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Worksheets

HLT101 Final Exam

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 4hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the normal range for pulse?

a)

60-100

b)

80-100

c)

12-20

d)

60-80

2.

What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure?

a)

100-140

b)

90-110

c)

100-120

d)

60-80

3.

Which of the following is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure?

a)

100-140

b)

100-120

c)

60-80

d)

60-100

4.

Mrs. McFlurry tells you she is having difficulty breathing. Which of the following vital signs should the MA measure:

a)

Respirations

b)

SPO2

c)

Pulse

d)

All the Above

5.

What is the normal range for SpO2?

a)

95%-100%

b)

90%-100%

c)

95%-99%

d)

90%-99%

6.

What is the normal range for respirations?

a)

10-18

b)

14-20

c)

12-24

d)

12-20

7.

You are taking Mr. Mills blood pressure. You get a measurement of 80/36 mmHg. What should you do, first?

a)

Retake the blood pressure in the opposite arm.

b)

Immediately notify the doctor.

c)

Retake the blood pressure in the same arm.

d)

Call 911

8.
The average oral Fahrenheit temperature is
a)
95.8 degrees
b)
101.4  degrees
c)
98.6 degrees
d)
103.6 degrees
9.

A pulse site at the neck

a)

carotid

b)

temporal

c)

popliteal

d)

femoral

10.

A fast pulse is also called...

a)

tachycardia

b)

tachypnea

c)

bradycardia

d)

bradypnea

11.

The most accurate mode of taking temperature is...

a)

oral

b)

axillary

c)

rectal

d)

tympanic

12.

You check a babies pulse in the ______ artery.

a)

radial

b)

carotid

c)

brachial

d)

femoral

13.
Vital signs are important because they...
a)
Are a requirement doctors must make for every patient
b)
Signify if your brain is functioning properly
c)
Are clues for diagnosing illnesses and diseases
d)
All choices
14.

What should be noted about a pulse?

a)

rate, volume, and sound

b)

rate, volume, and character

c)

rate, rhythm, and volume

d)

rate, rhythm, and character

15.

Why would an apical pulse be taken?

a)

irregular heartbeat

b)

tachycardia

c)

infant/child

d)

all of the above

16.

What is the pulse deficit if an apical pulse is 112 and reradial pulse is 88?

a)

312

b)

24

c)

-24

d)

28

17.

What is diastolic pressure?

a)

Indicates the health and tone of arterial walls.

b)

Pressure that occurs in the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle of the heart is contracting.

c)

Measurement of the pressure that the blood exerts on the walls of the arteries during stages of heart activity.

d)

Constant pressure in the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle is at rest

18.

All of the following are advantages of using an automated blood pressure monitor except:

a)

Can be used to measure blood pressure in a patient with a dysrhythmia.

b)

The blood pressure measurement is easy to read.

c)

The brachial artery does not need to be located.

d)

The cuff does not have to be manually inflated.

19.

Which of the following indicates that the proper cuff size has been selected?

a)

The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% of the circumference of the arm.

b)

The cuff is at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow.

c)

The bladder is centered over the antecubital space.

d)

The cuff fits snugly.

20.

If a patient’s pulse rate is 80 beats/min, the patient’s respirations would most likely be

a)

14

b)

16

c)

18

d)

20

21.

What term is used to describe breathing that is easier in a sitting position?

a)

Orthopnea

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Eupnea

22.

You are measuring the pulse and find it feels weak and rapid. How would you record this?

a)

Bounding

b)

Thready

c)

Tachhycardia

d)

Bradycardia

23.

A patient with inoperable lung cancer says that he will stop smoking so that he can live until his daughter’s graduation. He is most likely in the depression stage of the grieving process as defined by Elizabeth Kübler-Ross.

a)

False

b)

False

24.

The term terminal phase refers to stages of professional communication.

a)

False

b)

True

25.

You take Mrs. Main’s temperature at 7:00 a.m.; it reads 97.8 °F. At 3:00 p.m., you take her temperature again; it reads 99 °F. How do you account for the difference?

a)

During sleep, body metabolism slows down.

b)

Mrs. Main normally runs a low body temperature.

c)

During sleep, muscle activity increases.

d)

Women normally run a higher body temperature than men.

26.

________ is a term used to describe "without fever" or a normal body temperature

a)

febrile

b)

afebrile

c)

pyrexia

27.

The term for "below normal" body temperature is

a)

hyperthermia

b)

hypothermia

c)

afebrile

28.

All of the following cause a decrease in body temperature EXCEPT

a)

sleep

b)

infection

c)

cold temperatures

29.

What name is given to the heat-regulating center of the body?

a)

Medulla

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Olfactory lobe

30.

Most of the heat produced in the body is through

a)

Shivering

b)

Perspirations

c)

Voluntary muscle contractions

d)

Digestion

31.

One respiration consists of

a)

One inhalation

b)

One exhalation

c)

One inhalation and one exhalation

d)

The opening and closing of the valves of the heart

32.

During exhalation

a)

Oxygen is taken into the lungs

b)

The diaphragm descends

c)

The lungs expand

d)

Carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs

33.

Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate?

a)

Newborn

b)

Infant

c)

Preschooler

d)

Adult

34.

What term is used to describe a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of oxygen?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Apnea

d)

Ischemia

35.

Which of the following conditions is often characterized by hypopnea?

a)

Sleep disorders

b)

Dehydration

c)

Fever

d)

Chills

36.

Internal respiration is the

a)

Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood

b)

Removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs

c)

Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells

d)

Measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood

37.

Which of the following is NOT included in the purpose of measuring pulse?

a)

To assess pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart functioning

b)

To determine if the patient is developing hypertension

c)

To assess pulse rate after the administration of medications that affect heart functioning

d)

To establish the patient’s baseline pulse rate

38.

Excessive pressure should not be applied when measuring radial pulse because

a)

The pulse may increase

b)

The pulse may decrease

c)

It could close off the radial artery, and the pulse may not be felt

d)

It could affect the rhythm of the pulse

39.

Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate?

a)

Infant

b)

School-age child

c)

Adolescent

d)

Adult

40.

For an artery to be considered as a pulse site, it must be

a)

Located in a closed cavity

b)

Located away from major nerves

c)

Located over a firm tissue such as bone

d)

Located close to the heart

41.

Where is the radial pulse located?

a)

On the thumb side of the wrist

b)

In the center of the antecubital space

c)

On the little finger side of the wrist

d)

On the anterior side of the neck

42.

The apical pulse is located

a)

In the fourth intercostal space, at the left margin of the sternum

b)

In the fifth intercostal space, at the junction of the left midclavicular line

c)

On the anterior side of the neck, slightly to one side of the midline

d)

On the fourth rib, at the junction of the right margin of the sternum

43.

Pulse oximeter measure:

a)

only oxygen in the blood

b)

only heart beat

c)

both oxygen in the blood and heart beat

44.

Your patient has this as a BP. What is this considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Prehypertension

c)

Hypertension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

45.

Your patient has this as a BP. What is this considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Prehypertension

c)

Hyperstension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

46.

Your patient has this as a BP. What is this considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Prehypertension

c)

Hypertension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

47.

Your patient has this as a BP. What is this considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Prehypertension

c)

Hypertension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

48.

Your patient has this as a BP. What is this considered?

a)

Nomral

b)

Prehypertension

c)

Hypertension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

49.

Your patient has this as a BP. What is this considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Prehypertension

c)

Hypertension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

50.

Your patient has this as a BP. What is this considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Prehypertension

c)

Hypertension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

51.

If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient’s pulse pressure would be

a)

45

b)

85

c)

130

d)

215

52.

When measuring blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be positioned

a)

Above heart level

b)

At heart level

c)

Across the chest

d)

With the palm facing downward

53.

Which of the following would be considered a normal blood pressure reading?

a)

118/78

b)

140/80

c)

88/50

d)

180/120

54.

Which of the following represents the average normal body temperature?

a)

37.8° C

b)

96.8° F

c)

98.6° F

d)

99.6° F

55.

A temperature of 100° F is classified as

a)

Normal

b)

Hyperpyrexia

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Low-grade fever

56.

A temperature of 103° F is classified as

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Pyrexia

c)

Hypopyrexia

d)

Low-grade fever

57.

A temperature of 97.6° F is classified as

a)

Normal

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Subnormal

d)

Low-grade fever

58.

What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occurs, all of which are above normal?

a)

Crisis

b)

Remittent

c)

Intermittent

d)

Continuous

59.

A living will is a legal document that makes known a person's wishes about life-support measures.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

A person who is judged by the court to be insane, senile, or mentally disabled cannot give informed consent.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following persons can legally give informed consent?

a)

Mike, age 21, who needs repair of a gunshot wound

b)

Susie, age 17, who need stitches

c)

Sabrina, age 19, who was driving while intoxicated and had a car wreck

d)

Adam, age 10, who needs an immunization against tetanus

62.

Which of the following is not one of the 3Ds of negligence?

a)

duty

b)

dereliction

c)

daring

d)

damages

63.
Empathy requires the ability to 
a)
feel sorry for someone else.
b)
feel a sense of commitment to a person. 
c)
understand the feelings of another person. 
d)
have a distant and unemotional attitude toward the patient. 
64.

A medical assistant must be able to

a)

obtain vital signs, collect specimens, administer medication, and run basic laboratory tests.

b)

provide billing and collections expertise.

c)

serve as a medical laboratory assistant.

d)

work as an office manager, a medical record manager, and a hospital ward clerk.

65.

When working in an environment or with patients who are culturally different, a medical assistant should

a)

separate personal beliefs from the work being performed.

b)

explain to patients why his or her beliefs are better.

c)

avoid working with people from other cultures so that no one is offended.

d)

tell the physician or office manager what they can do and cannot do in the office relative to your personal beliefs.

66.

As a medical assistant, you must always keep _____ in mind.

a)

your responsibilities outside of work

b)

your head physician’s favorite foods

c)

the patient's social security number

d)

the patient’s well-being

67.

Which response most closely defines that of a Medical Assistant?

a)

Work alongside physicians, mainly in outpatient or ambulatory care facilities, such as medical offices and clinics.

b)

Care for patients in their homes

c)

Work in laborites, collecting specimens for testing purposes

d)

None of the above

68.

Skills and qualities that make a good medical assistant. Pick all that apply.

a)

Detail oriented, empathic and caring, Good at multi-tasking and efficient, Kind and teamplayer

b)

slow

c)

poor time management

d)

a procrastinator

69.

If you were a medical assistant in an exam room and a patient became upset with you, how would you "keep your cool?"

a)

be empathetic, listen and don't become defensive. Watch your tone and body language.

b)

Just walk away

c)

Tell them, "I don't need this!"

d)

all of the above

70.

One element of communication includes:

a)

sender

b)

smiling face

c)

deaf person

71.

Communication involves the following elements:

a)

sender

b)

message

c)

receiver

d)

feedback

e)

all the above

72.

Which of the following is an example of a rule for effective communication:

a)

The message must be clear

b)

Sender must deliver the message clearly and concisely

c)

Receiver must be able to hear and receive the message

d)

all the above

73.

Which of the following is a barrier to communication?

a)

Deafness

b)

Blind

c)

Aphasia

d)

All the above

74.

Claudia goes to the doctor's office with her 12 year old daughter. Claudia speaks only German. Her daughter speaks German and English. The doctor needs to explain, to Claudia, how to take her new medicine. Which of the following is the best intervention for the doctor to use in order to communicate this information with Claudia?

a)

use written material

b)

use a picture board

c)

use a licensed medical interpreter

d)

use her daughter to relay the information

75.

In some cultures it't not acceptable to look another person in the eyes. They consider it rude.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Active listening involves:

a)

asking questions

b)

repeating back what the other person said

c)

making eye contact

d)

all the above

77.

Our facial expressions, tone of voice, movement, appearance, eye contact, gestures, and posture are called _____________________.

a)

verbal communication

b)

nonverbal communication

78.

What is one way to avoid a misunderstanding?

a)

send the same verbal and nonverbal message

b)

be specific

c)

ask questions

d)

all of the above

79.
Bacteria can exist almost anywhere
a)
False
b)
True
80.
Viruses are not affected by antibiotics.
a)
True
b)
False
81.

According to the CDC, how long should you wash your hands?

a)

10 seconds

b)

20 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

Until the suds come off

82.

When should you wash your hands with soap and water?

a)

When your hands are visibly dirty

b)

Before eating

c)

After using the restroom

d)

All of the above

83.

What is the easiest and most important way to prevent the spread of infection?

a)

Hand washing

b)

Wearing gloves

c)

Covering your nose when you cough or sneeze

d)

Wearing a gown and a mask

84.

Choose the correct option

a)

sharps container

b)

biohazard waste container

c)

syringe

d)

gown

85.

What is the name given to a tiny living plant or animal that cannot be seen with the naked eye?

a)

Pathogen

b)

Microorganism

c)

Nonpathogen

d)

Microbiology

86.

Which of the following is NOT a growth requirement for microorganisms?

a)

Darkness

b)

Moisture

c)

Nutrition

d)

Acidic environment

87.

Microorganisms can be transmitted through

a)

Droplet infection

b)

Insects

c)

Contaminated food

d)

Contaminated equipment

e)

All of the above

88.

What is the name given to a person who cannot fight off a pathogen that has entered his or her body?

a)

Reservoir host

b)

Resistant host

c)

Contagious

d)

Susceptible host

89.

A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness, and fatigue is known as

a)

The blahs

b)

Malaise

c)

Crisis

d)

Adventitious

90.

If an axillary temperature of 100 °F was taken orally, it would register as

a)

98 °F

b)

99 °F

c)

100 °F

d)

101 °F

91.

How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant?

a)

1/2 inch

b)

1/4 inch

c)

1 inch

d)

1 1/2 inch

92.

Chemical thermometers must be stored in

a)

The freezer

b)

A dry heat oven

c)

A watertight container

d)

A cool area

93.

Where is the popliteal pulse located?

a)

In front of the ear, just above eye level

b)

In the middle of the groin

c)

On the anterior side of the neck

d)

In the back of the knee

94.

Which of the following pulse sites can be used to assess circulation to the foot?

a)

Posterior tibial

b)

Ulnar

c)

Femoral

d)

Popliteal

95.

Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?

a)

A trained athlete

b)

An infant

c)

An elderly person

d)

A diabetic patient

96.

The control center for involuntary respiration is the

a)

Medulla

b)

Thalamus

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Olfactory lobe

97.

What term is used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Hypopnea

c)

Apnea

d)

Anoxia

98.

The function of hemoglobin is to

a)

Transport oxygen in the body

b)

Defend the body against infection

c)

Assist in blood clotting

d)

Transport nutrients to the cells

99.

Which of the following will NOT cause a decrease in the SpO2 reading?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Asthma

c)

Emphysema

d)

Gastritis

100.

Which of the following is NOT used as a probe placement site?

a)

Toe

b)

Earlobe

c)

Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied

d)

Index finger

101.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing hypertension?

a)

Obesity

b)

Smoking

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Alcohol consumption

102.

When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents

a)

The systolic pressure

b)

Phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds

c)

The diastolic pressure

d)

The palpatory blood pressure reading

103.

Which of the following represents an error in (manual) blood pressure technique?

a)

Directing the ear pieces of the stethoscope slightly forward in the ear

b)

Placing the cuff 2 inches above the bend in the elbow

c)

Positioning the manometer at a viewing distance of 2 feet

d)

Releasing the air in the cuff as slowly as possible

104.

Blood pressure measures

a)

The contraction and relaxation of the heart

b)

The number of times the heart beats per minute

c)

The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood

d)

The expansion and recoiling of the aorta

105.

Initiative is the ability to begin or carry through on a plan of action independently.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Attending an accredited medical assisting program guarantees employment.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Neatness and grooming are important not only for professionalism, but also for reasons of health and safety.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Wearing multiple rings while working with patients is usually fine as long as proper handwashing procedures are followed.

a)

False

b)

True

109.

Once a national certification is obtained, no further education is ever required.

a)

False

b)

True

110.

It is often the medical assistant’s responsibility to educate patients about office procedures and policies.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

What is the name for treatment that reduces symptoms of a disease, but does not cure the disease?

a)

Definitive

b)

Palliative

c)

Holistic

d)

Empirical

112.

Which of the following facilities now functions primarily to provide acute care and diagnostic services?

a)

Clinic

b)

Hospital

c)

Physician’s office

d)

Skilled nursing facility/nursing home

113.

Which aspect of our communication is most likely to convey our true feelings and beliefs?

a)

Nonverbal communication

b)

Verbal communication

c)

Increased use of slang

d)

Spoken words only

114.

Which of the following is an example of a closed question?

a)

“What is the reason for your visit today?”

b)

“Are you an only child?”

c)

“Can you describe your pain for me?”

d)

“What are your plans for the future?”

115.

How is the patient likely to react if the medical assistant asks, “Why aren’t you following your diet?”

a)

Become defensive

b)

Answer honestly

c)

Smile but not answer

d)

Say, “I’m glad you asked me that question.”

116.
What is a pathogen?
a)
A doctor who specializes in curing diseases
b)
Microbes that are beneficial when present
c)
A special machine that is used to grow microbes
d)
A small living organism that can cause disease
117.
What is used to cure someone with a bacterial infection such as strep throat?
a)
Radiation
b)
Aspirin
c)
Antibiotics
d)
Ibuprophen
118.
What is the best way to prevent nosocomial infections?
a)
Antibiotics
b)
Handwashing
c)
Clean sheets
d)
Having the patient wear a mask
119.

The type of listening when the medical assistant remains “in the moment” and focuses fully on the patient’s message is called

a)

Open listening

b)

Closed listening

c)

Active listening

d)

Verbal listening

120.

How can the medical assistant facilitate communication nonverbally?

a)

Avoid eye contact

b)

Be aware of his or her own and the patient's bady language

c)

Ask the patient to repeat anything that is unclear

d)

Stand close to the patient

121.

Which of the following is NOT true with regard to anxiety and anxiety attacks?

a)

They should be dealt with it as a medical issue first.

b)

Severe episodes are often called panic attacks.

c)

The patient should be instructed to breathe into a brown paper bag.

d)

Anxious patients often do not remember what they are told.

122.

When is it appropriate for the medical assistant to use silence in an interview with a patient?

a)

Whenever the medical assistant feels threatened

b)

When the medical assistant wants to encourage the patient to respond

c)

When the medical assistant does not believe what the patient has just said

d)

Silence is not appropriate when interviewing a patient

123.

Self boundaries define how close others can get, both physically and mentally.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Changes in facial expression and body position when communicating are examples of nonverbal cues.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

A patient with inoperable lung cancer says that he will stop smoking so that he can live until his daughter’s graduation. He is most likely in the depression stage of the grieving process as defined by Elizabeth Kübler-Ross.

a)

True

b)

False