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Investments, ETFs, and Securities Markets Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To avoid paying a commission on an investment, what type of fund might an investor choose?

a)

Blue-chip stock

b)

Mutual funds

c)

No-load funds

d)

Common stock

e)

Load funds

2.

Investments such as money market mutual funds offer what advantage to investors?

a)

Conservative capital growth

b)

Long-term capital growth

c)

Market appreciation

d)

Aggressive growth

e)

Safety and stability

3.

What type of investment would preserve capital investment but seek capital appreciation?

a)

Blue-chip stock

b)

Balanced funds

c)

Aggressive growth funds

d)

No-load funds

e)

Mutual funds

4.

Which type of investment will sacrifice current income potential for long-term returns?

a)

Blue-chip stock

b)

Balanced funds

c)

Aggressive growth funds

d)

No-load funds

e)

Mutual funds

5.

What is the advantage of exchange-traded funds (ETFs) over mutual funds?

a)

They can be traded throughout the day like a stock.

b)

The cost of the fund management is passed on to the holder.

c)

They do not require the services of a broker to complete a transaction.

d)

They allow for frequent trading with lower overall transaction fees.

e)

They regularly out-perform mutual funds.

6.

When an investor wants to enter the market with a minimum amount of investment, what type of opportunities would offer ease of entry and low operating expenses?

a)

Securities

b)

Common stock

c)

Blue-chip stock

d)

Exchange-traded funds

e)

Mutual funds

7.

An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a bundle of stocks (or bonds) that are in an index that tracks the overall movement of a market.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Select all statements that correctly explain what exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are and how they are tracked.

a)

An ETF is a bundle of stocks or bonds that are in an index tracking the overall movement of a market.

b)

Each share of an ETF can be traded like a stock and its price changes continuously as market prices change.

c)

Because they are exchange traded, ETFs can be bought and sold any time throughout the day.

d)

ETFs cannot be traded intraday and require a broker to complete all transactions at day’s end.

e)

An ETF is designed to track the market being followed by its index.

9.

Which is the MOST widely cited U.S. stock market index?

a)

Standard & Poor's Composite Index of 500 Stocks

b)

The NYSE index

c)

Dow Jones Industrial Average

d)

Moody's Stock List

e)

The NASDAQ

10.

New stocks and bonds are sold in what market?

a)

Private placement market

b)

Secondary market

c)

Primary securities market

d)

Tertiary market

e)

Open market

11.

Which of the following is the federal government agency that regulates U.S. securities markets?

a)

New York Stock Exchange

b)

Federal Reserve

c)

Commerce Department

d)

Securities and Exchange Commission

e)

Treasury Department

12.

Which of the following is an organization of individuals coordinated to provide an institutional setting in which stock can be bought and sold?

a)

Stock exchange

b)

Brokerage

c)

Server

d)

Over-the-counter market

e)

Mutual fund

13.

Which of the following is a basis for a firm to be listed on the New York Stock Exchange?

a)

Headquarters in New York

b)

Total value of outstanding stock

c)

Industry in which the company operates

d)

Type of stock

e)

Global operations

14.

Which of the following receives and executes buy-and-sell orders for other people in return for commissions?

a)

Stock exchanges

b)

Stock brokers

c)

Investment banks

d)

Stock agents

e)

Savings banks

15.

Which of the following is a summary of price trends in a specific industry and/or the stock market as a whole?

a)

Investment index

b)

Average index

c)

Market indicator

d)

Market index

e)

Prospectus

16.

Which of the following is a function performed by an investment bank?

a)

Handling a client's portfolio in the secondary market

b)

Establishing relationships for a client with a commercial bank

c)

Underwriting purchases of stocks and bonds

d)

Arranging travel abroad for purchasers of foreign currencies

e)

Providing insurance services for clients

17.

Which of the following is considered by many to be the BEST single indicator of the U.S. equities market?

a)

NASDAQ Composite

b)

Russell 2000

c)

Dow Jones Industrial Average

d)

Standard & Poor's 500

e)

New York Stock Exchange

18.

Which stock exchange has the highest volume of shares traded?

a)

American Stock Exchange (ASE)

b)

New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)

c)

National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System (NASDAQ)

d)

Philadelphia Stock Exchange (PSE)

e)

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

19.

Which of the following allows after-hours trading and protects traders' anonymity?

a)

National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation (NASDAQ)

b)

New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)

c)

Electronic Communication Networks (ECNs)

d)

Standard & Poor's 500

e)

Mutual funds

20.

For investors who do not want investment advice and wish to avoid paying a commission, what is the best type of broker assistance firm?

a)

Mutual fund advisors

b)

Investment banks

c)

Stock broker

d)

Discount broker

e)

Full service broker

21.

Which of the following is indicative of a bull market?

a)

Stock prices that are averaging 20 percent off peak

b)

Rising stock prices for 12 months or more

c)

Falling stock prices for 6 months or more

d)

A spike in the value of the Dow Jones Industrial Average

e)

Investors who are motivated to sell stocks based on current value

22.

In which type of market would investors be motivated to sell because they feel prices will fall further?

a)

Bear market

b)

Blue-chip market

c)

Bull market

d)

Large cap market

e)

Composite market

23.

A bear market can be revealed by tracking ________, which is a summary of overall price trends.

a)

the Dow Jones Industrial Average

b)

market indexes

c)

the value of blue-chip stocks

d)

technology-based economies

e)

exchange-traded funds

24.

Which index focuses specifically on the smallest U.S. companies, based on market capitalization?

a)

S&P 500

b)

Dow Jones Industrial Average

c)

TradeStation

d)

Russell 2000

e)

NASDAQ Composite

25.

The largest stock exchange in the world is the Tokyo exchange.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Unlike the Dow and the S&P 500, all NASDAQ-listed companies are included in the index for a total of some 3,100 firms.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Stocks are known as securities because they represent a secured interest in a company.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Mutual funds are traded in securities markets.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

In a secondary securities market, new stocks and bonds are bought and sold by firms and governments.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

An investment bank is a financial institution that specializes in issuing and reselling new securities.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

A stock exchange is an organization of individuals coordinated to provide an institutional auction setting in which stocks can be bought and sold.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

The New York Stock Exchange, the world's oldest electronic stock market, has orders gathered and executed exclusively on a computer network.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Stock brokers earn commissions from the individuals and organizations for which they place orders.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The value of the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) has remained unchanged in recent years.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

An investment bank operates in the secondary securities market.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

When an investment bank engages in underwriting, that investment bank is taking on risk in the process of launching new securities.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Is the following statement true or false: Although advising and underwriting may be tasks of an investment bank, distribution of new securities is NOT one of their services.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Is the following statement true or false: The Russell 2000 Index focuses primarily on technology companies, small-company stocks, and has a smaller representation of sectors such as financial, consumer products, and industrials.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which combination best describes the core services provided by investment banks?

a)

Advising companies on timing and financial terms of new issues; underwriting new securities and bearing some of the risk; creating distribution networks to move new securities through brokers to individual investors

b)

Providing retail banking services to individuals; issuing savings accounts; managing government pensions

c)

Only underwriting securities and trading for their own accounts, without advising companies or distributing new issues

d)

Maintaining physical stock certificates for companies and investors, while avoiding involvement in underwriting or distribution

40.

Which statement best distinguishes primary from secondary securities markets?

a)

Primary markets involve businesses and governments selling new stocks and bonds, often with investment bank underwriting and possible private placements; secondary markets involve investors buying and selling existing securities on stock exchanges and via electronic communication networks

b)

Primary markets are where investors trade existing stocks and bonds on exchanges, while secondary markets are limited to private placements of new issues

c)

Primary markets occur only online through electronic networks, while secondary markets require face-to-face trading on exchange floors

d)

Primary markets are exclusively for government bonds, and secondary markets are exclusively for corporate stocks

41.

Which benefits are characteristic of online trading for individual investors? Select all that apply.

a)

Convenient Internet access, fast transactions, and the ability to manage one’s own investments while paying low fees

b)

A requirement to hold and store physical paper stock certificates for all transactions

c)

The ability to buy into and sell out of the stocks of thousands of companies daily

d)

Book-entry ownership that records shares in companies’ books, reducing the costs of storing, exchanging, and replacing certificates

42.

What is the term for buying several different kinds of investments rather than just one?

a)

Spreading

b)

Shorting

c)

Margin buying

d)

Diversification

43.

What is the term for the proportion of funds invested in each of several investment alternatives?

a)

Spreading

b)

Shorting

c)

Margin buying

d)

Asset allocation

e)

Diversification

44.

Which of the following is figured by dividing the yearly dollar amount of dividend income by the investment’s current market value?

a)

Bond yield

b)

Current dividend yield

c)

Debenture

d)

Trading volume

e)

Earnings per share

45.

The profit realized when the market value of an investment increases is known as which of the following?

a)

Capital gains

b)

Asset allocation

c)

Diversification

d)

Price appreciation

e)

Profiteering

46.

What are low grade bonds usually called?

a)

Bankruptcy

b)

Default bonds

c)

Junk bonds

d)

Corporate bonds

e)

Grade B bonds

47.

When do investors expect a higher rate of return on their investments?

a)

When there is greater uncertainty

b)

When the investment requires less upfront capital

c)

When the investment is stable

d)

When there is a short time commitment

e)

When the investment is for a larger share of the offering

48.

What is the increase in the dollar value of an investment known as?

a)

Dividend payout

b)

Total return

c)

Interest yield

d)

Capital gain

e)

Price appreciation

49.

Why should an investor consider diversification and asset allocation?

a)

To offset capital gains

b)

To achieve desired risk-return balance

c)

To increase total returns

d)

To achieve higher dividend yields

e)

To improve price-appreciation values

50.

What is the proportion of investments in each investment alternative referred to as?

a)

Portfolio

b)

Dividend yield

c)

Asset allocation

d)

Risk-reward relationship

e)

Diversification

51.

What type of investment offers low returns, but is insured by the U.S. government?

a)

Common stock

b)

Mutual funds

c)

Exchange-traded funds

d)

Treasury bills

e)

Securities

52.

Is the following statement true or false: Aggressive growth funds are designed for investors who can accept the risk of loss inherent in common stock investing with severe price fluctuations, but also the potential for superior returns over time.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Is the following statement true or false: An investment’s current dividend yield plus its capital gain rate is known as its total return.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

A portfolio represents the proportion of funds invested in each of the investment alternatives.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Explain how dividend yield and interest dividend yield are computed.

a)

Divide the yearly dollar amount of dividend income by the investment's current market value.

b)

Divide total annual interest earned by the face value of the bond.

c)

Divide quarterly dividends by the original purchase price of the stock.

d)

Divide the yearly dividend by par value and multiply by 100.

56.

What is the formula for measuring a firm's working capital?

a)

Current assets = working capital / current liabilities

b)

Working capital = current assets − current liabilities

c)

Current liabilities = current assets + working capital

d)

Working capital = current assets × current liabilities

e)

Current liabilities = current assets / working capital

57.

Which of the following is a formal pledge (an IOU) obligating the issuer to pay interest periodically and repay the principal at maturity (a preset future date) to the lender?

a)

Commercial bank loan

b)

Corporate bond

c)

Mutual fund

d)

Bond indenture

e)

Prospectus

58.

What type of loan is guaranteed by collateral?

a)

Unsecured loan

b)

Venture capital loan

c)

Angel investor loan

d)

Secured loan

e)

Corporate bond

59.

What is the advantage to a small business when planning for shortfalls in cash flow?

a)

Financial resources can be saved in a savings account until needed.

b)

Banks are more likely to offer loans if they know when the money will be needed.

c)

Loans can be obtained in advance and minimize their costs.

d)

Lower interest loans can be sought for the needed time frame.

e)

Small businesses will appear more professional, resulting in favorable banking relationships.

60.

What can an angel investor offer to small businesses when the small business doesn't have enough history to get a loan from a commercial bank?

a)

A credit history

b)

Venture capital

c)

Stock options

d)

Financial oversight

e)

Bonds

61.

How are federal and state projects, such as roads and schools, typically financed?

a)

Municipal bonds

b)

Common stock

c)

Angel investors

d)

Corporate bonds

e)

TARP loans

62.

What is the legal document that identifies a borrower's obligation and the financial returns to lenders when issuing corporate bonds?

a)

Bondholder's claim

b)

Risk claim analysis

c)

Initial public offering

d)

Mortgage-backed security

e)

Bond indenture

63.

What is the result of a borrower who fails to make payments to the lender when due?

a)

Bankruptcy

b)

Default

c)

Risk ratings

d)

Bondholder's claim

e)

Bond indenture

64.

According to rating services such as Moody's, what type of rating would a bond have if it was one of the safest investments possible, but produced lower returns?

a)

AAA

b)

BBB

c)

Caa

d)

CCC

e)

D

65.

What type of loan allows a borrower to maintain a compensating balance at the bank instead of putting up collateral?

a)

Unsecured loan

b)

Venture capital loan

c)

Angel investor loan

d)

Secured loan

e)

Corporate bond

66.

How can an investor request the courts to enforce a bond's terms of payment?

a)

File for bankruptcy

b)

Ask for an improved risk rating on the bond

c)

File a bondholders' claim

d)

Have the bond converted to stock

e)

Have the bond converted to a mortgage-backed security

67.

When can a bondholder file a bondholders' claim?

a)

When purchasing an initial issue of the bond

b)

When buying a bond from a brokerage service

c)

When the borrower is filing for bankruptcy

d)

When selling a bond before maturity

e)

When the borrower fails to make a payment that is due

68.

When a new bond is issued, when does the bond's par value have to be repaid?

a)

When the company files for bankruptcy

b)

Before the company goes into default

c)

On the maturity date

d)

On the issue date

e)

When the company makes enough profit to cover the value of the bond

69.

How is the risk involved in purchasing bonds affected by the bond's maturity date?

a)

The sooner the maturity date, the greater the rate of return is on the bond.

b)

The further the maturity date, the less likely a bondholders' claim will be filed.

c)

The sooner the maturity date, the lower the initial offering price of the bond.

d)

The further the maturity date, the greater the chance for unforeseen circumstances that affect the bond.

e)

The sooner the maturity date, the greater the chance for significant market changes that affect the bond.

70.

How does an issuer of mortgage-backed security pay off debt obligations?

a)

Through the sale of mortgages to consumers

b)

Through an increase in interest rates on mortgages

c)

Through the assets of the lending institutions

d)

Through the closing of a mortgage loan

e)

Through the influx of cash from mortgage payments

71.

What is a mortgage-backed security?

a)

A bundled group of home mortgages

b)

A bundled group of investments with AAA credit-ratings

c)

A bundled group of bonds

d)

A bundled group of stocks

e)

A bundled group of loans made to risk assessment firms

72.

Municipal bonds may be issued by federal, state, or local governments.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A bond is said to be in default if the borrower fails to make payment when due to lenders.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Bankruptcy is the court-granted permission not to pay some or all debts.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

When are corporate bonds attractive to a firm?

a)

When firms need large amounts for long periods of time

b)

When firms need small amounts for short periods of time

c)

When firms want to avoid interest payments entirely

d)

When dividend payments to stockholders are preferred over bond obligations

76.

Explain the difference between angel investors and venture capital.

a)

Angel investors are individuals who provide private funds; venture capital is the funding provided by such individuals or companies

b)

Angel investors are banks that issue loans; venture capital is government grant money

c)

Angel investors are company employees; venture capital is money raised through stock dividends

d)

Angel investors are public mutual funds; venture capital is revenue from product sales

77.

When giving an unsecured loan, what might a bank require?

a)

A compensating balance kept on deposit in a non-interest-bearing account

b)

Collateral pledged equal to the loan amount

c)

A cap on variable interest rates for the term of the loan

d)

A co-signer with no deposit requirement

78.

What is an angel investor?

a)

Outside individuals who provide additional capital for growth to successfully launched businesses

b)

Government agencies that guarantee commercial loans for startups

c)

Corporate boards that vote to issue additional shares of stock

d)

Banks that offer low-interest secured loans to new firms

79.

What do angel investors receive in return for their investment?

a)

A sizable piece of ownership in the company and often a formal say in how the company is run

b)

Only fixed interest payments with no ownership rights

c)

A tax deduction but no equity or control

d)

Guaranteed repayment before any public offering

80.

What is the term for a division of stock that gives stockholders a greater number of shares but does not change each individual's proportionate share of ownership?

a)

Stock dividend

b)

Stock split

c)

Stock yield

d)

Stock warrant

e)

Stock exchange

81.

What is the first sale of a company's stock to the general public called?

a)

IPO

b)

Common offering

c)

Par value

d)

Venture capital

e)

Portfolio

82.

When issuing shares of stock, what is being given to stock holders in exchange for their investment in the organization?

a)

Dividends

b)

Voting rights

c)

Increased par value

d)

Tax advantages

e)

Long-term growth on investments

83.

When is a company susceptible to a hostile takeover?

a)

When a bull market is in effect

b)

When stock prices are high, but assets are decreasing

c)

When stocks are low priced, but assets have high value

d)

When the international market is in recession

e)

When angel investors demand repayment of their venture capital

84.

When a security bought through an IPO is resold, where does the gain or loss go?

a)

The investor who bought the security

b)

The bank that financed the IPO

c)

Stakeholders with vested interests in the company

d)

The investor who sold the security

e)

The company

85.

Which of the following allows a company to generate long-term funding from within the organization?

a)

Long-term loans

b)

Equity financing

c)

Debt financing

d)

Market capitalization

e)

Stock splits

86.

What can a company do to attract investors when the value of their stock becomes too high?

a)

Use the increased value for equity financing

b)

Institute a market cap

c)

Increase earnings per share

d)

Buy back some shares

e)

Issue a stock split

87.

What is determined when the value of outstanding shares is multiplied by the number of outstanding shares?

a)

Market capitalization

b)

Stock split value

c)

Earnings per dollar of investment

d)

Dividend value

e)

Earnings per share

88.

When a firm needs a large amount of capital for an extended period of time, what type of financing, even with stiff annual or semi-annual interest payments, might be best?

a)

Retained earnings

b)

Corporate bonds

c)

Common stock

d)

Stock split

e)

IPO

89.

The use of special knowledge about a firm, which results in an unfair advantage or generates profit or other types of gain, is known as what?

a)

Equity financing

b)

Market capitalization

c)

Insider trading

d)

Prospectus information

e)

FINRA violation

90.

How does a corporate raider attempt to take control of a company and its assets?

a)

Buying shares of stock on the open market

b)

Joining the Board of Directors

c)

Attend the annual shareholders' meeting to solicit support

d)

Increase the value of shares on the market prompting a large sell off

e)

Buying stock in competitor's companies

91.

What is the outcome when a corporate raider takes over an organization?

a)

The value of assets decreases.

b)

Assets are sold off at a profit.

c)

The value of the stock increases.

d)

The company can be reorganized into a stronger, more productive organization.

e)

A hostile takeover is avoided.

92.

Before the Securities and Exchange Commission allows a firm to issue a public offering of new securities, what must be filed?

a)

Incidents of insider trading

b)

A prospectus

c)

The firm's history of reinvesting retained earning

d)

A statement of equity financing to be used

e)

The firm's corporate bond rating

93.

Where can an investor learn information about a firm's proposed security offering and the issuing company?

a)

The Russell 2000 Index

b)

The annual report

c)

The prospectus

d)

The SEC

e)

The retained earnings statement

94.

Before a firm can offer an IPO, they must file a document with the SEC that explains the offering and the company. This document is called a(n)

a)

Rule of 72 report.

b)

prospectus.

c)

FINRA confirmation.

d)

blue-chip evaluation.

e)

IPO launch form.

95.

Initial public offerings (IPOs) are the first sale of a company's stock to the general public and are a major source of funds that fuel continued growth for many firms.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The investment industry categorizes firms according to size of capitalization.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

In case of financial distress, the firm would pay its stockholders before paying its bondholders.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Discuss how a stock split works if a company has 100,000 common shares outstanding that are trading at $100 per share.

a)

In a 2-for-1 split, shares double to 200,000 and the price halves to $50, leaving each shareholder's total investment value unchanged.

b)

In a 2-for-1 split, shares are halved to 50,000 and the price doubles to $200, increasing the company's value.

c)

In a 2-for-1 split, both shares and price remain unchanged while market capitalization falls.

d)

In a 2-for-1 split, investors must buy additional shares at $100 to maintain their investment value.

99.

Explain the difference between debt financing and equity financing.

a)

Debt financing uses borrowed funds from outside the firm; equity financing uses owners' capital, such as issuing stock or retaining earnings.

b)

Debt financing raises funds by selling common stock; equity financing is the issuance of corporate bonds.

c)

Debt financing relies on reinvested profits; equity financing depends only on bank loans.

d)

Debt financing is always preferable for long-term funding; equity financing is used only for short-term cash needs.

100.

Which of the following is the enforcement agency that oversees a market's activities and the way securities are issued within that market?

a)

SEC

b)

FINRA

c)

Galleon group

d)

Prospectus

e)

Attorney general

101.

Some employees have special knowledge about a future event an organization will experience that will affect the value of stock. Using this knowledge to buy or sell stock before the major event is called

a)

prospectus violations.

b)

market capitalization.

c)

insider trading.

d)

retaining earnings.

e)

underwriting.

102.

Established in 2003, this group protects U.S. investors by overseeing brokerage firms and securities representatives.

a)

The attorney general's office

b)

The SEC

c)

The Galleon group

d)

FINRA

e)

The prospectus evaluation committee