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IPC Fall Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about the metric system is correct?

a)

The metric system uses meters, seconds, liters, and grams as units.

b)

The metric system uses only meters and grams, but not seconds or liters.

c)

The metric system uses liters, seconds, and grams, but not meters.

d)

The metric system does not use any of the mentioned units.

2.

Which of the following lists the units of measurement, the base unit and conversion factor correctly for a kilogram?

a)

Time, meter, 1m = 100cm

b)

Mass, gram, 1kg = 1000g

c)

Time, second, 1s = 1000ms

d)

Length, gram, 1km = 1000m

3.

Which of the following lists orders the units from smallest to largest?

a)

Millimeter, Centimeter, Meter, Kilometer

b)

Centimeter, Millimeter, Meter, Kilometer

c)

Millimeter, Meter, Centimeter, Kilometer

d)

Centimeter, Meter, Millimeter, Kilometer

4.

Refer to the image of the meter stick: a ruler marked in centimeters from 0 to 6 with millimeter subdivisions, and a black line that extends to the 3.5 cm mark. What is the length of the line in millimeters?

a)

3.5 millimeters

b)

35 meters

c)

35 millimeters

d)

3.5 centimeters

5.

An Olympic gold medal has a mass of 500 grams. What is this mass expressed in milligrams?

a)

50,000 milligrams

b)

500 milligrams

c)

5,000 milligrams

d)

500,000 milligrams

6.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the scientific method?

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Persuasion

c)

Conclusion

d)

Question

7.

Which of the following is the purpose of the scientific method?

a)

To prove theories are correct beyond any doubt

b)

To conduct experiments that lead to new technologies

c)

To systematically investigate questions and solve problems

d)

To confirm existing beliefs and opinions

8.

Which of the following has the steps of the scientific method in the correct order from beginning to end?

a)

Question, Hypothesis, Procedure, Results, Conclusion

b)

Question, Procedure, Hypothesis, Results Conclusion

c)

Hypothesis, Question, Procedure, Conclusion, Results

d)

Procedure, Question, Hypothesis, Results, Conclusion

9.

Expand 2.001x1072.001 x 10^7 (standard form)

a)

20000001

b)

20010000000

c)

20010000

d)

200100

10.

Write 23.65 in scientific notation.

a)

2.365×1012.365\times10^{-1}

b)

2.365×1022.365 \times 10^2

c)

2.365×1042.365 \times 10^4

d)

23.65×10123.65 \times 10^1

11.

Why is it important to tie back long hair and secure loose clothing in the lab?

a)

To maintain a professional appearance.

b)

To prevent from catching fire or getting caught in equipment.

c)

To keep your clothes clean and free from stains.

d)

To avoid distracting others during the experiment.

12.

What is the first step you should take if you accidentally break a piece of glassware?

a)

Attempt to clean up the glass yourself without telling anyone.

b)

Notify your teacher immediately and follow their instructions for cleaning up.

c)

Leave the broken glass on the floor until the end of the lab session.

d)

Use a broom and dustpan to sweep up the glass and dispose of it in a regular trash can.

13.

A dog walks the path shown below. If he starts at the star, follows the arrows, and ends at the X, what is the dog’s distance? The diagram shows a triangular path with segments labeled 6 km (from the starting star upward), 10 km (across the top toward X), and 8 km (along the bottom to the right), with a compass rose indicating North at the top.

a)

6 km

b)

14 km

c)

18 km

d)

24 km

14.

What is the dog’s displacement? The diagram shows the same triangular path with segments labeled 6 km, 10 km, and 8 km, starting at the star and ending at X, with a compass rose indicating directions.

a)

6 km North

b)

6 km South

c)

24 km North

d)

24 km South

15.

How long does it take a car to drive 300 km if it is traveling at 50 km/hr?

a)

4 hours

b)

5 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

7 hours

16.

What is the velocity of a jet plane that flies 7,200 miles East in 9 hours?

a)

720 miles per hour East

b)

800 miles per hour East

c)

640 miles per hour East

d)

900 miles per hour East

17.

What is the final velocity of a car after 2 seconds if it started from rest and accelerated at 9m/s2?

a)

5 m/s^2

b)

12 m/s^2

c)

18 m/s^2

18.

What is the acceleration when the car goes from 3 m/s to 18 m/s in 5 seconds?

a)

3 m/s^2

b)

13 m/s^2

c)

15 m/s^2

19.

If an object's distance-time graph starts at the origin and has a line that goes up and then flattens out, what does the flattening part represent?

a)

The object is moving faster

b)

The object has stopped moving

c)

The object is accelerating

d)

The object is moving backwards

20.

Which is true about a velocity-time graph that has a horizontal line above the zero mark?

a)

The object is accelerating

b)

The object is moving at a constant velocity

c)

The object is at rest

d)

The object is slowing down

21.

What does a horizontal line on a distance-time graph indicate?

a)

The object is moving at a constant speed

b)

The object is at rest

c)

The object is accelerating

d)

The object is changing direction

22.

If a distance-time graph shows a line sloping upwards, what can you say about its motion?

a)

The object is moving away from the starting point

b)

The object is moving towards the starting point

c)

The object is not moving

d)

The object is moving in a circular path

23.

If a speed-time graph shows a flat line at 0 m/s, what does that tell you?

a)

The object is moving at a constant speed

b)

The object is accelerating

c)

The object is not moving

d)

The object is changing direction

24.

When forces on an object are balanced, the net force is…

a)

zero

b)

greater than zero

c)

less than zero

d)

downward because of gravity

25.

Which of the following forces is acting on a leaf as it falls from a tree?

a)

gravity

b)

rolling friction

c)

fluid friction

d)

static friction

26.

When an unbalanced force acts on an object, the object…

a)

stays at rest

b)

accelerates

c)

changes its mass

d)

changes its weight

27.

What is the acceleration due to gravity here on Earth?

a)

0.42 m/s^2

b)

3.14 m/s^2

c)

9.8 m/s^2

d)

11.2 m/s^2

28.

As you push a cereal box to your right across a tabletop, sliding friction acts…

a)

to the right

b)

to the left

c)

upwards

d)

downwards

29.

What is the only thing that can start or stop an object from moving?

a)

velocity

b)

mass

c)

weight

d)

force

30.

What does a force diagram represent?

a)

The shape of an object in motion.

b)

The forces acting on a single object.

c)

The path of an object in free fall.

d)

The energy transformations of an object.

31.

In a force diagram, which of the following arrows indicates the direction of gravitational force acting on an object?

a)

An upward arrow.

b)

A horizontal arrow.

c)

A downward arrow.

d)

A diagonal arrow.

32.

Inertia is the natural tendency for objects to remain at rest or in motion. The objects that tend to stay in motion or stay motionless have more

a)

mass and speed

b)

mass and energy

c)

mass only

d)

speed only

33.

Which of the following is a non-contact force?

a)

Frictional force

b)

Normal Force

c)

Gravitational Force

d)

Space Force

34.

The average weight of an adult male is 870 N. What is the average mass of an adult male?

a)

70 kg

b)

80 kg

c)

90 kg

d)

100 kg

35.

How does increasing the mass of an object affect its acceleration if the force applied remains the same?

a)

Acceleration increases

b)

Acceleration decreases

c)

Acceleration stays the same

d)

Acceleration becomes negative

36.

A forklift pushes with a force of 900 N to move a crate across the floor. If the crate has a mass of 45 kg, what is the crate’s acceleration while it is pushed?

a)

5 m/s²

b)

10 m/s²

c)

20 m/s²

d)

25 m/s²

37.

A small engine causes a 0.20-kg model airplane to accelerate at 12 m/s². What is the force exerted on the plane by the engine?

a)

1.0 N

b)

2.4 N

c)

3.0 N

d)

4.0 N

38.

What are action-reaction pairs according to Newton's Third Law of Motion?

a)

Forces that act in the same direction

b)

Forces that cancel each other

c)

Forces that are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction

d)

Forces that are unrelated

39.

Your teacher holds a pumpkin at the edge of the roof. If the pumpkin has a mass of 6.5 kg and the roof is 17 m high, how much potential energy does the pumpkin have?

a)

1,082.9 J

b)

1,095.5 J

c)

1,102.2 J

d)

1,175.6 J

40.

What is the kinetic energy of a 65 kg diver moving at 19 m/s?

a)

585 Joules

b)

1,235 Joules

c)

11,733 Joules

d)

23,275 Joules

41.

Objects have potential energy because of their:

a)

Motion

b)

Speed

c)

Height

d)

Color

42.

Objects have kinetic energy because of their:

a)

Height

b)

Motion

c)

Mass

d)

Shape

43.

An object’s mass affects which type of energy?

a)

Potential energy

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

44.

What is the unit used to measure energy?

a)

Newtons

b)

Joules

c)

Kilograms

d)

Meters

45.

What is temperature a measure of in an object?

a)

Total potential energy of particles

b)

Average kinetic energy of particles

c)

Total thermal energy of particles

d)

Heat capacity of particles

46.

How does heat transfer occur?

a)

From lower to higher temperature

b)

Between objects of same temperature

c)

From higher to lower temperature

d)

Without temperature difference

47.

Which process involves thermal energy transfer through particle collisions?

a)

Radiation

b)

Convection

c)

Conduction

d)

Combustion

48.

Which material is considered the best insulator?

a)

Copper

b)

Aluminum

c)

Foam insulation

d)

Silver

49.

How does energy from the Sun reach Earth?

a)

Through convection

b)

As radiant energy

c)

Through conduction

d)

By combustion

50.

What are examples of good thermal conductors?

a)

Plastic and wood

b)

Silver and copper

c)

Foam and fiber

d)

Air and water

51.

Which of the following best describes the amplitude of a wave?

a)

The distance from crest to trough

b)

The height from the rest position to the crest

c)

The speed at which the wave travels

d)

The number of waves passing a point per second

52.

What happens to the wavelength of a wave if its frequency increases, assuming the speed remains constant?

a)

The wavelength increases

b)

The wavelength decreases

c)

The wavelength becomes zero

d)

The wavelength stays the same

53.

Which type of wave requires a medium to travel through?

a)

Electromagnetic waves

b)

Mechanical waves

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

54.

Which part of a wave is the highest point above the rest position?

a)

Wavelength

b)

Amplitude

c)

Crest

d)

Trough

55.

What is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs called?

a)

Frequency

b)

Wavelength

c)

Amplitude

d)

Speed

56.

What is the wavelength of a wave with a frequency of 5 Hz and a speed of 20 m/s?

a)

4 m

b)

0.25 m

c)

100 m

d)

15 m

57.

If a wave travels 60 meters in 3 seconds, what is its speed?

a)

20 m/s

b)

180 m/s

c)

15 m/s

d)

63 m/s

58.

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between frequency and wavelength for waves traveling at the same speed?

a)

As frequency increases, wavelength stays the same

b)

As frequency increases, wavelength increases

c)

As frequency increases, wavelength decreases

d)

Frequency and wavelength are unrelated

59.

Label the parts of the wave.

60.

Choose the wave with the highest frequency