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WorksheetsGEM Module 8 Mock
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A patient is diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The primary pathological deficit involves the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in a specific pathway. Which dopaminergic pathway is most critically involved in the motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
a)
Mesolimbic pathway
b)
Mesocortical pathway
c)
Nigrostriatal pathway
d)
Tuberoinfundibular pathway
e)
Medullary pathway
2.
During a pharmacology lecture, the mechanism of a common antidepressant is discussed. The drug works by blocking the reuptake of a specific monoamine neurotransmitter into the presynaptic neuron. Which transporter is the primary target of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)?
a)
Norepinephrine Transporter (NET)
b)
Serotonin Transporter (SERT)
c)
Dopamine Transporter (DAT)
d)
Vesicular Monoamine Transporter (VMAT)
e)
Excitatory Amino Acid Transporter (EAAT)
3.
A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a seizure. His medication list includes a drug used to treat neuropathic pain and epilepsy that is known to work primarily by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) has this as its principal mechanism?
a)
Carbamazepine
b)
Ethosuximide
c)
Valproate
d)
Vigabatrin
e)
Gabapentin
4.
A medical student is studying the effects of brain lesions. She reads about a patient who, after a stroke, can feel an object in their hand but cannot identify it by touch alone, despite having normal sensation. This deficit is most characteristic of a lesion in which cortical area?
a)
Primary somatosensory cortex
b)
Precentral gyrus
c)
Somatosensory association cortex
d)
Primary visual cortex
e)
Wernicke's area
5.
A patient presents with a drooping eyelid (ptosis), a dilated pupil (mydriasis), and an eye turned downward and outward. The doctor suspects a lesion affecting the innervation of multiple extraocular muscles. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?
a)
Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)
b)
Abducens Nerve (CN VI)
c)
Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
d)
Facial Nerve (CN VII)
e)
Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)
6.
A researcher is investigating a drug that acts as an antagonist at the NMDA subtype of glutamate receptors. This drug is being studied for its potential neuroprotective effects. What is the primary pathological process that NMDA receptor antagonists aim to prevent in conditions like stroke?
a)
Apoptosis
b)
Neuroinflammation
c)
Protein misfolding
d)
Excitotoxicity
e)
Demyelination
7.
A 40-year-old woman has a tumour in her cerebellopontine angle. Imaging shows it is compressing a nerve responsible for both motor and parasympathetic functions. Which cranial nerve, if compressed, could explain both facial muscle weakness and reduced lacrimation?
a)
Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)
b)
Facial Nerve (CN VII)
c)
Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)
d)
Vagus Nerve (CN X)
e)
Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)
8.
An elderly patient with dementia is started on a medication. The drug is not a cure but is intended to modestly improve cognitive symptoms by increasing cholinergic neurotransmission in the brain. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological class for this purpose in Alzheimer's disease?
a)
NMDA receptor antagonists
b)
Dopamine agonists
c)
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
d)
SSRIs
e)
Benzodiazepines
9.
A patient with epilepsy is being evaluated for surgery. The team needs to identify the exact location of his seizure focus while he is awake to avoid damaging areas critical for language. Which intraoperative technique is most directly used for this purpose?
a)
Electroencephalography (EEG)
b)
Functional MRI (fMRI)
c)
Intraoperative functional mapping
d)
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
e)
Computed Tomography (CT)
10.
A patient presents with a complete loss of vision in the right eye. Fundoscopy and imaging reveal damage isolated to the initial part of the visual pathway before the chiasm. Where is the lesion most likely located?
a)
Right optic tract
b)
Right optic nerve
c)
Optic chiasm
d)
Left occipital lobe
e)
Left optic radiation
11.
A 25-year-old cyclist is brought to A&E after a head injury. A CT scan shows a hyperdense collection of blood that appears lens-shaped on axial imaging. Which of the following vessels is most likely to have been injured, and in which meningeal space is this collection located?
a)
Bridging vein, in the subarachnoid space
b)
Middle meningeal artery, in the subdural space
c)
Anterior cerebral artery, in the subarachnoid space
d)
Middle meningeal artery, in the epidural/extradural space
e)
Superior sagittal sinus, in the subdural space
12.
A patient presents with a severe, sudden-onset "thunderclap" headache. Lumbar puncture reveals xanthochromia (yellow CSF). In which meningeal space has the bleeding most likely occurred?
a)
Epidural space
b)
Subdural space
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Subpial space
e)
Intraventricular space
13.
A 55-year-old woman presents with facial pain, ophthalmoplegia, proptosis, and sensory loss over her forehead. Imaging reveals a lesion in a venous sinus lateral to the sella turcica. Which cranial nerve would be most likely to be intact despite this syndrome?
a)
Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
b)
Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)
c)
Abducens Nerve (CN VI)
d)
Trigeminal Nerve, Mandibular division (CN V3)
e)
Facial Nerve (CN VII)
14.
An infant is brought to clinic with macrocephaly, bulging fontanelles, and eyes that appear to be looking downward ("setting sun" sign). What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?
a)
Overproduction of CSF by the choroid plexus
b)
Obstruction of CSF flow within the ventricular system
c)
Increased reabsorption of CSF at the arachnoid granulations
d)
Decreased permeability of the arachnoid membrane
e)
Atrophy of the cerebral hemispheres
15.
A patient suffers a stroke affecting the territory of a major cerebral artery. The result is contralateral hemiparesis affecting the face and arm much more than the leg, along with expressive aphasia. Which artery is most likely occluded?
a)
Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA)
b)
Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)
c)
Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA)
d)
Anterior Choroidal Artery
e)
Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (PICA)
16.
A patient presents with acute-onset bilateral lower limb weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the umbilicus, but can still feel light touch and knows the position of their toes. Which vascular structure is most likely compromised?
a)
Posterior spinal arteries
b)
Anterior spinal artery
c)
Artery of Adamkiewicz
d)
Vertebral artery
e)
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
17.
A patient with a malignant brain tumour is enrolled in a trial for a new chemotherapy drug. The drug is a large molecule that shows poor penetration from the bloodstream into the brain tissue. What is the primary structural component of the blood-brain barrier that prevents this passage?
a)
Thick basement membrane
b)
Tight junctions between brain endothelial cells
c)
Astrocyte end-feet
d)
Pericytes
e)
Lack of fenestrations
18.
A research team is developing a new drug for Alzheimer's disease. They attach the active compound to a monoclonal antibody that binds to the transferrin receptor on brain endothelial cells. Which endogenous transport mechanism across the BBB are they attempting to exploit?
a)
Free diffusion
b)
Carrier-mediated transport
c)
Receptor-mediated transcytosis
d)
Active efflux transport
e)
Adsorptive transcytosis
19.
A 45-year-old man suffers a severe head injury in a motorcycle accident. Following recovery, he has a complete loss of sense of smell. Through which bony structure were the axons of the olfactory nerve likely sheared?
a)
Foramen rotundum
b)
Foramen ovale
c)
Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
d)
Superior orbital fissure
e)
Internal acoustic meatus
20.
During a neurological exam, a doctor tests taste sensation. When applying a sweet solution to the anterior two-thirds of the patient's tongue, the sensory signal is carried to the brainstem via a specific nerve branch. Which nerve carries this special sensory (taste) information?
a)
Lingual nerve (CN V3)
b)
Chorda tympani branch of the Facial Nerve (CN VII)
c)
Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)
d)
Vagus Nerve (CN X)
e)
Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)
21.
A pregnant woman is counseled on prenatal vitamins. Her midwife emphasizes the importance of one specific supplement taken before conception to dramatically reduce the risk of a specific class of birth defects. Which supplement and which defect is she most likely referring to?
a)
Vitamin D to prevent craniosynostosis
b)
Folic Acid (Vitamin B9) to prevent neural tube defects
c)
Iron to prevent spina bifida occulta
d)
Calcium to prevent anencephaly
e)
Iodine to prevent congenital hypothyroidism
22.
A newborn is found to have a fluid-filled sac protruding from the lumbar region. Imaging reveals that the sac contains meninges, CSF, and nerve roots. What is the most specific diagnosis?
a)
Spina bifida occulta
b)
Meningocele
c)
Myelomeningocele
d)
Anencephaly
e)
Encephalocele
23.
A medical student is learning about embryonic development. He notes that a particular group of cells gives rise to a wide variety of structures including dorsal root ganglia, melanocytes, and the adrenal medulla. These cells originate from which embryonic structure?
a)
Notochord
b)
Neural crest
c)
Ectoderm (non-neural)
d)
Mesoderm
e)
Endoderm
24.
A 19-year-old university student presents to A&E with fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching purpuric rash on his trunk and legs. His condition deteriorates rapidly. What is the single most urgent priority in management?
a)
Order a CT head scan
b)
Perform a lumbar puncture for CSF analysis
c)
Administer intravenous antibiotics (and steroids) immediately
d)
Give intravenous mannitol for raised ICP
e)
Arrange an urgent MRI of the brain
25.
The CSF results from a patient with suspected meningitis show: markedly elevated neutrophils, very high protein, and very low glucose. What is the most likely aetiology?
a)
Viral meningitis
b)
Bacterial meningitis
c)
Fungal meningitis
d)
Tuberculous meningitis
e)
Chemical meningitis
26.
A new drug for multiple sclerosis is being evaluated by NICE. The analysis compares the drug's additional cost to the additional health benefit it provides, measured in terms of both quality and quantity of life. What is the name of the standard metric used in this type of economic evaluation?
a)
Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY)
b)
Life Years Gained (LYG)
c)
Quality-Adjusted Life Year (QALY)
d)
Health Utility Index (HUI)
e)
Incremental Cost Ratio (ICR)
27.
A 78-year-old man with moderate dementia is admitted with a hip fracture requiring surgery. He is confused about the procedure but keeps saying "I want to go home." His daughter holds Lasting Power of Attorney for health and welfare and consents on his behalf. Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005, what is the fundamental principle that must guide the daughter and the clinical team when making this decision?
a)
The principle of substituted judgement (what the patient would have wanted)
b)
The principle of best medical interest (what doctors think is best)
c)
The principle of best interests (of the patient)
d)
The principle of least restriction
e)
The principle of proportionality
28.
A competent 17-year-old patient with epilepsy requests that you do not inform his parents about his diagnosis, as he fears their reaction. He understands the risks of not having supervision. According to UK law and guidance, what is the most appropriate action regarding confidentiality?
a)
You must inform his parents as he is a minor.
b)
You can override his wishes as it is in his best medical interest.
c)
You should respect his confidentiality, as he is presumed to have capacity to consent.
d)
You should seek a court order to disclose the information.
e)
You should only inform his parents if he has a seizure.
29.
A 14-year-old girl requests confidential contraceptive advice. She appears mature and demonstrates a clear understanding of the implications. Under which established guidelines can a doctor provide this advice or treatment without parental consent?
a)
The Bolam test
b)
The Fraser Guidelines
c)
The Gillick competence criteria
d)
The Montgomery principles
e)
The Children Act guidelines
30.
A patient with uncontrolled epilepsy continues to drive against medical advice. He has had several recent seizures with loss of awareness. In this scenario, what is the primary ethical justification for the doctor to breach confidentiality and inform the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)?
a)
It is required by a court order.
b)
It is in the public interest to prevent serious harm.
c)
The patient has implicitly consented by driving.
d)
It is in the patient's best medical interests.
e)
It is required by the Mental Capacity Act.
31.
A 65-year-old man suffers a stroke affecting the posterior limb of the internal capsule. On examination, he has complete weakness of his right arm and leg but no sensory loss, aphasia, or visual field deficit. Which type of stroke is most consistent with these findings?
a)
Middle Cerebral Artery cortical stroke
b)
Anterior Cerebral Artery stroke
c)
Pure motor lacunar stroke
d)
Brainstem stroke
e)
Thalamic stroke
32.
A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of their body below the nipple line. However, their ability to sense light touch and joint position is normal on both sides. A unilateral lesion in which part of the spinal cord would cause this specific sensory deficit?
a)
Right dorsal column
b)
Right lateral corticospinal tract
c)
Left anterolateral white matter (spinothalamic tract)
d)
Left dorsal horn
e)
Right ventral white commissure
33.
Following a spinal cord injury, a patient exhibits spastic paralysis, hyperreflexia, and a positive Babinski sign in their lower limbs. Which of the following best describes the location of the primary pathology?
a)
Damage to the ventral horn at the level of injury
b)
Damage to descending corticospinal tracts below the level of injury
c)
Damage to dorsal root ganglia
d)
Damage to the spinocerebellar tracts
e)
Complete transection of a peripheral nerve
34.
A patient is diagnosed with a Pancoast tumour at the lung apex. They present with a constricted pupil (miosis), mild drooping of the eyelid (ptosis), and lack of sweating (anhidrosis) on the same side of the face. Which neural pathway has been disrupted?
a)
Parasympathetic outflow via the oculomotor nerve (CN III)
b)
Sympathetic innervation to the head and neck
c)
Sensory innervation of the face via the trigeminal nerve (CN V)
d)
Motor innervation of the eyelid via the facial nerve (CN VII)
e)
The corticobulbar tract
35.
A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis develops severe spasticity in her legs. Her neurologist considers a drug that acts as a GABA agonist primarily at the spinal cord level to reduce muscle tone. Which medication has this mechanism of action?
a)
Dantrolene
b)
Tizanidine
c)
Botulinum toxin
d)
Baclofen
e)
Diazepam
36.
When testing proprioception, a doctor moves a patient's big toe up or down without the patient watching. The sensory signal for this conscious joint position sense travels to the brain via a specific pathway. Which pathway carries this information?
a)
Spinothalamic tract
b)
Dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway
c)
Anterior spinocerebellar tract
d)
Lateral corticospinal tract
e)
Spinoreticular tract
37.
A patient has a lesion affecting the right side of their spinal cord at the T10 level. On examination, they have weakness and loss of proprioception in the right leg, and loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. This pattern of deficits is most characteristic of which syndrome?
a)
Anterior cord syndrome
b)
Posterior cord syndrome
c)
Central cord syndrome
d)
Brown-Séquard syndrome (hemisection)
e)
Conus medullaris syndrome
38.
A doctor is examining a patient's cranial nerve function. They note that parasympathetic stimulation of the pupil causes constriction. Which cranial nerve ganglion is responsible for relaying this parasympathetic signal to the iris?
a)
Pterygopalatine ganglion
b)
Submandibular ganglion
c)
Otic ganglion
d)
Ciliary ganglion
e)
Superior cervical ganglion
39.
A patient suffers damage to the ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus. What is the most likely primary sensory deficit?
a)
Blindness in the contralateral visual field
b)
Deafness in the contralateral ear
c)
Loss of taste on the contralateral side of the tongue
d)
Loss of somatic sensation from the contralateral body
e)
Loss of smell
40.
During a dissection, a medical student identifies a large bundle of white matter fibres in the brainstem that contains the descending axons of upper motor neurons destined for the spinal cord. What is the name of this prominent structure visible on the ventral surface of the medulla?
a)
Cerebral peduncles
b)
Medial lemniscus
c)
Pyramids
d)
Inferior olivary nucleus
e)
Basis pontis
41.
A 78-year-old man presents with acute-onset left-sided facial droop. On examination, he cannot raise his left eyebrow, his left eye does not close fully, and his smile is asymmetrical. However, he can wrinkle his forehead bilaterally. Where is the most likely location of the lesion?
a)
Right corticobulbar tract (UMN)
b)
Left facial nerve (LMN)
c)
Right facial nerve (LMN)
d)
Left corticobulbar tract (UMN)
e)
Left trigeminal nerve
42.
A patient with a large acoustic neuroma in the right cerebellopontine angle undergoes surgery. Post-operatively, he has difficulty swallowing, a hoarse voice, and deviation of the uvula to the left. Which cranial nerve is most likely damaged in addition to CN VIII?
a)
Right CN V
b)
Right CN IX
c)
Right CN X
d)
Left CN X
e)
Right CN XII
43.
A 45-year-old woman presents with vertigo, nausea, and horizontal nystagmus. The nystagmus's fast phase is to the right. It is suppressed when she fixates on a stationary object. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a)
Left pontine stroke
b)
Right vestibular neuritis
c)
Left cerebellar infarction
d)
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus lesion
e)
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
44.
A patient is found to have sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear. A Weber tuning fork test lateralises to the right ear. What is the expected result of a Rinne test on the left ear?
a)
Bone conduction > Air conduction (Rinne negative)
b)
Air conduction > Bone conduction, but both reduced (Rinne positive, abnormal)
c)
Air conduction = Bone conduction
d)
Air conduction > Bone conduction, and both are normal
e)
The test cannot be performed
45.
A patient has a stroke affecting the medial medulla. On examination, you note they have impaired pain and temperature sensation on the right side of their body and left-sided limb ataxia. Which vascular territory is most likely occluded?
a)
Anterior spinal artery
b)
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
c)
Vertebral artery or its medial branch (e.g., paramedian branches)
d)
Superior cerebellar artery
e)
Basilar artery
46.
During a caloric reflex test, cold water is irrigated into a patient's left ear. The examiner observes conjugate eye movements. What is the expected normal finding?
a)
Tonic deviation of both eyes to the left
b)
Nystagmus with the fast phase to the right
c)
Nystagmus with the fast phase to the left
d)
No eye movement (areflexia)
e)
Vertical nystagmus
47.
A patient with chronic neuropathic pain describes a burning sensation in their foot. Light touch with a cotton wool ball now causes severe, sharp pain. Which term best describes this phenomenon?
a)
Hyperalgesia
b)
Allodynia
c)
Dysaesthesia
d)
Hyperpathia
e)
Anaesthesia dolorosa
48.
A 55-year-old man is undergoing a colonoscopy. The anaesthetist administers a drug that provides profound analgesia and sedation but does not cause loss of consciousness. This technique is known as: What is the most appropriate term for this approach?
a)
General anaesthesia
b)
Spinal anaesthesia
c)
Conscious sedation (now often termed 'procedural sedation and analgesia')
d)
Regional nerve block
e)
Topical anaesthesia
49.
A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation not on anticoagulation presents with acute onset of vertigo, vomiting, left-sided limb ataxia, right-sided facial droop (forehead spared), and right-sided limb weakness. Which vascular territory is most likely affected?
a)
Right middle cerebral artery
b)
Left vertebrobasilar system (e.g., Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery - PICA)
c)
Left anterior cerebral artery
d)
Right internal capsule
e)
Basilar artery apex
50.
A patient presents with difficulty swallowing, a nasal voice, and a spastic, slow-moving tongue. Their gag reflex is exaggerated, and they have episodes of uncontrollable crying. What is the underlying pathology?
a)
Myasthenia gravis
b)
Bilateral damage to the corticobulbar tracts (Pseudobulbar palsy)
c)
Unilateral medullary infarction (Bulbar palsy)
d)
Parkinson's disease
e)
Guillain-Barré syndrome
51.
The perioperative team is preparing for a patient's elective surgery. They assess the patient's Mallampati score, thyromental distance, and neck mobility. What is the primary purpose of this specific assessment?
a)
To evaluate cardiac risk
b)
To determine anaesthetic drug doses
c)
To predict the difficulty of endotracheal intubation
d)
To assess post-operative pain management needs
e)
To screen for obstructive sleep apnoea
52.
A patient with severe trigeminal neuralgia is treated with a medication that stabilises neuronal membranes by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. Which drug has this as its primary mechanism of action?
a)
Amitriptyline
b)
Carbamazepine
c)
Gabapentin
d)
Sumatriptan
e)
Baclofen
53.
A 60-year-old man experiences a transient episode of inability to speak and weakness in his right hand lasting 20 minutes, with complete resolution. MRI brain shows no acute infarct. What is the most important immediate next step in management?
a)
Schedule an outpatient carotid Doppler ultrasound in 4 weeks.
b)
Urgent specialist assessment (within 24 hours) in a TIA clinic.
c)
Start long-term aspirin therapy and advise to follow up with his GP.
d)
Admit for 72-hour cardiac monitoring.
e)
Arrange an outpatient echocardiogram.
54.
During a dissection, a medical student identifies a nucleus in the midbrain that contains preganglionic parasympathetic neurons whose axons travel with the oculomotor nerve to control pupillary constriction. What is the name of this nucleus?
a)
Superior salivatory nucleus
b)
Edinger-Westphal nucleus
c)
Nucleus ambiguus
d)
Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus
e)
Inferior salivatory nucleus
55.
A patient develops hyperacusis (sensitivity to loud sounds) and loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue following surgery for a parotid gland tumour. Which nerve was likely damaged?
a)
Auriculotemporal nerve (V3)
b)
Chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)
c)
Lingual nerve (V3)
d)
Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
e)
Greater petrosal nerve (CN VII)
56.
A patient presents with wasting and fasciculations of the tongue, nasal regurgitation of fluids, and a weak, slurred voice. The gag reflex is absent. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with this set of findings?
a)
Multiple sclerosis with bilateral pontine plaques
b)
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) with bulbar involvement
c)
Myasthenia gravis
d)
Bilateral internal capsule strokes
e)
Parkinson's disease
57.
A researcher is studying the endogenous pain modulation system. They focus on a midbrain structure that, when stimulated, produces profound analgesia by activating a descending pathway to the spinal cord dorsal horn. Which structure is this?
a)
Red nucleus
b)
Periaqueductal grey (PAG) matter
c)
Substantia nigra
d)
Locus coeruleus
e)
Raphe nuclei
58.
A patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease and mitral stenosis presents with acute right-sided hemiplegia and global aphasia. Echocardiogram shows a left atrial thrombus. What is the most likely mechanism of this patient's stroke?
a)
Large artery atherosclerosis
b)
Small vessel disease (lacunar)
c)
Cardioembolism
d)
Hypercoagulable state
e)
Arterial dissection
59.
A 65-year-old man is brought to A&E 2 hours after the sudden onset of dense right hemiplegia and aphasia. A non-contrast CT head shows no haemorrhage. He has no contraindications. What is the most appropriate immediate pharmacological intervention?
a)
Intravenous aspirin 300 mg
b)
Subcutaneous enoxaparin
c)
Intravenous alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator)
d)
Intravenous mannitol
e)
Oral clopidogrel 300 mg
60.
A patient describes a brief episode of monocular vision loss in the right eye, like "a curtain coming down," which resolved completely after 10 minutes. What is the specific term for this symptom?
a)
Homonymous hemianopia
b)
Bitemporal hemianopia
c)
Amaurosis fugax
d)
Scotoma
e)
Photopsia
61.
A 72-year-old man presents with sudden onset of dense weakness and numbness affecting his left arm and face more than his leg. He also has difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Occlusion of which artery is most likely responsible for this clinical picture?
a)
Right anterior cerebral artery (ACA)
b)
Right middle cerebral artery (MCA)
c)
Right posterior cerebral artery (PCA)
d)
Left middle cerebral artery (MCA)
e)
Basilar artery
62.
A 68-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter who reports a 9-month history of progressive memory loss. The patient has become increasingly unable to manage her finances or cook meals. She is alert and cooperative. Neurological exam is normal except for cognitive deficits. Which of the following is an essential criterion for a diagnosis of dementia according to ICD-10?
a)
Presence of neurofibrillary tangles on imaging
b)
Duration of symptoms for at least 3 months
c)
Decline in memory and thinking sufficient to impair daily activities
d)
A stepwise progression of symptoms
e)
The presence of visual hallucinations
63.
A patient is diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder, severe without psychotic features, that has not responded to two adequate trials of SSRIs. The psychiatrist is considering a highly effective biological treatment. Which intervention is most appropriate to consider next?
a)
Starting a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
b)
Adding a benzodiazepine for anxiety
c)
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
d)
Switching to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
e)
Recommending intensive exercise therapy alone
64.
A 75-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of progressive cognitive decline. His wife notes that his symptoms seem to fluctuate dramatically from day to day, he often sees "little children" in the room who are not there, and he has become quite slow and stiff when walking. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a)
Alzheimer's disease
b)
Vascular dementia
c)
Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)
d)
Frontotemporal dementia
e)
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
65.
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of low mood, anhedonia, low energy, poor sleep, and feelings of worthlessness. Her thyroid function tests are normal. According to the ICD-10 classification, how many total symptoms (core and associated) are required for a diagnosis of moderate depressive episode?
a)
3 symptoms
b)
4 symptoms
c)
5-6 symptoms
d)
7-8 symptoms
e)
>8 symptoms
66.
A patient with mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease is started on a medication. A few weeks later, they report significant nausea and diarrhoea. Which class of drugs, commonly used in Alzheimer's, is most likely causing these side effects?
a)
NMDA receptor antagonists (e.g., Memantine)
b)
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., Donepezil)
c)
Atypical antipsychotics (e.g., Risperidone)
d)
SSRIs (e.g., Sertraline)
e)
Benzodiazepines (e.g., Lorazepam)
67.
A 65-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vertigo, vomiting, difficulty swallowing, hoarseness, and left-sided facial pain/temperature loss with right-sided body pain/temperature loss. Infarction in the territory of which artery typically causes this syndrome?
a)
Anterior cerebral artery
b)
Middle cerebral artery
c)
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
d)
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
e)
Superior cerebellar artery
68.
A GP is assessing a patient with suspected depression. They consider the patient's family history, recent job loss, ongoing marital stress, and lack of social support. Which clinical formulation framework is the GP using to organise these factors?
a)
The MSE (Mental State Examination)
b)
The 4 Ps formulation (Predisposing, Precipitating, Perpetuating, Protective)
c)
The biopsychosocial model
d)
The DSM-5 criteria
e)
The risk assessment framework
69.
A patient's brain MRI shows pronounced atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with relative sparing of the parietal and occipital regions. Which dementia subtype is most consistent with this pattern of atrophy?
a)
Alzheimer's disease
b)
Vascular dementia
c)
Dementia with Lewy Bodies
d)
Frontotemporal dementia
e)
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
70.
For a patient with a suspected acute ischemic stroke, the clinical team needs to quickly visualise the intracranial vasculature to identify a possible large vessel occlusion that might be amenable to thrombectomy. Which imaging modality is most appropriate for this purpose?
a)
Non-contrast CT head
b)
MRI brain with T2-weighted sequences
c)
CT angiography (CTA) of the head and neck
d)
Cerebral digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
e)
MR spectroscopy
71.
A patient with known Parkinson's disease presents with a resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and a mask-like facies. Their symptoms are well-controlled with levodopa, but they now experience involuntary, writhing movements of their limbs. What is the most likely explanation for these new movements?
a)
Disease progression
b)
Levodopa-induced dyskinesia
c)
Development of Huntington's disease
d)
Tardive dyskinesia from an antipsychotic
e)
Cerebellar ataxia
72.
A 25-year-old man is involved in a high-speed RTA. In the ED, his GCS is 5 (E1, V2, M2). His left pupil is dilated and non-reactive. What is the most likely acute neurological complication?
a)
Diffuse axonal injury
b)
Subdural haematoma
c)
Transtentorial (uncal) herniation
d)
Epidural haematoma
e)
Tonsillar herniation
73.
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive clumsiness, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait. On examination, she has nystagmus, intention tremor, dysdiadochokinesia, and a wide-based ataxic gait. Which structure is primarily dysfunctional?
a)
Basal ganglia
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Primary motor cortex
d)
Spinal cord dorsal columns
e)
Vestibular nerve
74.
A 70-year-old man with a history of smoking and hypertension presents with a stepwise decline in cognitive function over 2 years. Each decline was associated with a focal neurological event (e.g., minor limb weakness). His MRI shows multiple small infarcts in the white matter and basal ganglia. What is the most likely type of dementia?
a)
Alzheimer's disease
b)
Vascular dementia
c)
Dementia with Lewy Bodies
d)
Frontotemporal dementia
e)
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
75.
A patient who underwent bilateral medial temporal lobe resection for intractable epilepsy is unable to form any new memories about people he meets or events that occur, though his intelligence and childhood memories are intact. What is the specific term for this memory deficit?
a)
Retrograde amnesia
b)
Anterograde amnesia
c)
Transient global amnesia
d)
Procedural memory loss
e)
Semantic memory loss
76.
A 22-year-old university student is brought to A&E by friends after becoming agitated and claiming the television was sending him secret messages. He is diagnosed with a first episode of psychosis. Which of the following is a positive symptom of psychosis?
a)
Social withdrawal
b)
Poverty of speech
c)
Blunted affect
d)
Auditory hallucinations
e)
Apathy
77.
A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of blurred vision in her right eye and pain on eye movement. Neurological exam is otherwise normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a)
Retinal detachment
b)
Posterior cerebral artery stroke
c)
Optic neuritis
d)
Pituitary adenoma
e)
Migraine with aura
78.
A patient with schizophrenia has been stable on an antipsychotic for years. He now presents with a resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. What is the most likely cause of these new symptoms?
a)
Coincidental development of Parkinson's disease
b)
Drug-induced parkinsonism (a side effect of antipsychotics)
c)
Worsening of negative symptoms
d)
Tardive dyskinesia
e)
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
79.
A head-injured patient in the ICU develops hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations. This triad of signs is indicative of what underlying process?
a)
Septic shock
b)
Severely raised intracranial pressure (Cushing's triad)
c)
Neurogenic shock
d)
Autonomic dysreflexia
e)
Opiate overdose
80.
A patient with Alzheimer's disease is started on donepezil. A few weeks later, he experiences significant nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea. What is the mechanism behind these common side effects?
a)
Direct gastric irritation
b)
Increased cholinergic activity in the gut
c)
Dopaminergic activation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone
d)
Serotonin syndrome
e)
Idiosyncratic drug reaction
81.
A neurologist is explaining the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease to a medical student. He states, "The net effect of dopamine loss is excessive inhibition of the thalamus, reducing cortical activation." Which basal ganglia output nucleus is primarily responsible for this excessive inhibitory output?
a)
Subthalamic nucleus (STN)
b)
Globus pallidus internus (GPi)
c)
Caudate nucleus
d)
Putamen
e)
Globus pallidus externus (GPe)
82.
A patient with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis has a new spinal cord lesion on MRI. The neurologist notes the simultaneous presence of both gadolinium-enhancing and non-enhancing lesions on the same scan. What key diagnostic criterion for MS does this finding satisfy?
a)
Dissemination in space (DIS)
b)
Dissemination in time (DIT)
c)
Presence of oligoclonal bands
d)
Clinical evidence of a relapse
e)
Positive Lhermitte's sign
83.
Following a severe traumatic brain injury, a patient is awake and alert but cannot move any voluntary muscles except for vertical eye movements and blinking. What is the name of this syndrome?
a)
Persistent vegetative state
b)
Brainstem death
c)
Locked-in syndrome
d)
Minimally conscious state
e)
Catatonia
84.
A 30-year-old man presents with personality changes, disinhibition, apathy, and a decline in personal hygiene. His memory is relatively intact. MRI shows significant atrophy of the frontal lobes. Which type of dementia is most likely?
a)
Alzheimer's disease
b)
Vascular dementia
c)
Dementia with Lewy Bodies
d)
Frontotemporal dementia
e)
Huntington's disease
85.
A patient with RRMS is experiencing an acute relapse with new weakness in her legs. The neurologist prescribes a 3-5 day course of high-dose intravenous therapy. Which drug is most appropriate?
a)
Interferon-beta
b)
Natalizumab
c)
Methylprednisolone
d)
Gabapentin
e)
Baclofen
86.
A medical student is reviewing EEG tracings. One tracing shows high-amplitude, slow waves with a frequency of 1-2 Hz. In which stage of sleep is this pattern most characteristic?
a)
Awake with eyes closed
b)
NREM Stage 1 (N1)
c)
NREM Stage 2 (N2)
d)
NREM Stage 3 (N3) - Slow Wave Sleep
e)
REM sleep
87.
A patient presents with excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden episodes of muscle weakness triggered by strong emotions like laughter, consistent with narcolepsy with cataplexy. Which neuropeptide-producing neurons are characteristically lost or damaged in this condition?
a)
Serotonin neurons in the raphe nuclei
b)
Noradrenaline neurons in the locus coeruleus
c)
Hypocretin/Orexin neurons in the lateral hypothalamus
d)
Histamine neurons in the tuberomammillary nucleus
e)
Acetylcholine neurons in the basal forebrain
88.
A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a severe headache, nausea, and a blood pressure of 220/130 mmHg. His wife mentions he ate a large amount of aged cheese and drank red wine at a party. His medication list includes an antidepressant. Which class of antidepressant is most likely responsible for this hypertensive crisis?
a)
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
b)
Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
c)
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)
d)
Serotonin-Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI)
e)
Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitor (NRI)
89.
A patient with schizophrenia is started on a new antipsychotic. After several months, he develops significant weight gain, elevated fasting glucose, and dyslipidaemia. Which of the following antipsychotics is most strongly associated with these metabolic side effects?
a)
Haloperidol
b)
Olanzapine
c)
Aripiprazole
d)
Lurasidone
e)
Flupentixol
90.
A patient with generalised anxiety disorder is prescribed a medication that is a partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors. It has a slow onset of action but does not cause sedation or dependence. Which anxiolytic drug fits this description?
a)
Diazepam
b)
Propranolol
c)
Buspirone
d)
Zopiclone
e)
Sertraline
91.
The nurse on the psychiatric ward notes that a patient taking a first-generation antipsychotic has developed repetitive, involuntary, chewing and tongue protrusion movements. What is the name of this adverse effect, and why is it particularly concerning?
a)
Acute dystonia; it is reversible with anticholinergics.
b)
Akathisia; it causes severe subjective distress.
c)
Tardive dyskinesia; it is often irreversible.
d)
Parkinsonism; it mimics idiopathic Parkinson's disease.
e)
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; it is life-threatening.
92.
A researcher is investigating a rapidly acting treatment for severe, treatment-resistant depression. The drug works as an NMDA receptor antagonist. Which drug is being studied?
a)
Memantine
b)
Ketamine
c)
Bupropion
d)
Mirtazapine
e)
Lithium
93.
A patient with insomnia wants to understand non-drug strategies to improve sleep. The doctor recommends avoiding bright screens in the evening, keeping a consistent sleep schedule, and ensuring the bedroom is cool and dark. What is the collective term for these behavioural recommendations?
a)
Cognitive Behavioural Therapy for Insomnia (CBT-I)
b)
Sleep hygiene
c)
Stimulus control therapy
d)
Relaxation training
e)
Chronotherapy
94.
A patient with obstructive sleep apnoea is prescribed a device that delivers a constant stream of pressurised air through a mask to keep their upper airway open during sleep. What is the name of this first-line treatment?
a)
Bi-level Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP)
b)
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)
c)
Mandibular advancement device
d)
Supplemental oxygen therapy
e)
Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP)
95.
A patient on long-term lithium therapy for bipolar disorder presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a tremor. Blood tests show an elevated creatinine. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
a)
Serotonin syndrome
b)
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
c)
Lithium toxicity or adverse effects (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus & nephrotoxicity)
d)
Acute dystonic reaction
e)
Hyponatraemia from SIADH
96.
During a lecture on the neurobiology of sleep, the professor states, "This neuromodulator accumulates in the basal forebrain during prolonged wakefulness, promoting sleepiness, and its receptors are blocked by caffeine." Which neuromodulator is being described?
a)
Noradrenaline
b)
Serotonin
c)
Histamine
d)
Adenosine
e)
GABA
97.
A 45-year-old man with schizophrenia has failed to respond to two adequate trials of different antipsychotics. His psychiatrist is considering a medication that is highly effective but requires mandatory weekly blood monitoring for the first 18 weeks due to a risk of agranulocytosis. Which antipsychotic is being considered?
a)
Risperidone
b)
Quetiapine
c)
Clozapine
d)
Olanzapine
e)
Aripiprazole
98.
A sociological theory suggests that being diagnosed with a mental illness can lead to social rejection and discrimination, which in turn causes job loss and low self-esteem, worsening the individual's mental health. Which theory best describes this process?
a)
Biomedical model
b)
Labelling Theory (Scheff)
c)
Modified Labelling Theory (Link et al.)
d)
Medicalisation theory
e)
Biopsychosocial model
99.
A patient with panic disorder is prescribed a medication to be used "as needed" for acute panic attacks. The drug has a rapid onset but carries a high risk of tolerance and dependence. Which class of drug is most appropriate for this short-term, prn use?
a)
SSRIs (e.g., Sertraline)
b)
Benzodiazepines (e.g., Lorazepam)
c)
Beta-blockers (e.g., Propranolol)
d)
Buspirone
e)
SNRIs (e.g., Venlafaxine)
100.
An antipsychotic medication acts as a partial agonist at D2 and 5-HT1A receptors. It has a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects and metabolic syndrome compared to many other atypicals. Which antipsychotic has this unique mechanism?
a)
Haloperidol
b)
Risperidone
c)
Quetiapine
d)
Aripiprazole
e)
Clozapine
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