wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

physiology test

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of homeostasis

a)

To keep the internal environment of the body constant

b)

To transport materials across the cell membrane

c)

To regulate body temperature only

d)

To increase cellular activity

2.

What percentage of water does a 70 kg 'standard male' contain?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

80%

3.

What type of feedback mechanism stimulates a function?

a)

Negative feedback

b)

. Positive feedback

c)

. Neutral feedback

d)

Static feedback

4.

What are the two main compartments of body water?

a)

Intracellular Fluid and Extracellular Fluid

b)

Blood and Lymph

c)

Plasma and Interstitial Fluid

d)

Fat and Bone

5.

What is the composition of a phospholipid molecule?

a)

A polar head and two nonpolar tails

b)

Two polar heads and one nonpolar tail

c)

A single layer of lipids

d)

Only hydrophobic tails

6.

Which system regulates homeostasis through rapid control mechanisms?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Immune system

d)

Digestive system

7.

What is the water content percentage in neonates compared to adults?

a)

50-60%

b)

75-80%

c)

60-70%

d)

80-90%

8.

What is the primary active transport mechanism mentioned in the document?

a)

Calcium pump

b)

Sodium-Potassium pump

c)

Chloride channel

d)

Glucose transporter

9.

What type of fluid is interstitial fluid classified as?

a)

Intracellular fluid

b)

Extracellular fluid

c)

Intravascular fluid

d)

Cytoplasmic fluid

10.

What is the role of glycolipids in the cell membrane?

a)

To provide energy

b)

To form a barrier

c)

To bind carbohydrates

d)

To transport ions

11.

Homeostasis is regulated only by the nervous system.

a)

true

b)

false

12.

The major division of body water is into Intracellular Fluid and Extracellular Fluid.

a)

true

b)

false

13.

Phospholipids are composed of a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail.

a)

true

b)

false

14.

Negative feedback mechanisms increase the output or activity of an organ or system.

a)

true

b)

false

15.

Neonates contain a higher percentage of water than adults.

a)

true

b)

false

16.

The extracellular fluid (ECF) is divided into interstitial fluid and intravascular fluid.

a)

true

b)

false

17.

The cell membrane is impermeable to all substances.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

The primary active transport mechanism mentioned in the document is the NA+-K+ pump.

a)

true

b)

false

19.

Homeostasis involves maintaining constant temperature, pH, and ion concentration.

a)

true

b)

false

20.

Glycolipids are lipids without any carbohydrate attached.

a)

true

b)

false

21.

What is the protein part of a conjugated enzyme called?

a)

Coenzyme

b)

Apoenzyme

c)

Substrate

d)

Zymogen

22.

What temperature range is optimal for human enzymes?

a)

0°- 10°C

b)

20°- 30°C

c)

35°- 40°C

d)

50°- 60°C

23.

What is the role of competitive inhibitors?

a)

They enhance enzyme activity

b)

They resemble the substrate and compete for the active site

c)

They change the pH of the environment

d)

They are inactive precursors of enzymes

24.

What is the effect of pH on enzyme activity?

a)

It has no effect

b)

It changes the protein shape and can denature it

c)

It increases the temperature

d)

It decreases the substrate concentration

25.

What are zymogens?

a)

Inactive precursors of enzymes

b)

Enzymes that break down lipids

c)

Enzymes that catalyze hydrolysis

d)

Active forms of enzymes

26.

What is the term for the protein part of a conjugated enzyme?

a)

Zymogen

b)

Substrate

c)

Coenzyme

d)

Apoenzyme

27.

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down sucrose?

a)

Protease

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Lipase

d)

Sucrase

28.

What happens to enzymes when the temperature is raised too high?

a)

They speed up reactions

b)

They become more active

c)

They denature and lose shape

d)

They become zymogens

29.

What is the role of a competitive inhibitor in enzyme activity?

a)

It enhances enzyme activity

b)

It increases the activation energy

c)

It resembles the substrate and competes for the active site

d)

It changes the enzyme's shape

30.

What is the current system for naming enzymes based on?

a)

The enzyme's shape

b)

The type of reaction or substrate involved

c)

The pH level of the reaction

d)

The temperature at which they work best

31.

Apoenzymes are the non-protein part of conjugated enzymes

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Enzymes are permanently changed after a reaction occurs

a)

true

b)

false

33.

Zymogens are active forms of enzymes.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

Lyases are enzymes that catalyze the removal of groups from substrates by means other than hydrolysis.

a)

true

b)

false

35.

The suffix '-ase' is used in the nomenclature of enzymes to indicate the type of reaction they catalyze.

a)

true

b)

false

36.

Are coenzymes considered the protein part of conjugated enzymes?

a)

true

b)

false

37.

Do enzymes require a specific shape to function properly?

a)

true

b)

false

38.

Is the optimum temperature for human enzymes typically between 30°C and 35°C?

a)

true

b)

false

39.

Do competitive inhibitors enhance the activity of enzymes by binding to the active site?

a)

true

b)

false

40.

Are zymogens active forms of enzymes that can immediately catalyze reactions?

a)

true

b)

false

41.

Function of the blood:

a)

Transport of gases, nutrients, wastes products & regulatory molecules only.

b)

Regulation of PH and osmosis only.

c)

Maintenance of body temperature only.

d)

all the above

42.

The percentage of plasma in the blood

a)

60%

b)

55%

c)

57%

d)

51%

43.

The percentage of the formed elements in the blood

a)

45%

b)

55%

c)

40%

d)

50%

44.

Pale yellow made up of 91% water, 9% other substances

a)

Proteins.

b)

Red blood cells (Erythrocytes).

c)

Liquid part of blood (Plasma).

d)

White blood cells (Leukocytes).

45.

Important in regulation of water movement between tissues and blood

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Albumin

c)

Globulins

d)

all the above

46.

Responsible for immune system or transport molecules

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Albumin

c)

Globulins

d)

all the above

47.

Responsible for formation of blood clots

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Globulins

c)

Albumin

d)

all the above

48.

Which blood group is determined by antigens on the surface of RBCs?

a)

Rh

b)

ABO

c)

Oxygen

d)

Hemoglobin

49.

White blood cells (leukocytes) consist of Granulocytes which consist of

a)

Monocytes & Neutrophils.

b)

Lymphocytes & Eosinophils.

c)

Lymphocytes & Monocytes.

d)

Neutrophils, Eosinophils & Basophils.

50.

Process of blood cell production

a)

Hematopoiesis

b)

Hemopoiesis

c)

None of the following

d)

Both a & b

51.

Develop into red blood cells

a)

Myeloblasts

b)

Proerythroblasts

c)

Lymphoblast

d)

Monoblasts

52.

Develop into basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils

a)

Proerythroblasts

b)

Lymphoblasts

c)

Myeloblasts

d)

Monoblasts

53.

Develop into lymphocytes

a)

Lymphoblasts

b)

Proerythroblasts

c)

Myeloblasts

d)

Monoblasts

54.

Develop into monocytes

a)

Myeloblasts

b)

Monoblasts

c)

Lymphoblasts

d)

Megakaryoblasts

55.

Develop into platelets

a)

Myeloblasts

b)

Monoblasts

c)

Lymphoblasts

d)

Megakaryoblasts

56.

The structure of erythrocytes

a)

Biconcave, anucleate

b)

Biconcave, nucleated

c)

Biconcave only

d)

None of the following

57.

Components of erythrocytes

a)

Hemoglobin, Lipids & ATP only

b)

Hemoglobin, Lipids, ATP & carbonic anhydrase

c)

Lipids, ATP & carbonic anhydrase only

d)

None of the following

58.

4 Globin molecule

a)

Transport oxygen

b)

Transport carbon dioxide

c)

None of the following

d)

Both a & b

59.

4 heme molecule

a)

Transport oxygen

b)

Transport carbon dioxide

c)

None of the following

d)

Both a & b

60.

Leukocytes consist of

a)

Agranulocyte

b)

Granulocyte

c)

None of the following

d)

Both a & b

61.

What do thyroid hormones act through?

a)

Transmembrane proteins

b)

Pancreas

c)

Nuclear receptors

d)

Adrenal glands

62.

What is the role of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in males?

a)

Regulates sperm production

b)

Regulates blood glucose levels

c)

Stimulates adrenal gland

d)

Produces insulin

63.

What two hormones play a major role in calcium homeostasis in mammals?

a)

Cortisol and aldosterone

b)

Insulin and glucagon

c)

Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

d)

Adrenaline and norepinephrine

64.

What is the primary function of the pancreas in its endocrine role?

a)

Secretes digestive enzymes

b)

Regulates sodium and potassium

c)

Produces insulin and glucagon

d)

Stimulates adrenal gland

65.

What is diabetes mellitus caused by?

a)

Deficiency of insulin or decreased response to insulin

b)

Excessive production of glucagon

c)

Increased calcium levels

d)

Overproduction of adrenaline

66.

Which part of the adrenal gland produces adrenaline and norepinephrine?

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Adrenal medulla

d)

Anterior pituitary

67.

What is the primary function of hormones in the body?

a)

To produce digestive enzymes

b)

To regulate calcium levels

c)

To convey information via the bloodstream

d)

To stimulate the adrenal gland

68.

What is the role of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?

a)

Increases blood glucose levels

b)

Stimulates insulin production

c)

Regulates sperm production

d)

Stimulates the adrenal gland to produce steroid hormones

69.

What is the location of the pancreas in relation to the stomach?

a)

Above the stomach

b)

Behind the stomach

c)

In front of the stomach

d)

Next to the liver

70.

Which two hormones are antagonistic in calcium homeostasis?

a)

Insulin and glucagon

b)

Cortisol and aldosterone

c)

Adrenaline and norepinephrine

d)

Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

71.

Thyroid hormones act through nuclear receptors.

a)

true

b)

false

72.

The adrenal cortex produces adrenaline and norepinephrine.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Phermones carry messages to other individuals outside the body

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Diabetes mellitus is caused by an excess of insulin.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

The hypothalamus and anterior pituitary control the secretion of thyroid hormones through two negative feedback loops

a)

true

b)

false

76.

Do mammals have an adrenal gland located above each kidney?

a)

True

b)

false

77.

The adrenal medulla produces steroid hormones such as cortisol and aldosterone.

a)

true

b)

false

78.

Hormones convey information via the bloodstream to target cells throughout the body

a)

true

b)

false

79.

Exocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream

a)

true

b)

false

80.

Calcium homeostasis in mammals is regulated by two antagonistic hormones: parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.

a)

true

b)

false

81.

What are the two types of cytoplasmic processes that extend from the cell body?

a)

Neurons and Synapses

b)

Rods and Cones

c)

Dendrites and Axons

d)

Sensory and Motor

82.

What is the function of sensory (afferent) neurons?

a)

Carry impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS

b)

Carry impulses away from the CNS

c)

Form the nerve processes

d)

Connect neurons together

83.

What type of synapse opens a chemically gated sodium channel?

a)

Inhibitory synapse

b)

Excitatory synapse

c)

Electrical synapse

d)

Chemical synapse

84.

What part of the vertebrate brain is responsible for maintaining homeostasis?

a)

Forebrain

b)

Hindbrain

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Midbrain

85.

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Promotes digestion

b)

Conserves energy

c)

Inhibits action potentials

d)

Increases blood pressure and heart rate

86.

What are the two types of cytoplasmic processes that extend from the cell body of a neuron?

a)

Dendrites and Axons

b)

Presynaptic and Postsynaptic Neurons

c)

Rods and Cones

d)

Sensory and Motor Neurons

87.

Which part of the vertebrate brain is responsible for basic life functions such as breathing and heart rate?

a)

Forebrain

b)

Midbrain

c)

Hindbrain

d)

Cerebellum

88.

What is the role of neurotransmitters in the nervous system?

a)

To carry messages across the synapse

b)

To connect sensory and motor neurons

c)

To generate action potentials

d)

To maintain homeostasis

89.

What type of synapse involves a receptor protein that is a chemically gated sodium channel?

a)

Electrical synapse

b)

Inhibitory synapse

c)

Chemical synapse

d)

Excitatory synapse

90.

Which system of the peripheral nervous system innervates skeletal muscle?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

91.

Dendrites carry signals away from the cell body of a neuron.

a)

true

b)

false

92.

The human retina contains only one type of photoreceptor.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

The Central Nervous System (CNS) includes the brain and spinal cord.

a)

true

b)

false

94.

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the 'rest and digest' response

a)

True

b)

false

95.

Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse to carry messages across the synaptic cleft.

a)

true

b)

false

96.

Are axons responsible for bringing signals into the cell body of a neuron?

a)

true

b)

false

97.

The vertebrate brain consists of four parts: hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain, and cerebellum.

a)

true

b)

false

98.

Chemical synapses involve a direct contact between neurons.

a)

true

b)

false

99.

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for voluntary muscle control

a)

true

b)

false

100.

Rods in the human retina are responsible for color vision.

a)

true

b)

false

101.

What is the primary dietary carbohydrate that is digested in the human gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Polysaccharides

b)

Monosaccharides

c)

Disaccharides

d)

Oligosaccharides

102.

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for fat digestion in the duodenum?

a)

Pancreatic lipase

b)

Lingual lipase

c)

Gastric lipase

d)

Bile salts

103.

What is the role of secretin in the digestive process?

a)

Increases secretion of bicarbonate

b)

Stimulates gastric acid secretion

c)

Inhibits bile secretion

d)

Stimulates protein digestion

104.

What type of transport is used for glucose transport out of the renal tubules?

a)

Passive transport

b)

Secondary active transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Simple diffusion

105.

What happens to the fatty acids containing more than 10-12 carbon atoms in enterocytes?

a)

They are absorbed directly into the portal blood

b)

They are converted to glucose

c)

They are excreted in bile

d)

They are reesterified to triglycerides

106.

What is the primary mechanism by which gastrin stimulates H+ secretion in the gastric lumen?

a)

By increasing intracellular cAMP through histamine secretion

b)

By directly stimulating parietal cells

c)

By decreasing Na+ concentration

d)

By inhibiting gastric lipase

107.

Which type of fatty acids are primarily reesterified to triglycerides in enterocytes?

a)

Fatty acids with more than 10-12 carbon atoms

b)

Fatty acids with less than 10-12 carbon atoms

c)

Free fatty acids

d)

Free fatty acids

108.

What role does the sodium-dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) play in the absorption of sugars?

a)

Inhibits sugar absorption

b)

Facilitates sugar influx into epithelial cells

c)

Converts glucose to fatty acids

d)

Transports glucose out of renal tubules

109.

What is the primary source of the glucose molecules found in glycogen?

a)

Synthetic origin

b)

Plant origin

c)

Bacterial origin

d)

Animal origin

110.

What is the effect of high concentrations of Na+ on the transport of hexoses in the intestine?

a)

Inhibits sugar absorption

b)

Has no effect on sugar transport

c)

Facilitates sugar influx into epithelial cells

d)

Increases the absorption of larger peptides

111.

Fatty acids containing less than 10-12 carbon atoms pass from the mucosal cells directly into the portal blood as free fatty acids.

a)

true

b)

false

112.

Gastrin stimulates H+ secretion primarily by acting on H2 receptors.

a)

true

b)

false

113.

The citric acid cycle is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl-CoA is metabolized to CO2 and H atoms.

a)

true

b)

false

114.

CCK inhibits gastric emptying and increases the secretion of enterokinase.

a)

true

b)

false

115.

Nucleic acids are split into nucleotides in the intestine by pancreatic lipase.

a)

true

b)

false

116.

The absorption of amino acids is rapid in the ileum compared to the duodenum and jejunum.

a)

true

b)

false

117.

Cholecystokinin and pancreozymin are now understood to be separate hormones with distinct functions.

a)

true

b)

false

118.

The citric acid cycle produces 12 ATP and 4 H2O from the metabolism of acetyl-CoA.

a)

true

b)

false

119.

Histamine secretion by enterochromaffin-like cells is stimulated by gastrin, which increases H+ secretion.

a)

true

b)

false

120.

The sodium-dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is responsible for the facilitated diffusion of glucose across the intestinal epithelium.

a)

true

b)

false