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Cross Bridge Formation & Sliding Filament Model

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which immediate chemical event enables a myosin head to bind to actin during contraction?

a)

Calcium binds to troponin C

b)

Pi binds to actin monomers

c)

ATP splits into ADP and Pi

d)

ATP is resynthesized from ADP

2.

When ADP and Pi leave the myosin head, what mechanical action occurs?

a)

Power stroke pulling actin inward

b)

Elongation of the sarcomere

c)

Rotation of tropomyosin outward

d)

Detachment of myosin from actin

3.

Fill in the blank: After the power stroke, binding of a new (a)   to myosin causes detachment from actin.

4.

Which statement best describes the sliding filament model outcome for the sarcomere?

a)

Sarcomere shortens generating tension

b)

Sarcomere lengthens reducing tension

c)

Z-lines move apart with no tension

d)

Filaments dissolve to release energy

5.

What drives actin filaments to move toward the center of the sarcomere?

a)

Hydrolysis of actin subunits

b)

Passive recoil of titin strands

c)

Diffusion of calcium ions alone

d)

Repeated myosin power strokes

6.

Which step allows the cross-bridge cycle to repeat along the actin filament?

a)

Pi attaches back to myosin

b)

Calcium detaches from troponin

c)

Actin converts ATP to ADP

d)

Myosin binds a new ATP molecule

7.

A muscle fiber is unable to detach myosin from actin. Which molecular shortage most likely explains this?

a)

High titin stiffness

b)

Insufficient ATP available

c)

Excess Pi accumulation

d)

Low actin polymerization

8.

Sequence the events initiating force production: choose the first event.

a)

Sarcomere shortening completes

b)

Binding of new ATP to myosin

c)

Release of ADP and Pi

d)

ATP splitting on myosin head

9.

During sustained contraction, what repeatedly forms and breaks to produce movement of thin filaments?

a)

Multiple actin–myosin cross-bridges

b)

Continuous sarcomere polymer chains

c)

Permanent myosin head attachments

d)

Stable titin–nebulin complexes

10.

Which statement best defines a motor unit?

a)

A spinal reflex arc linking several interneurons

b)

A single motor neuron and all fibers it innervates

c)

Multiple motor neurons controlling one whole muscle

d)

One muscle fiber plus its sarcomere proteins

11.

In skeletal muscle, how many motor neurons innervate a single muscle fiber?

a)

It varies with movement demand

b)

Several alternating motor neurons

c)

Two cooperating motor neurons

d)

Exactly one motor neuron

12.

Complete the rule: When the motor neuron fires, (a)   contract.

13.

Which pattern describes how fibers of one motor unit are arranged within a muscle?

a)

Aligned only near tendinous insertions

b)

Spread out across the muscle

c)

Clustered in one compact region

d)

Grouped by fiber-type compartments

14.

What principle explains that a motor unit contracts fully once threshold is reached?

a)

Size principle of recruitment

b)

All-or-none principle

c)

Length-tension relationship

d)

Henneman adaptation rule

15.

A motor neuron innervating few fibers typically produces which movement feature?

a)

Coarse force production

b)

Greater velocity contraction

c)

High-precision control

d)

Fatigue-resistant endurance

16.

A motor neuron innervating many fibers most likely yields which outcome?

a)

Improved sensory feedback

b)

Fine gradation of force

c)

Coarse, powerful movement

d)

Selective fiber hypertrophy

17.

Which statement correctly contrasts motor units with few versus many fibers?

a)

Few fibers give precision; many fibers give coarse power

b)

Many fibers always decrease total force

c)

Few fibers give coarse control; many fibers give precision

d)

Both give identical movement precision

18.

Which scenario best illustrates the all-or-none rule for a motor unit?

a)

Random contraction of dispersed unit fibers

b)

Partial contraction of half the unit fibers

c)

Graded contraction of selected unit fibers

d)

Simultaneous contraction of every unit fiber

19.

Why are fibers of a single motor unit distributed throughout the muscle rather than clumped?

a)

To minimize metabolic cost only

b)

To spread force evenly across the tissue

c)

To isolate fatigue to one region

d)

To align with tendon collagen orientation

20.

Fill in the precise term: A motor neuron connecting to multiple fibers is said to (a)   those fibers.

21.

Which choice correctly states the relationship between motor neurons and muscle fibers?

a)

No fixed relationship exists

b)

Many neurons to one fiber routinely

c)

One neuron to many fibers possible

d)

One neuron to one fiber exclusively

22.

If a task requires fine motor control, which motor unit property is most beneficial?

a)

Intermittent neuron firing thresholds

b)

Clumped fiber distribution within muscle

c)

Low fiber count per motor neuron

d)

High fiber count per motor neuron

23.

Which statement best defines a graded muscle contraction?

a)

A contraction producing fixed force only

b)

A contraction occurring without neural input

c)

A contraction modified to vary generated force

d)

A contraction limited by single motor unit

24.

Temporal summation primarily increases force by changing which variable?

a)

Length of the muscle fibers

b)

Frequency of motor neuron firing

c)

Amplitude of each action potential

d)

Number of recruited motor units

25.

Fill in the blank: Grading by motor unit summation increases force by increasing the number of (a)   used.

26.

During temporal summation, when does the second impulse arrive relative to the first contraction?

a)

Before complete relaxation has finished

b)

After complete relaxation has finished

c)

Long after tension has fully dissipated

d)

During the absolute refractory period

27.

Which approach directly grades force by recruiting additional motor units?

a)

Temporal summation mechanism

b)

Motor unit summation mechanism

c)

Isometric tension normalization

d)

Post-tetanic potentiation only

28.

According to the size principle of recruitment, which motor units are activated first?

a)

Units with the largest muscle fibers

b)

Units with moderate fiber diameters

c)

Units with the smallest muscle fibers

d)

Units with fatigued muscle fibers

29.

Which motor units produce the greatest force but are recruited last during graded contractions?

a)

Units with the largest muscle fibers

b)

Units with slow oxidative fibers

c)

Units with the smallest muscle fibers

d)

Units with intermediate fiber sizes

30.

Fill in the blank: In motor unit summation, recruitment follows the (a)   principle.

31.

Why are motor units recruited asynchronously during sustained contractions?

a)

To synchronize fiber relaxation phases

b)

To prevent fatigue and smooth force output

c)

To maximize peak twitch amplitude

d)

To increase refractory period duration

32.

Which scenario exemplifies temporal summation rather than motor unit summation?

a)

Adding more active motor units gradually

b)

Increasing firing rate to overlap twitches

c)

Switching from concentric to eccentric

d)

Shortening muscle to optimal length

33.

A lab increases stimulation frequency without changing the number of active motor units. What outcome is most likely?

a)

Greater force via temporal summation

b)

Immediate recruitment of large units

c)

Reduced tetanic tension overall

d)

No change in total muscle tension

34.

Which statement distinguishes the two grading mechanisms most accurately?

a)

Temporal varies firing frequency; motor units vary unit number

b)

Temporal reduces asynchrony; motor units increase refractory

c)

Temporal changes fiber length; motor units alter nerve size

d)

Temporal recruits largest units; motor units vary twitch speed

35.

Fill in the blank: Graded contractions allow muscles to produce varying amounts of (a)   .

36.

Which statement best defines muscle tone in resting skeletal muscle?

a)

Sustained maximal fiber contraction at rest

b)

Complete flaccidity without any neural input

c)

Slight, continuous contraction of relaxed fibers

d)

Periodic twitching triggered by voluntary signals

37.

Does muscle tone produce movement under normal conditions?

a)

Yes, continuous small joint motions

b)

Only in smooth muscle tissues

c)

No, it does not produce movement

d)

Only during rapid postural shifts

38.

Fill in the blank: Muscle tone helps (a)   by providing low-level, continuous tension.

39.

A patient shows poor posture and frequent joint subluxations but normal strength during voluntary contractions. Which impairment most likely explains these findings?

a)

Excessive recruitment of fast-twitch fibers

b)

Loss of muscle tone reducing stabilization

c)

Hyperactive stretch reflexes increasing movement

d)

Enhanced motor unit synchronization improving power

40.

If muscle tone is lost, what immediate physiological consequence is most likely?

a)

Enhanced endurance during repetitive tasks

b)

Increased voluntary movement precision

c)

Improved flexibility with stable joints

d)

Muscle becomes unresponsive to stimuli

41.

Which statement best defines an isotonic contraction in skeletal muscle?

a)

Tension develops without any sarcomere change

b)

Tension develops and the muscle length changes

c)

Tension remains constant and the load is fixed

d)

Tension drops as the muscle relaxes fully

42.

During a concentric contraction, what happens to muscle length while producing force against a load?

a)

Muscle alternates between short and long

b)

Muscle lengthens under sustained tension

c)

Muscle shortens while doing mechanical work

d)

Muscle length remains exactly unchanged

43.

Identify the primary feature of an eccentric contraction.

a)

Muscle length does not change at all

b)

Muscle fully relaxes and loses tension

c)

Muscle shortens while performing work

d)

Muscle lengthens while still generating tension

44.

Fill in the blank: In an isometric contraction, tension develops but the muscle (a)   .

45.

Which scenario most accurately illustrates isometric contraction?

a)

Holding a heavy box without moving it

b)

Swinging the arm freely without load

c)

Curling a dumbbell to your shoulder

d)

Lowering a barbell with control

46.

When performing a slow, controlled lowering phase of a bicep curl, which contraction type predominates in the biceps?

a)

No contraction occurs at all

b)

Isometric contraction only

c)

Eccentric isotonic contraction

d)

Concentric isotonic contraction

47.

Which statement correctly contrasts isotonic and isometric contractions regarding load movement?

a)

Isotonic moves the load; isometric does not

b)

Isotonic never changes length; isometric shortens

c)

Isotonic relaxes the muscle; isometric contracts

d)

Isotonic lengthens only; isometric shortens only

48.

Cross-bridge cycling occurs in isometric contractions. What is the key sarcomere-level outcome in this case?

a)

Sarcomere length remains essentially constant

b)

Sarcomeres shorten and slide markedly

c)

Sarcomeres detach and stop cycling

d)

Sarcomeres lengthen under passive stretch

49.

Which molecule is the only immediate energy source that powers skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

CP

d)

Glucose

50.

Skeletal muscle stores which carbohydrate polymer to supply glucose for ATP production?

(a)  

51.

Direct phosphorylation uses creatine phosphate to transfer which component directly to ADP?

a)

Electron pair

b)

Carbonyl group

c)

Hydrogen ion

d)

Phosphate group

52.

How many ATP molecules are regenerated per creatine phosphate molecule in direct phosphorylation?

a)

Four ATP

b)

Three ATP

c)

One ATP

d)

Two ATP

53.

Direct phosphorylation for ATP regeneration requires which condition?

a)

Lactate

b)

High oxygen

c)

No oxygen

d)

Mitochondria

54.

During anaerobic glycolysis, glucose is broken down to produce 2 ATP and which intermediate?

a)

Phosphocreatine

b)

Acetyl-CoA

c)

Citric acid

d)

Pyruvic acid

55.

In the absence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted into what product?

(a)  

56.

Which statement best describes a benefit of anaerobic glycolysis?

a)

Requires oxygen

b)

Eliminates fatigue

c)

High ATP yield

d)

Rapid ATP production

57.

What is a key drawback of anaerobic glycolysis for muscle cells?

a)

Low ATP yield

b)

Slow activation

c)

Consumes CP extensively

d)

Needs oxygen

58.

Compare ATP yields: which pathway provides one ATP per high-energy donor molecule?

a)

Direct phosphorylation

b)

Aerobic respiration

c)

Beta-oxidation

d)

Gluconeogenesis

59.

If oxygen delivery is limited during intense exercise, which ATP-regenerating pathway will predominate early?

a)

Anaerobic glycolysis

b)

Aerobic respiration

c)

Oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Pentose phosphate

60.

A sprinter relies on immediate ATP resynthesis. Which stored compound in muscle enables this rapid transfer?

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Triglycerides

c)

Glycogen granules

d)

Creatine phosphate

61.

Short, high-intensity bouts often cause soreness due to accumulation of which metabolic product?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Pyruvic acid

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Acetyl-CoA

62.

Which statement best describes the ATP yield of aerobic respiration in skeletal muscle?

a)

Generates about 30 to 32 ATP per glucose

b)

Produces fewer than ten ATP per glucose

c)

Yields roughly 60 to 64 ATP per glucose

d)

Creates exactly 24 ATP per glucose

63.

Name one key requirement that must be continuously available for the aerobic pathway to sustain ATP production.

(a)  

64.

During light to moderate long-term exercise, why is the aerobic pathway favored over anaerobic processes?

a)

It works fastest but gives minimal ATP

b)

It avoids using glucose during activity

c)

It provides higher ATP yield with steady supply

d)

It requires no oxygen for prolonged output

65.

Identify a drawback of the aerobic pathway in muscle tissue.

a)

It cannot function when glucose is present

b)

It produces more lactic acid than glycolysis

c)

It rapidly depletes oxygen-independent fuels

d)

It is a slow process compared to anaerobic

66.

Fill in the blank with the exact quantitative range: Aerobic respiration typically produces (a)   ATP per glucose molecule.

67.

Which statement best defines muscle fatigue in physiological terms?

a)

Sudden spasm caused by lactic acid

b)

Loss of nerve supply to the muscle

c)

Permanent damage to muscle fibers

d)

Temporary inability to generate force

68.

Muscle contractions require ATP. What immediate consequence follows if ATP becomes critically low during exercise?

a)

Sarcomeres permanently shorten

b)

Actin filaments disintegrate

c)

Motor neurons stop firing

d)

Cross-bridge cycling halts quickly

69.

Fill in the blank: Muscle fatigue serves a protective role by preventing (a)   when energy availability drops.

70.

During high-intensity exercise, how does the rate and duration of fatigue typically compare to low-intensity exercise?

a)

Faster onset, shorter duration

b)

Slower onset, shorter duration

c)

Faster onset, longer duration

d)

Slower onset, longer duration

71.

A sprinter experiences rapid fatigue after a 200 m sprint. Which reasoning best explains this outcome?

a)

Actin and myosin no longer exist in fast-twitch fibers

b)

Nerve transmission increases energy reserves

c)

Oxygen diffusion becomes unlimited in fast fibers

d)

ATP is consumed rapidly, limiting cross-bridge cycling

72.

You plan a 45-minute low-intensity cycling session. Predict the fatigue pattern and justify the expectation.

a)

No onset, infinite duration

b)

Immediate onset, very brief duration

c)

Gradual onset, longer duration

d)

Abrupt onset, moderate duration

73.

Which statement most accurately captures why muscle fatigue is necessary and important?

a)

It permanently strengthens muscle fibers

b)

It prevents severe energy depletion damage

c)

It increases lactic acid production always

d)

It eliminates the need for ATP entirely

74.

Which statement best explains why more cross-bridges increase contraction force?

a)

They prevent calcium binding to troponin

b)

They allow stronger actin–myosin interaction

c)

They lengthen sarcomeres during pulling

d)

They reduce ATP demand per twitch

75.

Temporal summation primarily increases force by altering which variable?

a)

Frequency of neural stimulation

b)

Diameter of muscle fibers

c)

Resting sarcomere length

d)

Number of motor units active

76.

Motor unit summation refers to progressively recruiting additional motor units to increase force.

(a)  

77.

Which factor most directly determines the maximum number of cross-bridges that can form at any instant?

a)

Overlap of actin and myosin

b)

Rate of acetylcholine release

c)

Amount of lactic acid produced

d)

Speed of action potential conduction

78.

A muscle produces less tension when overly stretched because

a)

Actin–myosin overlap decreases markedly

b)

ATP stores are fully depleted

c)

Troponin becomes saturated with calcium

d)

The sarcolemma becomes hyperpolarized

79.

Which scenario best illustrates temporal summation?

a)

Rapid successive stimuli increase tension

b)

Recruiting larger motor units first

c)

Hypertrophy after resistance training

d)

Optimal length yields peak tension

80.

Which change most effectively increases force through hypertrophy?

a)

Greater myofibril number per fiber

b)

Higher motor neuron firing rate

c)

Shorter resting sarcomere length

d)

More mitochondria in sarcoplasm

81.

Hypertrophy is the increase in the size of muscle fibers.

(a)  

82.

At optimal muscle length, tension is maximal because

a)

Motor unit firing is minimal

b)

Calcium stores are exhausted

c)

Titin is fully slackened

d)

Cross-bridge overlap is ideal

83.

Which factor does motor unit summation directly manipulate to change force output?

a)

Concentration of lactic acid

b)

Amount of ATP hydrolyzed

c)

Number of fibers activated

d)

Length of the sarcomere

84.

During high-frequency stimulation, individual twitches fuse into sustained tension. Name this phenomenon.

(a)  

85.

Why do larger muscle fibers typically generate greater force?

a)

They prevent motor unit fatigue

b)

They contain more parallel myofibrils

c)

They produce longer action potentials

d)

They avoid calcium reuptake entirely

86.

Which factor would most likely reduce tension in an excessively shortened muscle?

a)

Acetylcholine release is blocked

b)

Mitochondrial density increases

c)

Motor units fire asynchronously

d)

Actin filaments overlap improperly

87.

List the four primary factors that influence muscle contraction force.

(a)  

88.

Which factor directly influences speed of muscle contraction by determining how fast cross-bridges form and break?

a)

Level of myoglobin within fibers

b)

Number of mitochondria present

c)

Amount of stored glycogen

d)

Rate of ATP splitting by myosin

89.

Fast motor neuron activity typically results in what contraction characteristic?

a)

Lower ATP demand during work

b)

Greater myoglobin accumulation

c)

Slower relaxation after contraction

d)

Faster contraction of innervated fibers

90.

Which pathway is primarily used by oxidative muscle fibers to generate ATP?

a)

Lactic acid fermentation

b)

Anaerobic glycolysis pathways

c)

Aerobic metabolic pathways

d)

Phosphagen-only pathways

91.

Fill in the blank: Glycolytic fibers predominantly use (a)   pathways for ATP production.

92.

A sprinter relying on brief, powerful bursts most likely uses which fiber type?

a)

Mixed smooth fibers

b)

Fast glycolytic fibers

c)

Slow oxidative fibers

d)

Fast oxidative fibers

93.

Which profile best matches slow oxidative fibers?

a)

Contract quickly, low myoglobin, low mitochondria

b)

Contract slowly, high glycogen, low blood supply

c)

Contract slowly, high myoglobin, many mitochondria

d)

Contract quickly, some glycogen, lots of myoglobin

94.

Compared with fast glycolytic fibers, fast oxidative fibers typically have which difference?

a)

Greater myoglobin and mitochondria content

b)

Slower contraction velocity always

c)

Lower aerobic capacity overall

d)

Higher glycogen and less blood supply

95.

Fill in the blank: Fast glycolytic fibers characteristically have (a)   glycogen content.

96.

Which combination best predicts long-duration endurance performance?

a)

Fast oxidative fibers with low myoglobin

b)

Fast glycolytic fibers with anaerobic pathways

c)

Slow oxidative fibers using aerobic pathways

d)

Glycolytic fibers with limited blood supply

97.

Reason through this scenario: During sustained moderate exercise, which fiber type will maintain force with minimal fatigue and why?

a)

Slow oxidative due to aerobic metabolism

b)

Fast glycolytic due to large glycogen stores

c)

Fast oxidative due to anaerobic glycolysis

d)

Fast glycolytic due to low mitochondria

98.

Which statement best describes where smooth muscle is predominantly found in the human body?

a)

Only in superficial fascia beneath the skin

b)

Exclusively in cardiac chambers like ventricles

c)

Primarily in large skeletal muscles of limbs

d)

Within hollow organs such as gut and vessels

99.

Smooth muscle in hollow organs typically organizes into two layers that do not contract simultaneously in the same region. Which layers are these?

a)

Deep and superficial layers

b)

Oblique and transverse layers

c)

Longitudinal and circular layers

d)

Radial and spiral layers

100.

When the longitudinal layer of smooth muscle contracts, what is the most direct mechanical effect on a segment of a hollow organ?

a)

Segment shortens and narrows

b)

Segment lengthens and narrows

c)

Segment shortens and dilates

d)

Segment lengthens and dilates

101.

When the circular layer of smooth muscle contracts, what is the primary change in the organ’s geometry at that segment?

a)

Luminal diameter increases

b)

Luminal diameter decreases

c)

Wall thickness decreases

d)

Organ length increases

102.

Fill in the blank with the precise term: The smooth muscle layer with fibers running around the circumference of an organ is the (a)   layer.

103.

A peristaltic wave requires alternating activity of the two smooth muscle layers. Which pattern best explains forward propulsion?

a)

Both layers contract simultaneously at the same location

b)

Upstream longitudinal relaxes while downstream circular relaxes

c)

Only the longitudinal layer contracts throughout

d)

Upstream circular contracts while downstream longitudinal contracts

104.

In a cross-section of the small intestine, which smooth muscle layer is responsible for shortening the intestinal tube along its length?

a)

Oblique smooth muscle layer spiraling around the lumen

b)

Muscularis mucosae within the villi core

c)

Longitudinal smooth muscle layer running along the tube

d)

Circular smooth muscle layer surrounding the mucosa

105.

Fill in the blank: The circular smooth muscle layer has fibers oriented (a)   to the longitudinal layer, producing constriction of the lumen.

106.

A segment of intestine must both narrow and propel contents forward. Using the diagram, which coordinated action best achieves this?

a)

Circular layer contracts while longitudinal layer relaxes

b)

Both layers relax simultaneously then contract together

c)

Circular and longitudinal layers contract sequentially in waves

d)

Longitudinal layer contracts while circular layer relaxes

107.

Which feature replaces neuromuscular junctions in smooth muscle innervation, allowing transmitter release to multiple fibers?

a)

Motor end plates with narrow clefts

b)

Varicosities with wide clefts

c)

Synaptic boutons with tight clefts

d)

Terminal cisternae with narrow gaps

108.

Smooth muscle cells coordinate electrical activity primarily through what intercellular connection?

a)

Hemidesmosomes for basal anchoring

b)

Tight junctions for barrier sealing

c)

Gap junctions for ionic coupling

d)

Desmosomes for mechanical coupling

109.

Spontaneous depolarizations in many smooth muscles are best explained by:

a)

Pacemaker-like activity spreading via gap junctions

b)

Troponin-mediated Ca2+ sensing on thin filaments

c)

T-tubule mediated rapid action potentials

d)

Large SR stores releasing massive Ca2+ bursts

110.

Compared with skeletal muscle, smooth muscle lacks which membrane specialization for rapid conduction into the fiber?

a)

Dense bodies anchoring filaments

b)

Caveolae invaginations of sarcolemma

c)

Gap junctions intercellular channels

d)

T-tubules transverse conduits

111.

In smooth muscle, the sarcoplasmic reticulum typically releases:

a)

Calcium only during fatigue

b)

A large sustained Ca2+ load

c)

No measurable Ca2+ at rest

d)

A small amount of Ca2+

112.

Caveolae in smooth muscle are best described as:

a)

Cytosolic calcium-binding proteins

b)

Invaginations of sarcolemma with Ca2+ channels

c)

Transverse tubules forming triads with SR

d)

Extracellular matrix anchoring plaques

113.

Most Ca2+ that triggers smooth muscle contraction enters from the:

(a)  

114.

Which structural organization is absent in smooth muscle but present in skeletal muscle?

a)

Sarcomeres with repeating striations

b)

Actin and myosin filaments

c)

Basal lamina surrounding fibers

d)

Mitochondria near ATP demand

115.

Despite lacking sarcomeres, smooth muscle still contains:

a)

Actin and myosin filaments

b)

Tropomyosin only without actin

c)

Troponin complex on thin filaments

d)

Z-lines with titin scaffolds

116.

Which regulatory protein is absent in smooth muscle, changing how Ca2+ triggers contraction?

a)

Calmodulin Ca2+-binding protein

b)

Troponin thin-filament sensor

c)

Dystrophin membrane stabilizer

d)

Nebulin thin-filament ruler

117.

In smooth muscle, Ca2+ binds directly to (a)   to initiate contraction.

118.

Select the most accurate sequence for initiating smooth muscle contraction.

a)

Gap junctions break, cells contract independently

b)

T-tubules depolarize, SR releases large Ca2+

c)

Ca2+ enters via caveolae, activates calmodulin

d)

Ca2+ binds troponin, exposes myosin sites

119.

Varicosities facilitate transmitter delivery to:

a)

Only cardiac intercalated discs

b)

Only skeletal motor end plates

c)

Multiple smooth muscle fibers

d)

A single isolated muscle fiber

120.

Which pair correctly matches structure with function in smooth muscle?

a)

Troponin—primary Ca2+ sensor

b)

T-tubules—large SR triad formation

c)

Caveolae—membrane Ca2+ entry sites

d)

Gap junctions—mechanical adhesion only

121.

Reasoning: A drug blocks Ca2+ channels in caveolae. Predict the immediate effect on contraction strength.

a)

Increase from enhanced SR release

b)

No change due to SR compensation

c)

Oscillation from spontaneous depolarization

d)

Decrease due to reduced extracellular influx

122.

Reasoning: A mutation removes gap junctions between smooth muscle cells. What pattern of activity is most likely?

a)

Enhanced T-tubule conduction speed

b)

Hyper-striated sarcomere formation

c)

Independent, poorly coordinated contractions

d)

Synchronized waves of depolarization

123.

Which feature best distinguishes multi-unit smooth muscle from unitary smooth muscle?

a)

Formation of discrete motor units

b)

Location limited to hollow visceral organs

c)

Presence of abundant gap junctions

d)

Automatic rhythmic pacemaker activity

124.

In multi-unit smooth muscle, fibers are structurally independent because there are no (a)   .

125.

Which tissue location most likely contains multi-unit smooth muscle?

a)

Uterine myometrium

b)

Intestinal wall of the jejunum

c)

Urinary bladder detrusor

d)

Arrector pili in the skin

126.

A laboratory preparation shows graded contractions achieved by recruiting additional fibers. What type of smooth muscle is most consistent with this observation?

a)

Unitary smooth muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Multi-unit smooth muscle

d)

Cardiac muscle

127.

Which statement about unitary smooth muscle is most accurate?

a)

Less common and found in arrector pili

b)

Much more common and found in hollow organs

c)

Contracts via recruitment into motor units

d)

Composed of structurally independent fibers

128.

Explain why multi-unit smooth muscle can produce finely graded force changes compared with unitary smooth muscle.

a)

Each fiber is pacemaker-driven and oscillatory

b)

Independent fibers allow recruitment of motor units

c)

It receives fewer autonomic nerve inputs overall

d)

It contains gap junctions enabling synchronous firing

129.

Which pair correctly matches the smooth muscle type with a hallmark property?

a)

Multi-unit smooth muscle — graded contractions

b)

Unitary smooth muscle — forms motor units

c)

Unitary smooth muscle — no gap junctions

d)

Multi-unit smooth muscle — common in hollow organs