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Exam 3 Practice

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This releases neurotransmitters which are sent into the synaptic gap

a)

axon

b)

axon terminal

c)

gene

d)

neuron

2.
A nerve cell that is the basic working unit of the brain and nervous system which processes and transmits information
a)

axon

b)

neuron

c)

dendrite

d)

neurotransmitter

3.
This insulating material forms a layer, around the axon of a neuron.  It enables electrical signals to travel down the axon at higher speeds.
a)

neuron

b)

myelin sheath

c)

dendrite

d)

neurotransmitter

4.
The tiny gap between neurons where nerve impulses are sent from one neuron to another.  It is where communication occurs between an axon and dendrite
a)

synapse

b)

axon terminal

c)

impulse

d)

myelin

5.
A
a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

6.

E

a)

Synapse

b)

Cell Body (Soma)

c)

Axon

d)

Dendrite

7.
B
a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

8.

Neurons that carry information from the sensory receptors to the CNS:

a)

Sensory, afferent

b)

Sensory, efferent

c)

Moror, afferent

d)

Motor, efferent

9.

Type of neuron located only in the brain and spinal cord that pass impulses from one neuron to another.

a)

Motor Neuron

b)

Interneuron

c)

Sensory Neuron

10.

Type of neuron that perceive information about your environment.

a)

Motor Neuron

b)

Interneuron

c)

Sensory Neuron

11.
Part of the peripheral that controls conscious activities
a)

autonomic

b)

somatic

c)

sympathetic

d)

parasympathetic

12.
There are 8 pairs of ____ nerves.
a)
lumbar
b)
cranial
c)
cervical
d)
sacral
13.
The plexus that supplies nerves to the arms is known as
a)
cervical
b)
lumbar
c)
sacral
d)
brachial
14.
The end of the spinal cord where nerves descend 
a)

coccygeal

b)

cauda equina

c)

lumbrosacral

d)

femoral

15.
Part of the peripheral that controls conscious activities
a)

autonomic

b)

somatic

c)

sympathetic

d)

parasympathetic

16.
Part of the autonomic that activates in high stress emergencies
a)
sympathetic
b)
reflexal
c)
parasympathetic
d)
somatic
17.
The part of the nervous system that consists of nerves that branch out from the CNS and connect to other body parts
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Autonomic
d)
Peripheral
18.
The plexus that supplies nerves to the pelvis and legs
a)
brachial
b)
cervical
c)
lumbrosacral
d)
femoral
19.
A network of spinal nerves
a)
roots
b)
plexus
c)
cauda equina
d)
CNS
20.
The _____ response is known as fight or flight.
a)
parasympathetic
b)
sympathetic
c)
somatic
d)
peripheral
21.
The large nerve that runs through your pelvis and into your leg
a)

brachial

b)

cervical

c)

optic

d)

sciatic

22.
The plexus that supplies nerves to the neck
a)
lumbar
b)
brachial
c)
cervical 
d)
cranial
23.
Points where the nerves emerge from the spine
a)
plexus
b)
roots
c)
caudal equina
24.
There are 12 pairs of ____nerves.
a)
coccygeal
b)
brachial
c)
sacral
d)
thoracic
25.
There is one pair of _____nerves.
a)
lumbar
b)
cranial
c)
sacral
d)
coocygeal
26.
There are 5 pairs of ___nerves.
a)
lumbar
b)
cranial
c)
coccygeal
27.
There are 5 pairs of ____ nerves.
a)
sacral
b)
cranial
c)
coccygeal
d)
plexus
28.

The is not a part of the reflex arc

a)

receptor

b)

motor neuron

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

effector

29.

What is the areas on the skin supplied by sensory fibers of the spinal nerves

a)

dermatitis

b)

free nerves

c)

dermatomes

d)

bronchi

30.

What part of the brain stem controls vital functions?

a)

corpus collosum

b)

midbrain

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

pons

31.

The 2 ions that are important in nerve conduction and action potential are:

a)

Potassium and calcium

b)

Sodium and potassium

c)

Sodium and calcium

d)

Sodium, calcium, and potassium

32.

Which of the 3 layers of the meninges is closest to the brain?

a)

Dura Mater

b)

Arachnoid Mater

c)

Pia Mater

d)

Serous Mater

33.

What nerve in the hand is associated with Carpal tunnel syndrome?

a)

Radial Nerve

b)

Median Nerve

c)

Ulnar NErve

d)

Sciatic Nerve

34.
balance and coordination
a)
cerebrum
b)
cerebellum
c)
brainstem
d)
diencephalon
35.

hills/ridges on the brain

a)

sulci

b)

gyri

c)

sensory

d)

motor

36.

valleys/indentations on the brain

a)

sulci

b)

gyri

c)

sensory

d)

motor

37.

supporting cell in CNS that braces and anchors neurons to their nutrient supply lines (capillaries)

a)

astrocyte

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

microglia

d)

ependymal

38.

pick which of the following is Multiple Sclerosis

a)

myelin sheath damages

b)

possible paralysis

c)

loss of social skills

d)

messages delayed or blocked

39.

area which has no myelin

a)

axon

b)

myelin sheath

c)

dendrite

d)

Nodes of Ranvier

40.

consists of dense collection of myelinated fibers

a)

white matter

b)

tracts

c)

gray matter

d)

nerves

41.

bundles of nerve fibers in CNS

a)

white matter

b)

tracts

c)

gray matter

d)

nerves

42.

mostly unmyelinated fibers and cell bodies

a)

white matter

b)

tracts

c)

gray matter

d)

nerves

43.

allows conscious control of skeletal muscles

a)

synaptic cleft

b)

neurilemma

c)

axon terminal

d)

somatic

44.

increased volume of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricle of the brain

a)

concussion

b)

contusion

c)

encephalitis

d)

hydrocephalus

45.

inflammation of the lining of the brain and spinal cord, can be viral or bacterial

a)

poliomyelitis

b)

meningitis

c)

Huntingtons

d)

hematoma

46.

disturbance in voluntary muscles due to brain damage usually at birth

a)

Cerebral palsy

b)

bells palsy

c)

Reye's syndrome

d)

Rabies

47.

divides cerebrum into two hemispheres

a)

central

b)

lateral

c)

longitudinal

d)

parieto-occipital

e)

transverse

48.

divides the cerebrum and cerebellum

a)

central

b)

lateral

c)

longitudinal

d)

parieto-occipital

e)

transverse

49.

Which of the following is a function of the bone?

a)

internal support and protection

b)

provide attachment for muscles

c)

calcium and phosphate storage

d)

red blood cell formation

50.

Tendons

a)

are surrounded by connective tissue called peritendineum

b)

are composed of collagen fibers oriented in the same direction

c)

are produced bu lacunae cells

d)

cause tendinitis

51.

Chondrocytes are mature cartilage cells found within in the _______ and they are derived from ________

a)

perichondrium, fibroblasts

b)

perichondrium, chondroblasts

c)

lacunae, fibroblasts

d)

lacunae, chondroblasts

52.

Cartilage

a)

often occurs in thin plates or sheets

b)

receives nutrients and oxygen by diffusion

c)

grows as a result of chondroblast formation by the perichondrium

d)

none of the choices

53.

Which of the following substances make up the major portion of bone?

a)

collagen

b)

hydroxyapatite

c)

osteocytes

d)

osteoblasts

54.

The flexibility of bone is due to

a)

osteoclasts

b)

ligaments

c)

calcium salts

d)

collagen fibers

55.

Which of the following connective tissue membranes cover the surface of mature bones?

a)

periosteum

b)

perichondrium

c)

hyaline cartilage

d)

fibroblasts

56.

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the

a)

epiphysis

b)

perichondrium

c)

diaphysis

d)

articular cartilage

57.

The portion of the long bone that stores yellow marrow in adults is the

a)

medullary cavity

b)

spongy bone

c)

compact bone

d)

epiphysis

58.

The ossification regions formed during embryonic development are

a)

secondary ossification centers

b)

primary ossification centers

c)

cartilage at the ends of bones

d)

medullary cavities

59.

Articular cartilage

a)

is found in the ends of bone

b)

is hyaline catilage

c)

is embryonic cartilage that does not ossify

d)

is at the diaphysis

60.

Growth in the length of bone occurs

a)

at primary ossification center

b)

beneath the periosteum

c)

at the diaphysis

d)

at the epiphyseal plate

61.

The prime function of OSTEOCLASTS is to

a)

prevent osteoblats from forming

b)

breakdown bone

c)

secrete calcium salts and collagen fibers

d)

form compact bone

62.

Destruction and remolding of bone may occur

a)

as bones change shape during growth

b)

as bones are subjected to varying patterns of stress

c)

during and following the healing of fractures

d)

when a bone is no longer growing

63.

Which is NOT a component of the skeletal system?

a)

bones

b)

ligaments and tendons

c)

cartilage

d)

muscles

64.

What is hematopoiesis?

a)

production of blood cells

b)

blood clotting

c)

an oxygen-carrying compound found in red blood cells

d)

a unit that measures the amount of hemoglobin in your blood

65.

On this diagram, what is H?

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

spongy bone

d)

periosteum

66.

What is the purpose of articular cartilage?

a)

covers the ends of long bones

b)

prevents two bones from rubbing on each other at a joint

c)

supports a tendon or ligament

d)

provides a structure for new bone growth

67.

What are freely movable joints called?

a)

Suture Joints

b)

Synovial Joints

c)

Hinge Joints

d)

Saddle Joints

68.

A decrease in bone density due to loss of calcium.

a)

Osteoarthritis         

b)

Sprain         

c)

Osteoporosis         

d)

Dislocation         

69.

It takes on average _________________ for new cells in the bottom layer of the epidermis to move to the top.

a)

1-2 Days

b)

2-4 Weeks

c)

4-5 Hours

d)

7 Years

70.

What 2 types of tissue make up the Subcutaneous Layer (Hypodermis)

a)

Areolar

b)

Adipose

c)

Dense Irregular CT

d)

Stratified Squamous

71.

What is the correct order of epidermal layers from superficial to deep?

a)

Lucidum, Basale, Spinosum, Corneum, Granulosum

b)

Corneum, Lucidum, Granulosum, Spinosum, Basale

c)

Lucidum, Corneum, Granulosum, Spinosum, Basale

d)

Corneum, Lucidum, Basale, Granulosum, Spinosum

72.

Millions of __________ rub off your skin everyday.

a)

Keratinocytes

b)

Carotenocytes

c)

Melanocytes

d)

Leukocytes

73.

What layer of the skin is D

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Subcutaneous Layer

74.

What is the name of the muscle that is responsible for goosebumps?

a)

Pilo Errector

b)

Arrector Pili

c)

Goosus Bumpus

d)

Foliculi Arisor

75.

Which tissue makes up the epidermis?

a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Stratified Squamous

c)

Adipose Tissue

d)

Reticular Connective Tissue

76.

Which tissue makes up the epidermis?

a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Stratified Squamous

c)

Adipose Tissue

d)

Reticular Connective Tissue

77.

Which 2 of the following skin layers make up the DERMIS?

a)

Papillary Layer

b)

Reticular Layer

c)

Stratum Basale

d)

Subcutaneous Layer

e)

Stratum Corneum

78.

____burns involve only the epidermis. Symptoms are redness, pain, and swelling.

a)

first degree

b)

fourth degree

c)

second degree

d)

third degree

79.

______burns involve the epidermis and dermis. Symptoms include redness, pain, swelling, and blisters.

a)

first degree

b)

no degree

c)

second degree

d)

Fourth degree

80.

______burns involve the epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis. Symptoms include charring and no pain at the burn site.

a)

2nd degree

b)

third degree

c)

fourth degree

d)

1st degree

81.

Which type of skin cancer is the most common?

a)

Kaposi's sarcoma

b)

melanoma

c)

psoriasis

d)

basal cell carcinoma

e)

squamous cell carcinoma

82.

The layer of the epidermis in which there is the greatest amount of mitotic activity.

a)

stratum granulosum

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum lucidum

d)

stratum spinosum

e)

stratum basale

83.

Plasma membrane .....

a)

is selectively permeable

b)

consist of triglyceride and cholesterol

c)

separate cytoplasm and extracellular fluid

d)

have proteins embedded the phospholipid bilayer

84.

Choose correct statement(s) about structure R

a)

makes membrane less fluid by restrain phospholipid movement

b)

lower the temperature required for mombrane to solidify

c)

is a type of lipid

d)

can be found higher in plant compared to animals

85.

How molecule in the figure can be transported across plasma membrane? (can be more than one answer)

a)

Down concentration gradient

b)

Using channel protein

c)

Using carrier protein

d)

Diffuse through phospholipid bilayer

86.

A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the membane is to

a)

glue cells together to form tissues

b)

allow cells to identify each other

c)

attach membrane to cytoskeleton

d)

help retain shape

87.

Which statements are true about active transport?

a)

molecules move from low concentration to high concentration.

b)

molecules move from high concentration to low concentration.

c)

ATP is required

d)

Uses channel proteins

88.

Small polar molecules like O2 and CO2enter a cell through

a)

simple diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

phagocytosis

89.

The animal cell on the left is in a(n) __________________ environment

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

90.

Which form of active transport is being shown?

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Proton pump

91.

Name small compartment enclosed by a membrane formed to transport of material during bulk transport.

a)

vesicles

b)

large vacuole

c)

mitochondria

d)

lysosome

92.

What type of protein fibers are present in areolar CT?

a)

Collagen

b)

Reticular fibers

c)

Elastic Fibers

d)

All three

93.

What is the function of areolar CT?

a)

Binds skin and epithelia to deeper tissue.

b)

Attach bone to bone or bone to muscle.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Provides supportive framework.

94.

What cell type is present in reticular CT?

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Adipocytes.

c)

Mesenchymal cells.

d)

Macrophages.

95.

What is the function of dense regular CT?

a)

Binds skin and epithelia to deeper tissue.

b)

Attach bone to bone or bone to muscle.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Provides supportive framework.

96.

What cell type is present in dense regular CT?

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Adipocytes.

c)

Mesenchymal cells.

d)

Macrophages.

97.

What type of protein fibers are present in dense irregular CT?

a)

Collagen

b)

Reticular fibers

c)

Elastic Fibers

d)

All three

98.

What is the function of dense irregular CT?

a)

Binds skin and epithelia to deeper tissue.

b)

Attach bone to bone or bone to muscle.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Provides supportive framework.

99.

What type of protein fibers are present in elastic CT?

a)

Collagen

b)

Reticular fibers

c)

Elastic Fibers

d)

All three

100.

What is the function of elastic CT?

a)

Provides supportive framework.

b)

Allows for stretching and recoiling.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Transport

101.
What is this?
a)
Mandible
b)
Maxillae
c)
Zygomatic
d)
Lacrimal
102.
Label 2
a)
Lambdoidal suture
b)
Coronal suture
c)
Temporal bone
d)
Parietal Bone
103.
a)
Zygomatic
b)
Temporal
c)
Parietal
d)
Lacrimal
104.
Which suture holds the 2 parietal bones together?
a)
Sagital
b)
Squamous
c)
Lambdoid
d)
Coronal
105.
Which suture joins the frontal to the 2 parietal, is also the most anterior
a)
Coronal
b)
Lambdoid
c)
Squamous
d)
Sagittal
106.
a)

occipital foramen

b)

vertebral foramen

c)

foramen magnum

d)

occipital arch

107.
a)

mastoid process

b)

styloid process

c)

external auditory meatus

d)

zygomatic arch

108.
The structure indicated by #9 is the 
a)
zygomatic process
b)
mastoid process
c)
styloid process
d)
inferior conchae
109.
a)
lambdoid suture
b)
sagittal suture
c)
squamous suture
d)
coronal suture
110.

Which bone is being indicated by the arrow?

a)

Cribriform plate

b)

Crista galli

c)

Sella Turcica

d)

Mental foramen

111.

What is an axon?

a)

cell body of a neuron

b)

an ion used to send an electrical impulse

c)

the expressed portion of a gene

d)

the long cytoplasmic extension of a neuron

112.

What is a ganglion?

a)

a cell that supports a neuron

b)

a nerve cord in an invertebrate

c)

a specialized neuron that monitors the body's external conditions

d)

a cluster of neuron cell bodies that function as an integrating center

113.

Histology is ____ while Cytology is ____

a)

study of tissues: study of cells

b)

Study of cells: study of tissues

114.

Which is the correct biological organization?

a)

chemical-organelle-celluar-tissue-organ-organ system-organism-population-community-ecosystem

b)

chemical-cellular-organelle-organ-tissue-organsystem-organism-population-community-ecosystem

115.

feedback loops

a)

receptors-control center-effectors

b)

control center-receptors-effectors

116.

Lung Membrane

a)

Parietal Pleura

b)

Pleural Cavity

c)

Visceral Pleura

d)

Parietal Pericardium

117.

Heart Membrane

a)

Visceral Pleura

b)

Parietal Pericaridum

c)

Pericardial Cavity

d)

Visceral Pericardium

118.

When you are hot, your body sweats to cool you down. This means your temperature went above normal and your body sweats to counteract that change to bring you back to normal. What kind of feedback loop would this be?

a)

Negative Feedback Loop

b)

Positive Feedback Loop

c)

Neutral Feedback Loop

d)

Opposite Feedback Loop

119.

Homeostasis is maintained by:

a)

neutral feedback loops

b)

solar feedback loops

c)

positive feedback loops

d)

negative feedback loops

120.

Which biomolecular group carries and passes on the hereditary information of the organism?

a)

a. carbohydrates

b)

b. lipids

c)

c. nucleic acids

d)

d. proteins

121.

Which organic molecule gives fast source of energy?

a)

a. carbohydrates

b)

b. lipids

c)

c. nucleic acids

d)

d. proteins

122.

Which of the following is considered as the building blocks of protein?

a)

a. amino acids

b)

b. nucleic acids

c)

c. nucleotides

d)

d. polypeptides

123.
What kind of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?
a)
Hydrogen bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Covalent bonds
124.
How many different amino acids are there?
a)
15
b)
20
c)
25
d)
30
125.

What is the name of the bond that joins two amino acids together?

a)

Ester bond

b)

Glycosidic bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Nucleic bond

126.

What's the digestive organelle which uses enzymes to break down molecules and cell junk?

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosome

c)

lysosome

d)

nucleolus

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