like a coat, be stored in
the operation?  


a)
  1. On a shelf, above food

b)
  1. On a shelf, below food

c)
  1. In a designated area, away from food.

d)
  1. In a kitchen, away from moving equipment.

26.

After handling raw meat and before handling produce, what should food handlers do with their gloves?  


a)
  1. Clean and sanitize them.

b)
  1. Continue working with them.

c)
  1. Set them aside if working with meat again later.

d)
  1. Wash hands and change them.

27.

After prepping food, what must food handlers do before using the restroom?  


a)
  1. Take off their aprons

b)
  1. Change their gloves 

c)
  1. Take off their hats

d)
  1. Wash their hands 

28.

What action should a manager take when a food handler reports having diarrhea and being diagnosed with a foodborne illness caused by Shigella spp.?  


a)
  1. Keep the food handler away from duties that involve food.

b)
  1. Exclude the food handler from the operation.

c)
  1. Make sure the food handler is supplied with disposable gloves.

d)
  1. Make sure the food handler washes hands often.

29.

Using one set of cutting boards for raw poultry and another set of cutting boards for ready-to-eat food reduces the risk of  


a)
  1. cross-contamination.

b)
  1. time-temperature abuse.

c)
  1. physical contamination.

d)
  1. toxic-metal poisoning.

30.

Pathogens are likely to grow well in a meat stew that is  


a)
  1. below freezing temperature.

b)
  1. at refrigeration temperatures.

c)
  1. between 41ºF and 135ºF (5ºC and 57ºC).

d)
  1. cooked to the correct internal temperature.

31.

What is the calibration nut on a bimetallic stemmed thermometer used for?  


a)
  1. Keep it accurate

b)
  1. Mark its sensing area

c)
  1. Measure air temperature

d)
  1. Measure temperatures through glass

32.

Which probe should be used to check the temperature of a pork roast?  


a)

Air

b)

Surface

c)

Immersion

d)

Probe

33.

What do time-temperature indicators do?  


a)
  1. Measure temperature through a probe with a sensor at the end

b)
  1. Measure the length of time that food should be cooked

c)
  1. Show if food has been cross-contaminated during preparation

d)
  1. Show if food has been time-temperature abused during shipment

34.

When using the ice-point technique to calibrate a thermometer, to what temperature should the thermometer be adjusted?  


a)
  1. 0ºF (-18ºC)

b)
  1. 32ºF (0ºC)

c)
  1. 41ºF (5ºC)

d)
  1. 212ºF (100ºC)

35.

What must a manager do with a recalled food item in
the operation?  


a)
  1. Combine the item with non-recalled items during preparation. 

b)
  1. Record the names of customers who purchase the item.

c)
  1. Store the recalled item separately from other food.

d)
  1. Sell all recalled items within 24 hours.

36.

Large ice crystals in a case of frozen food are evidence that the product may have been..


a)
  1. received at 6ºF to 10ºF (-14ºC to -12ºC).

b)
  1. stored at 6ºF to 10ºF (-14ºC to -12ºC).

c)
  1. thawed and refrozen.

d)
  1. shipped correctly.

37.

What factor is most important when choosing an approved food supplier?  


a)
  1. It has a HACCP program or other food safety system.

b)
  1. It has documented manufacturing and packing practices.

c)
  1. Its warehouse is close to the operation, reducing shipping time.

d)
  1. It has been inspected and complies with local, state, and federal laws.

38.

What are the packaging criteria for accepting
nonfood items?  


a)
  1. Soiled but intact

b)
  1. Clean and no more than 2 tears or punctures

c)
  1. Soiled and no more than 2 tears or punctures

d)
  1. Intact, clean, and protected from contamination

39.

Supplies should be stored away from the walls and at least ___inches off the floor.  


a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

40.

Ready-to-eat TCS food must be date marked if it will be stored for longer than  


a)

12 hrs

b)

24 hrs

c)

36 hrs

d)

48 hrs

41.

Which item is stored correctly in the cooler?  


a)
  1. Macaroni salad stored above raw salmon

b)
  1. Raw ground pork stored below raw poultry

c)
  1. Raw poultry stored above raw pork roast

d)
  1. Sliced pineapple stored below raw steaks

42.

A food item that is received with an expired use-by date should be  


a)
  1. rejected.

b)
  1. used immediately.

c)
  1. accepted but labeled differently.

d)
  1. accepted but kept separate from other items.

43.

What is the maximum amount of time that ready-to-eat TCS food can be stored in a cooler at 41ºF (5ºC) before it must be sold, served, or thrown out?  


a)

2 days

b)

5 days

c)

7 days

d)

9 days

44.

At what internal temperature should cold TCS food
be received?  


a)
  1. 41ºF (5ºC) or lower

b)
  1. 45ºF (7ºC) or lower

c)
  1. 51ºF (10ºC) or lower

d)
  1. 55ºF (13ºC) or lower

45.

A variance from the local regulatory authority is
needed for  


a)
  1. preserving food by smoking it.

b)
  1. developing a crisis-management plan.

c)
  1. using TCS leftovers to make salads.

d)
  1. using ice to cool food.

46.

What is one way that food should NEVER be thawed?  


a)
  1. In a microwave

b)
  1. At room temperature

c)
  1. In a cooler

d)
  1. As part of the cooking process

47.

What food item does the FDA advise against offering on a children's menu?  


a)
  1. Rare cheeseburgers

b)
  1. Cheese pizza

c)
  1. Peanut butter and jelly sandwiches

d)
  1. Fried shrimp

48.

When checking the internal temperature of food, where should the thermometer be inserted?  


a)
  1. In the thinnest part of the food

b)
  1. In the thickest part of the food

c)
  1. On the bottom of the food

d)
  1. On the top of the food

49.

What is the required minimum internal cooking temperature for a chicken breast?  


a)
  1. 135ºF (57ºC) for 4 minutes

b)
  1. 145ºF (63ºC) for 4 minutes

c)
  1. 155ºF (68ºC) for 15 seconds

d)
  1. 165ºF (74ºC) for 15 seconds

50.

What is the required minimum internal cooking temperature for ground beef?  


a)
  1. 135ºF (57ºC)

b)
  1. 145ºF (63ºC)

c)
  1. 155ºF (68ºC)

d)
  1. 165ºF (74ºC)

51.

What must you do immediately after thawing food in
a microwave?  


a)
  1. Hold it.

b)
  1. Cook it.

c)
  1. Cool it.

d)
  1. Freeze it.

52.

A consumer advisory should be provided for menu items that contain TCS food that  


a)
  1. is very spicy.

b)
  1. contains gluten.

c)
  1. is raw or undercooked.

d)
  1. is made with a non-big-eight allergen.

53.

Food must be cooled from 135ºF (57ºC) to ________ within two hours.  


a)
  1. 80ºF (27ºC)

b)
  1. 45ºF (7ºC)

c)
  1. 70ºF (21ºC)

d)
  1. 41ºF (5ºC)

54.

When reheating turkey chili for hot-holding, what is the minimum temperature that the chili must reach?  


a)
  1. 135ºF (57ºC) for 15 seconds

b)
  1. 145ºF (63ºC) for 15 seconds

c)
  1. 155ºF (68ºC) for 15 seconds

d)
  1. 165ºF (74ºC) for 15 seconds

55.

What is the minimum temperature that must be maintained when holding hot soup for service?  


a)
  1. 100ºF (38ºC)

b)
  1. 120ºF (49ºC)

c)
  1. 135ºF (57ºC)

d)
  1. 155ºF (68ºC)

56.

What is the maximum allowable internal temperature when cold-holding food?  


a)
  1. 41ºF (5ºC)

b)
  1. 45ºF (7ºC)

c)
  1. 51ºF (10ºC)

d)
  1. 55ºF (13ºC)

57.

A catering employee removed a tray of lasagna from
hot-holding for service in a hotel conference room at 11:00 a.m. By what time must the lasagna be thrown out?  


a)
  1. 12:00 p.m.

b)
  1. 2:00 p.m.

c)
  1. 3:00 p.m.

d)
  1. 4:00 p.m.

58.

Which food item may be handled with bare hands?  


a)
  1. Sliced cheese for sandwiches

b)
  1. Boiled egg slices for salad

c)
  1. Chopped carrots for stew

d)
  1. Parsley for garnish

59.

Which part of a bowl should a food handler avoid touching when serving customers?  


a)

Inside

b)

Outside

c)

Bottom

d)

Edge

60.

Which item may be re-served to another customer?  


a)
  1. A partially used cup of salsa

b)
  1. Unopened condiment packets

c)
  1. Uneaten bread from a bread basket

d)
  1. An uneaten pickle used as a plate garnish

61.

Which action could contaminate food at a
self-service area?  


a)
  1. Keeping hot TCS food at 135ºF (57ºC)

b)
  1. Allowing customers to reuse plates

c)
  1. Labeling all containers and handles

d)
  1. Taking food temperatures every hour

62.

Food for off-site service should be labeled with reheating and service instructions and a(n)  


a)
  1. list of ingredients.

b)
  1. use-by date and time.

c)
  1. date of preparation.

d)
  1. inspection stamp.

63.

What is the primary purpose of a food safety management system?


a)
  1. Keep all areas of the facility clean and pest-free.

b)
  1. Lock-out and tag-out faulty equipment within the facility.

c)
  1. Prevent foodborne illness by controlling risks and hazards.

d)
  1. Maintain correct purchasing and receiving records for auditors.

64.

What is a manager’s responsibility to actively control risk factors for foodborne illnesses called?  


a)
  1. Active managerial control

b)
  1. Food safety management

c)
  1. Quality control and assurance

d)
  1. Hazard analysis critical control point (HACCP)

65.

A manager asks a dish washer to rewash dishes after determining that the sanitizing rinse was not properly made. This is an example of which step in active managerial control?  


a)
  1. Identifying risks

b)
  1. Monitoring

c)
  1. Corrective action

d)
  1. Re-evaluation

66.

A manager walks around the kitchen every hour to answer questions and to see if staff members are following procedures. This is an example of which step
in active managerial control?  


a)
  1. Management oversight

b)
  1. Corrective action

c)
  1. Re-evaluation

d)
  1. Identify risks

67.

One way for managers to demonstrate a knowledge of food safety is to  


a)
  1. conduct self-inspections.

b)
  1. take cooking temperatures.

c)
  1. monitor employee behaviors.

d)
  1. become certified in food safety.

68.

The water provided to a handwashing sink must be  


a)
  1. hot water only.

b)
  1. cold water only.

c)
  1. drinkable/potable water only.

d)
  1. fluoridated water only.

69.

What food safety features are the most important to look for when selecting flooring, wall, and ceiling materials?  


a)
  1. Absorbent and durable 

b)
  1. Hard and durable

c)
  1. Porous and durable

d)
  1. Smooth and durable

70.

A handwashing station should have soap, hot and cold water, signage, a way to dry hands, and  


a)

gloves

b)

a timer

c)
  1. a garbage container.

d)
  1. a clock with a second hand.

71.

Which part of a sink prevents backflow of dirty water?  


a)
  1. The air gap

b)
  1. The tap valves

c)
  1. The floor grate

d)
  1. The aerator

72.

Grease and condensation buildup on surfaces can be avoided with correct  


a)
  1. garbage disposal.

b)
  1. lighting.

c)
  1. sanitizing.

d)

ventilation

73.

Where should garbage cans be cleaned?


a)
  1. Away from food and utensils

b)
  1. Next to food-prep areas

c)
  1. In cold-storage areas

d)
  1. In food-storage areas

74.

When the garbage can was full, an employee placed the full garbage bag on a prep table and tied it securely. Then he carried it to the dumpster and disposed of it. What was done incorrectly?  


a)
  1. The employee waited until the garbage was full.

b)
  1. The bag was disposed of in a dumpster.

c)
  1. The bag was placed on a prep table.

d)
  1. The employee tied the bag shut.

75.

An imminent health hazard, such as a water supply interruption, requires immediate correction or  


a)
  1. a HACCP plan.

b)
  1. closure of the operation.

c)
  1. evaluation of the situation.

d)
  1. normal operating procedures.

76.

What is one way to keep an operation pest-free?  


a)
  1. Deny pests access to the operation.

b)
  1. Keep outdoor garbage containers open.

c)
  1. Clean up food spills at the end of each shift.

d)
  1. Store food and supplies one inch off the floor in storage.

77.

Which individual should apply pesticides in a restaurant or foodservice operation?  


a)
  1. Pest control operator

b)
  1. Owner/operator

c)
  1. Operational director

d)
  1. Line cook

78.

A food-contact surface must be cleaned and sanitized  


a)
  1. before working with a different type of food.

b)
  1. every 6 hours.

c)
  1. only if the food handler changes gloves.

d)
  1. at the end of the food handler's shift.

79.

What is the correct way to clean and sanitize a
prep table?  


a)
  1. Remove food from surface, clean, rinse, sanitize, air-dry

b)
  1. Remove food from surface, rinse, clean, sanitize, air-dry

c)
  1. Sanitize, remove food from surface, clean, rinse, air-dry

d)
  1. Air-dry, remove food from surface, rinse, sanitize, clean

80.

To make sure that the chemical sanitizer being used on a food-prep surface is at the correct strength,  


a)
  1. rinse it from the surface and then apply it a second time.

b)
  1. test the surface first to confirm that there are no pathogens.

c)
  1. heat it to the temperature recommended by the manufacturer.

d)
  1. use a test kit to check the sanitizer's concentration when mixing it.

81.

In a heat-sanitizing dishwashing machine, what is the required minimum temperature for the final rinse?  


a)
  1. 152ºF (67ºC)

b)
  1. 180ºF (82ºC)

c)
  1. 192ºF (89ºC)

d)
  1. 200ºF (93ºC)

82.

The first step in cleaning and sanitizing items in a
three-compartment sink is  


a)
  1. air-drying items.

b)
  1. washing items in detergent.

c)
  1. immersing items in sanitizer.

d)
  1. rinsing, scraping, or soaking items.

83.

Which surfaces must be both cleaned and sanitized?  


a)
  1. Walls

b)
  1. Cutting boards

c)
  1. Storage shelves

d)
  1. Garbage containers

84.

Which feature is most important for a chemical
storage area?  


a)
  1. Good lighting

b)
  1. Single-use towels

c)
  1. Nonskid floor mats

d)
  1. Emergency shower system

85.

What is the correct way to store mops in between uses?  


a)
  1. Propped in a corner

b)
  1. In a clean bucket

c)
  1. In a utility sink

d)
  1. On a hook

86.

A buser poured some cleaner from its original container into a smaller, working container. What else does the buser need to do?  


a)
  1. Label the working container with its contents.

b)
  1. Read the safety data sheet (SDS) for the cleaner.

c)
  1. Use a new wiping cloth when first using the working container.

d)
  1. Note on the original container that some cleaner was put into a working container.

87.

What step must managers take after creating a master cleaning schedule?  


a)
  1. Train staff to follow the program.

b)
  1. Determine who should do each task.

c)
  1. Time staff on how long they take to clean.

d)
  1. Determine what should be cleaned.