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Large Animal Semester Review

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Daily supply of feed or food is a

a)

Diet

b)

Ration

c)

Basic nutrient

d)

Essential nutrient

2.

Which of the following is an example of a ruminant?

a)

Steer

b)

Horse

c)

Pig

d)

Chicken

3.

The crude protein content of rye is

a)

Five to seven percent

b)

12-13 percent

c)

15-17 percent

d)

18-20 percent

4.

The nutrient composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is

a)

Protein

b)

Water

c)

Fat

d)

Carbohydrates

5.

The crude protein content of wheat is

a)

Six to seven percent

b)

8-10 percent

c)

13-14 percent

d)

16-18 percent

6.

Dietary essential nutrients would include

a)

Vitamins

b)

Minerals

c)

Some amino acids

d)

all of the above

7.

The major source of energy for animals is

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Vitamins

d)

Minerals

8.

Vitamins can be divided into

a)

One group

b)

Two groups

c)

Three groups

9.

Which cereal grain must be processed to provide nutrients to the animal?

a)

Grain sorghum

b)

Corn

c)

Wheat

d)

Barley

10.

The cereal grain popular as a feed for horses is

a)

Grain sorghum

b)

Wheat

c)

Oats

d)

Barley

11.

Beef is the second highest consumed meat in the United States.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which is NOT a segment of the beef cattle industry?

a)

Cow/calf

b)

Farrow to finish

c)

Stocker

d)

Seedstock

13.

__________ are a number estimate of breeding potential for characteristics, such as gain, muscling and maternal and carcass traits.

a)

EPDs

b)

BVDs

c)

TPRs

d)

LSDs

14.

What is an advantage of synchronizing a cow herd?

a)

Longer calving season

b)

Results in a uniform calf crop

c)

More labor intensive

d)

None of the above

15.

Which is the most intensely managed area of beef cattle production?

a)

Reproduction

b)

Calf management

c)

Nutrition

d)

Facilities

16.

16. ____________ is/are the first limiting nutrient in cattle.

a)

c. Water

b)

a. Protein

c)

b. Carbohydrate

d)

d. Fat

17.

Breeding stock can receive implants.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

It is much easier and less expensive to prevent sickness than to treat it.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What are some programs feedlot managers should establish to prevent water and air pollution?

a)

Control rainfall runoff

b)

Manage solid manure

c)

Maintain the feedlot surface

d)

Operate wastewater handling facilities

e)

All of the above

20.

Which breed classification is a cross breed between a fine wool breed and a long wool breed?

a)

Fine wool breeds

b)

Medium wool breeds

c)

Long wool breeds

d)

Hair sheep breeds

21.

Which type of operation is aimed toward maximizing production and market value of offspring?

a)

Seedstock

b)

Purebred

c)

Commercial

d)

All of the above

22.

Sheep consume roughly 30 to 50 percent of their body weight each day.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Which disease is caused by heavy feeding or a drastic change in feed over a short period of time?

a)

Tetanus

b)

Overeating disease

c)

White muscle disease

d)

Coccidiosis

24.

Which disease causes stones or crystals to be formed in the urinary tract?

a)

Parasites

b)

White muscle disease

c)

Urinary calculi

d)

Tetanus

25.

A body condition score of nine is considered to be the best prior to breeding animals.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which breed is red with white faces, feet and underline?

a)

Hampshire

b)

Duroc

c)

Hereford

d)

Tamworth

27.

What is the first limiting nutrient of all animals?

a)

Water

b)

Protein

c)

Minerals

d)

Vitamins

28.

What is a main factor in selecting breeding hogs?

a)

Muscling

b)

Frame size

c)

Structural correctness

29.

________ is the period of time in a sow's cycle when she is receptive to a boar for breeding purposes and the vulva is swollen and red.

a)

Gestation

b)

Farrowing

c)

Castration

d)

Estrus

30.

The gestation length of swine is three weeks and three days.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

________ is the mother's first milk and contains the antibodies necessary for the piglets' health.

a)

Gestation

b)

Castration

c)

Farrowing

d)

Colostrum

32.

________ is the universal swine identification system.

a)

Ear notching

b)

Ear tagging

c)

Tail trimming

d)

Castration

33.

________ is the removal of the testicles from a male animal.

a)

Ear notching

b)

Ear tagging

c)

Tail trimming

d)

Castration

34.

The USDA pork grades are one, two, three, four and utility.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Which of the following is the fastest growing division in the goat industry?

a)

Meat

b)

Milk

c)

Fiber

d)

Genetics

36.

According to iCEV, which of the following is the leading state in the milk goat industry?

a)

Texas

b)

Oklahoma

c)

California

d)

New Mexico

37.

The boer goat was imported to the United States in which of the following years?

a)

1990

b)

1992

c)

1993

d)

1997

38.

Which of the following is the fiber produced from the undercoat of a goat’s pelt?

a)

Wool

b)

Cashmere

c)

Chevre

d)

Mohair

39.

Which benefit does goat milk have over cow milk?

a)

Lower butterfat content

b)

Higher butterfat content

c)

More easily digested by humans

d)

Broader product line

40.

Which goat breed undergoes a temporary paralysis when frightened?

a)

Kiko

b)

Myotonic

c)

Alpine

d)

LaMancha

41.

Which of the following goat breeds are seasonal breeders and tend to have single kid crops?

a)

Angora goats

b)

Boer goats

c)

Tennessee fainting goats

d)

Nubian goats

42.

Which breed is known for being used for both milk and meat production?

a)

Boer

b)

Angora

c)

Nubian

d)

Tennessee fainting goats

43.

Which of the following is a common fence used in a goat operation?

a)

Barbed wire

b)

Woven wire

c)

Pipe

d)

Wooden

44.

Which of the following accounts for more than three-quarters of all livestock lost to predators?

a)

Coyotes & Dogs

b)

Bears

c)

Bobcats

d)

Foxes

45.

Morgan is a producer and wants to identify her animals by an individual animal number as well as her operation identification. Which identification method should she use?

a)

Ear tagging

b)

Branding

c)

Tattooing

d)

Collars

46.

Which instrument is used to perform bloodless dehorning?

a)

Burdizzo

b)

Barnes dehorner

c)

Heated iron

d)

Clippers

47.

Which of the following terms defines a castrated male goat?

a)

Billy

b)

Buck

c)

Ewe

d)

Wether

48.

When should a goat's hooves be trimmed?

a)

When goats are shorn for the summer

b)

When goats live on rough environmental terrain

c)

When the sidewall of the hoof extends past the sole of the foot

d)

When the hoof is even with the plane of the foot

49.

Which stomach produces bacteria to break down roughages?

a)

Rumen

b)

Reticulum

c)

Omasum

d)

Abomasum

50.

Which of the following is considered the most intensive feeding program for a goat producer?

a)

Pasture grazing

b)

Feed supplementation

c)

Confinement feeding

d)

Self-feeding

51.

Which of the following is the most prevalent disease in goat operations?

a)

Foot rot

b)

Enterotoxemia

c)

Soremouth

d)

Ketosis

52.

Which of the following is a term meaning “a goat in estrus”?

a)

Photoperiod

b)

Puberty

c)

Gestation

d)

Standing heat

53.

Which method of breeding utilizes a superior female to enhance genetics of a herd?

a)

Selective breeding

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

Hand breeding

54.

60. Which of the following diseases is caused by intestinal parasites found naturally in most goats?

a)

Coccidiosis

b)

Foot rot

c)

Mastitis

d)

Pneumonia

55.

Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method into her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Cloning

d)

Natural selection

56.

Which of the following is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?

a)

All of the answer choices are correct

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Gloved-hand technique

d)

Electroejaculation

57.

How is artificial insemination performed on horses?

a)

None of the answer choices are correct

b)

Vaginally

c)

Surgically

d)

Microscopically

58.

Which breeding technology utilizes gene banking?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Cloning

d)

All technologies utilize gene banking

59.

Which hormone does CIDRs release?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Testosterone

c)

FSH

d)

Progesterone

60.

What is the significance of corpora lutea (CL)?

a)

CLs indicate the recipient female is pregnant

b)

CLs indicate the female has ovulated

c)

CLs indicate the female is a good candidate for artificial semination

d)

CLs indicate the female is prepared to receive an embryo

61.

Miranda is researching breeding methods commonly used in the cattle industry. Which of the following breeding methods should she research?

a)

Natural breeding

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

All of the choices are correct

62.

Which of the following is NOT accurate about reproductive techniques applied to sheep and goats?

a)

The most widely used breeding technology is AI

b)

The embryo transfer process requires the animal to be sedated

c)

Similar reproductive tracts

d)

A laparoscope is commonly used in breeding methods

63.

Ideally, a sow or gilt will stop standing within 12 hours after being artificially inseminated.

a)

False

b)

True

64.

Which of the following terms refers to the state of development when a cell culture reaches maximum density?

a)

Consistent

b)

Connected

c)

Confluent

d)

Conceive

65.

What is the first step in developing a breeding program?

a)

Setting goals

b)

Choosing and weighing traits

c)

Determining measurement

d)

Devising a strategy for selecting parents

66.

What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value?

a)

Pure breeding

b)

Impure breeding

c)

Crossbreeding

d)

Multi-breeding

67.

In which type of crossbreeding system must replacement females be purchased from or produced in a separate environment?

a)

Rotational crossbreeding system

b)

Static crossbreeding system

c)

Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system

d)

Modified static crossbreeding system

68.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of artificial insemination?

a)

Decrease spread of disease

b)

Increase the number of offspring from a superior sire

c)

Identifies the sire for fertility

d)

Increases the number of sires needed

69.

What method of breeding is used to develop specialized “lines” of animals?

a)

Inbreeding

b)

Crossbreeding

c)

Pure breeding

d)

Multi-breeding

70.

Selection of which parent is more important when a producer is developing a breeding program?

a)

Sire selection

b)

Dam selection

c)

Selection of both parents is equally important

d)

Selection of the parents is not important

71.

If you chose grading up as the method of breeding for your operation, what generation would you see the most evidence of improvement?

a)

Second generation

b)

Third generation

c)

Fourth generation

d)

Fifth generation

72.

What is hybrid vigor?

a)

Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds

b)

The value of an animal as a parent

c)

The performance expected from the progeny of each sire or dam

d)

The mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor

73.

What two types of breeding systems are generally used by individuals in the purebred industry?

a)

Inbreeding and linebreeding

b)

Crossbreeding and inbreeding

c)

Crossbreeding and linebreeding

d)

Half breeding and full breeding

74.

What method of breeding can increase conception rates by five to ten percent?

a)

Artificial breeding

b)

Stud mating

c)

Pen mating

d)

Hand mating