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HEMA MIDTERM EXAM

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Of the following, the disease most closely associated with granulocyte hyposegmentation is:

a)

May-Hegglin anomaly

b)

Pelger-Huet anomaly

c)

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

d)

Gaucher's disease

2.

A characteristic morphologic feature in hemoglobin C disease is:

a)

macrocytosis

b)

spherocytosis

c)

rouleaux formation

d)

target cells

3.

Thalassemias are characterized by:

a)

structural abnormalities in the hemoglobin molecule

b)

absence of iron in hemoglobin

c)

decreased rate of heme synthesis

d)

decreased rate of globin synthesis

4.

Phagocytosis is a function of

a)

erythrocytes

b)

granulocytes

c)

lymphocytes

d)

thrombocytes

5.

Cells for the transport of 02 and CO2 are:

a)

erythrocytes

b)

granulocytes

c)

lymphocytes

d)

thrombocytes

6.

Cells that produce antibodies and lymphokines are:

a)

erythrocytes

b)

granulocytes

c)

lymphocytes

d)

thrombocytes

7.

In polycythemia vera, the hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count, and red cell mass are:

a)

elevated

b)

normal

c)

decreased

d)

None of the choices given

8.

In polycythemia vera, the platelet count is:

a)

elevated

b)

normal

c)

decreased

d)

None of the choices given

9.

Erythropoietin acts to:

a)

shorten the replication time of the granulocytes

b)

stimulate RNA synthesis of erythroid cells

c)

increase colony-stimulating factors produced by the B-lymphocytes

d)

decrease the release of marrow reticulocytes

10.

The anemia of chronic infection is characterized by:

a)

decreased iron stores in the reticuloendothelial system

b)

decreased serum iron levels

c)

macrocytic erythrocytes

d)

increased serum iron-binding capacity

11.

Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include:

a)

marrow hypoplasia

b)

ineffective erythropoiesis

c)

vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

increased erythropoietin production

12.

The majority of the iron in an adult is found as a constituent of:

a)

hemoglobin

b)

hemosiderin

c)

myoglobin

d)

transfenin

13.

Which of the following is associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

a)

membrane defect of lysosomes

b)

Dohle bodies and giant platelets

c)

two-lobed neutrophils

d)

mucopolysaccharidosis

14.

Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions?

a)

membrane defect of lysosomes

b)

Dohle bodies and giant platelets

c)

two-lobed neutrophils

d)

mucopolysaccharidosis

15.

In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly with oxygen, the iron must be:

a)

complexed with haptoglobin

b)

freely circulating in the cytoplasm

c)

attached to transferrin

d)

in the ferrous state

16.

Heinz bodies are:

a)

readily identified with polychrome stains

b)

rarely found in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient erythrocytes

c)

closely associated with spherocytes

d)

denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen

17.

A bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 100 pm in size with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is most characteristic of?

a)

Gaucher's disease

b)

myeloma with Russell bodies

c)

Di Guglielmo disease

d)

Niemann-Pick disease

18.

Patients with chronic granulomatous disease suffer from frequent pyogenic infections owing to the inability of:

a)

lymphocytes to produce bacterial antibodies

b)

eosinophils to degranulate in the presence of bacteria

c)

neutrophils to kill phagocytized bacteria

d)

basophils to release histamine in the presence of bacteria

19.

Which of the following is most closely associated with iron deficiency anemia?

a)

iron overload in tissue

b)

target cells

c)

basophilic stippling

d)

chronic blood loss

20.

Which of the following is seen most often in thalassemia?

a)

acanthocytes

b)

target cells

c)

basophilic stippling

d)

ringed sideroblasts

21.

Which of the following is most likely to be seen in lead poisoning?

a)

iron overload in tissue

b)

codocytes

c)

basophilic stippling

d)

ringed sideroblasts

22.

Auer rods are:

a)

a normal aggregation of lysosomes or primary (azurophilic) granules

b)

predominantly found in acute myelogenous leukemia

c)

peroxidase negative

d)

alkaline phosphatase positive

23.

Morphologic variants of plasma cells do NOT include:

a)

flame cells

b)

morula cells

c)

grape cells

d)

Gaucher's cells

24.

Pluripotent stem cells are capable of producing

a)

daughter cells of only one cell line

b)

only T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes

c)

erythropoietin, thrombopoietin, and leukopoietin

d)

lymphoid and myeloid stem cells

25.

The anemia found in myeloproliferative disorders is usually:

a)

microcytic, hypochromic

b)

macrocytic, normochromic

c)

normocytic, normochromic

d)

microcytic, normochromic

26.

Hairy cell leukemia (leukemic reticuloendotheliosis) is:

a)

an acute myelocytic leukemia

b)

a chronic leukemia of myelocytic origin

c)

a chronic leukemia of lymphocytic origin

d)

an acute myelocytic monocytic-type leukemia

27.

Which of the following cell types is characteristic of Pelger Huet anomaly?

a)

band form

b)

pince-nez form

c)

normal neutrophil

d)

myelocyte

28.

Which of the following is the formula for mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?

a)

(Hgb x 10)/RBC

b)

Hgb/Hct

c)

(Hct x 10)/RBC

d)

RBC/Hct

29.

Which of the following is used for staining reticulocytes?

a)

Giemsa stain

b)

Wright's stain

c)

new methylene blue

d)

Prussian blue

30.

The characteristic erythrocyte found in pernicious anemia is:

a)

microcytic

b)

spherocytic

c)

hypochromic

d)

macrocytic

31.

The white cell feature most characteristic of pernicious anemia is

a)

eosinophilia

b)

toxic granulation

c)

hypersegmentation

d)

atypical lymphocytes

32.

The ideal capillary blood collection site on a newborn is

a)

tip of the thumb

b)

ear lobe

c)

plantar surface of the heel

d)

the great toe

33.

In the normal adult, the spleen acts as a site for:

a)

storage of red blood cells

b)

production of red blood cells

c)

synthesis of erythropoietin

d)

removal of imperfect and aging cells

34.

The term "shift to the left" refers to:

a)

a microscope adjustment

b)

immature cell forms in the peripheral blood

c)

a trend on a Levy-Jennings chart

d)

a calibration adjustment on an instrument

35.

Of the following, the disease most closely associated with glucocerebrosidase deficiency is:

a)

Gaucher's disease

b)

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

c)

Pelger-Huet anomaly

d)

May-Hegglin anomaly

36.

Of the following, the disease most closely associated with cytoplasmic granule fusion is:

a)

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

b)

Pelger-Huet anomaly

c)

May-Hegglin anomaly

d)

Alder-Reilly anomaly

37.

The morphologic feature most characteristic of hemolytic anemia is:

a)

spherocytosis

b)

rouleaux formation

c)

basophilic stippling

d)

target cells

38.

The characteristic morphologic feature in lead poisoning is

a)

macrocytosis

b)

target cells (codocytes)

c)

basophilic stippling

d)

rouleaux formation

39.

The characteristic morphologic feature in folic acid deficiency is:

a)

macrocytosis

b)

target cells

c)

basophilic stippling

d)

rouleaux formation

40.

Which of the following characteristics are common to hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis, hereditary stomatocytosis, and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

a)

autosomal dominant inheritance

b)

red cell membrane defects

c)

positive direct antiglobulin test

d)

measured platelet count

41.

Precursors of tissue macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system most likely are:

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

monocytes

d)

mast cells

42.

Which of the following cells are most likely identified in lesions of mycosis fungoides?

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

monocytes

d)

mast cells

43.

In normal adult bone marrow, the most common granulocyte is the:

a)

basophil

b)

myeloblast

c)

eosinophil

d)

metamyelocyte

44.

Which of the following cells is the largest cell in the bone marrow:

a)

megakaryocyte

b)

histiocyte

c)

osteoblast

d)

mast cell

45.

Variation in red cell size observed on the peripheral smear is described as:

a)

Anisocytosis

b)

Hypochromia

c)

Poikilocytosis

d)

Pleocytosis

46.

Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?

a)

Iliac crest

b)

Sternum

c)

Tibia

d)

Spinous processes of a vertebra

47.

Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a Wright’s-stained blood smear?

a)

Basophilic stippling

b)

Heinz bodies

c)

Howell–Jolly bodies

d)

Siderotic granules

48.

Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Coefficient of variation

d)

Standard deviation

49.

Which of the following is considered a normal hemoglobin?

a)

Carboxyhemoglobin

b)

Methemoglobin

c)

Sulfhemoglobin

d)

Deoxyhemoglobin

50.

Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Multiple blood transfusions

d)

Increased quantities of hemoglobin S or C

51.

Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of hemoglobin?

a)

Reticulocyte

b)

Pronormoblast

c)

Basophilic normoblast

d)

Polychromatic normoblast

52.

Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

a)

Increases in 2,3 DPG

b)

Acidosis

c)

Hypoxia

d)

All of these options

53.

Which of the following organs is responsible for the “pitting process” for RBCs?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Kidney

d)

Lymph nodes

54.

Spherocytes differ from normal red cells in all of the following except:

a)

Decreased surface to volume

b)

No central pallor

c)

Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline

d)

Increased deformability

55.

Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait?

a)

Hgb S

b)

Hgb F

c)

Hgb A2

d)

Hgb A1

56.

Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia.

a)

Lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at the

sixth position of the α-chain

b)

Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the β-chain

c)

Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the α-chain

d)

Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the β-chain

57.

All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease except:

a)

Hgb C crystals

b)

Target cells

c)

Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the β–chain

d)

Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6

58.

Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?

a)

Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 35% Hgb F: 5%

b)

Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2%

c)

Hgb A: 0% Hgb A2: 5% Hgb F: 95%

d)

Hgb A: 80% Hgb S: 10% Hgb A2: 10%

59.

“Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:

a)

Rh null trait

b)

Chronic granulomatous disease

c)

G6PD deficiency

d)

PK deficiency

60.

The morphological classification of anemias is based on which of the following?

a)

M:E (myeloid:erythroid) ratio

b)

Prussian blue stain

c)

RBC indices

d)

Reticulocyte count

61.

Which of the following is a common finding in aplastic anemia?

a)

A monoclonal disorder

b)

Tumor infiltration

c)

Peripheral blood pancytopenia

d)

Defective DNA synthesis

62.

Which antibiotic(s) is (are) most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia

a)

Sulfonamides

b)

Penicillin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Chloramphenicol

63.

What red cell inclusion may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy?

a)

Toxic granulation

b)

Howell–Jolly bodies

c)

Malarial parasites

d)

Siderotic granules

64.

Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by

a)

Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

b)

Decreased plasma iron, decreased plasma ferritin, normal RBC porphyrin

c)

Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, decreased TIBC

d)

Decreased plasma iron, increased % saturation, decreased TIBC

65.

Which anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor that prevents B12 absorption?

a)

Tropical sprue

b)

Transcobalamin deficiency

c)

Blind loop syndrome

d)

Pernicious anemia

66.

Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?

a)

Normocytic, normochromic

b)

Microcytic, normochromic

c)

Macrocytic, hypochromic

d)

Macrocytic, normochromic

67.

Which inclusions may be seen in leukocytes?

a)

Döhle bodies

b)

Basophilic stippling

c)

Malarial parasites

d)

Howell–Jolly bodies

68.

It is the process by which erythroid precursor cells differentiate to become mature RBC.

a)

Leukopoiesis

b)

Erythropoiesis

c)

Thrombopoiesis

d)

Hematopoiesis

69.

Components of quality assurance/assessment programs includes all of the following except?

a)

Preexamination variables

b)

Examination variables

c)

Post examination variables

d)

None of the given choices

70.

Which of the following is not included in the examination/analytical phase of testing?

a)

laboratory staff competence

b)

assay and instrument selection

c)

accuracy in transcription and filing of results

d)

external and internal quality control

e)

assay validation

71.

Which of the following is part of the preexamination/preanalytical phase of testing?

a)

specimen collection equipment and technique

b)

patient and physician satisfaction

c)

turnaround time

d)

assay validation

e)

content and format of laboratory report

72.

It is a sample of known quantity and are prepared from the same matrix as patient specimens and are sampled alongside patient specimens to accomplish within-run assay validation.

a)

Calibrators

b)

Standard

c)

Controls

d)

Blank reagent

73.

When controls are run, they must fall within predetermined dispersal limits, typically at ________________.

a)

+1SD

b)

+2SD

c)

+3SD

d)

+4SD

74.

These are materials of known concentration used in developing a standard curve/for calibration of instrument.

a)

Calibrators

b)

Standard

c)

Controls

d)

Blank reagent

75.

These are materials used to adjust instrument accuracy by configuring an instrument to provide a result for a sample within an acceptable range.

a)

Calibrators

b)

Standard

c)

Controls

d)

Blank reagent

76.

The main cause of the error is due to improper calibration of the instrument causing an abrupt change in the mean.

a)

Shift

b)

Trend

77.

The main cause of the error is due to deterioration of reagent causing 6 or more control values continue to either increase or decrease

a)

Shift

b)

Trend

78.

It refers to the closeness of a measured value to a standard or known value.

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Specificity

d)

Sensitivity

79.

It is a measure of the smallest increment/amount of the analyte that can be distinguished by the assay.

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Specificity

d)

Sensitivity

80.

This error occurs when 4 consecutive control values exceeds +1s .

a)

41s

b)

42s

c)

14s

d)

24s

81.

Primary site of hematopoiesis in Mesoblastic stage.

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Yolk Sac

d)

Bone Marrow

82.

Primary site of hematopoiesis in Hepatic stage.

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Yolk Sac

d)

Bone Marrow

83.

Cells that is produced as early as mesoblastic stage of hematopoiesis.

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Granuloytes

e)

Megakaryocytes

84.

At what hematopoietic stage does Hgb F produced?

a)

Hepatic Stage

b)

Mesoblastic Stage

c)

Myeloid Stage

d)

Medullary Stage

85.

Which hemoglobin contains 2 alpha chains and 2 delta chains.

a)

HgB A1

b)

Hgb A2

c)

Hgb F

d)

Hgb A1c

86.

The bone marrow has two forms, which one is normally active in the production of most types of leukocytes, erythrocytes, and thrombocytes.

a)

Yellow Marrow

b)

Red marrow

87.

This is a common disorder characterized by an enlarged spleen which causes rapid and premature destruction of blood cells since the spleen becomes overactive and removes the blood cells too early and too quickly.

a)

Splenectomy

b)

Splenomegaly

c)

Hyposplenism

d)

Hypersplenism

88.

This is considered the first human hematopoietic growth factor to be identified.

a)

Thrombopoietin

b)

Erythropoietin

c)

Progesterone

d)

Growth Hormone

89.

Which of the following statement is incorrect as RBC matures?

a)

The overall diameter of the cell decreases cytoplasm changes from blue to salmon pink.

b)

The diameter of the nucleus decreases more rapidly and the size of the cell. As a result, the N:C ratio also decreases

c)

The nuclear chromatin pattern becomes coarser, clumped, and condensed as RBC matures.

d)

Nucleoli remains until the RBC matures and released in the bloodstream.

90.

Which of the following is incorrectly paired:

a)

Pronormoblasts aka Rubriblasts

b)

Basophilic Normoblasts aka Prorubricyte

c)

Polychromatophilic Normoblast aka Rubricyte

d)

Orthochromic normoblast aka Polychromatophilic erythrocyte

e)

Reticulcyte aka Diffusely Basophilic Erythrocyte

91.

Which of the following RBC maturation stage does hemoglobin first appear?

a)

Rubricyte

b)

Metarubricyte

c)

Reticulocyte

d)

Rubriblasts

92.

Which of the following RBC maturation stage is not anymore capable of mitosis as well as the last nucleated stage.

a)

Rubricyte

b)

Metarubricyte

c)

Reticulocyte

d)

Rubriblasts

93.

Which protein maintains the biconcavity of the RBCs?

a)

Glycophorin A

b)

Spectrin

c)

Actin

d)

phosphatidyl choline

94.

The loss of this important RBC component leads to loss of membrane deformability due to a decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin.

a)

ATP

b)

Sialic Acid

c)

phosphatidylethanolamine

d)

phosphatidylinositol

95.

The RBC membrane is freely permeable to:

a)

Water

b)

Na

c)

K

d)

Ca2+

96.

This pathway of RBC metabolism is the aerobic pathway.

a)

Pentose phosphate pathway

b)

Embden Meyerhoff Pathway

c)

Rapoprt-Luebering Pathway

d)

Methemoglobin Pathway

97.

It is the reference method for hemoglobin assay that is performed manually but has been adapted to automated instruments.

a)

Alkaline Agar Electrophoresis

b)

Citrate Agar Electrophoresis

c)

Cyanmethemoglbin method

d)

Copper Sulfate Method

98.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding anemia?

a)

Anemia refers to the decrease in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood which can arise if there is insufficient hemoglobin or the hemoglobin has impaired function.

b)

Anemia is operationally defined as the reduction in the hemoglobin content of blood that can be caused by a decrease in RBCs, hemoglobin, and hematocrit below the reference interval for healthy individuals of similar age, sex, and race, under similar environmental conditions.

c)

Anemia can be acute or chronic.

d)

Anemia occurs when there is a decrease in the number of leukocyte precursors in the bone marrow.

99.

A type of anemia that is usually associated with traumatic conditions such as an accident or severe injury and an anemia that may occur during or after surgery.

a)

Chronic Blood Loss Anemia

b)

Acute Blood Loss Anemia

c)

Aplastic Anemia

d)

Iron deficiency Anemoa

100.

A type of anemia that is frequently associated with disorders of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, although chronic blood loss may be related to heavy menstruation in women or urinary tract abnormalities.

a)

Chronic Blood Loss Anemia

b)

Acute Blood Loss Anemia

c)

Aplastic Anemia

d)

Iron deficiency Anemoa

101.

Which iatrogenic agents causes aplastic anemia when patients are exposed to burning gasoline for a long time.

a)

Benzene

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Organic Arsenals

d)

Phenylbutazone

102.

It is considered the congenital form of aplastic anemia.

a)

Diamond Black Fan Anemia

b)

Fanconi Anemia

c)

Pure Red Cell Aplasia

d)

Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood

103.

It is a compulsive ingestion of nonnutritive substances has association with iron deficiency.

a)

Papilledema

b)

Pica

c)

Lead Poisoning

d)

Cyanide Poisoning

104.

A full manifestation of iron deficiency anemia will exhibit ___________________ red cell pattern.

a)

hypochromic and microcytic

b)

Hyperchromic and microcytic

c)

Hyperchromic and macrocytic

d)

hypochromic and normocytic

105.

It is considered an effective early indicator of iron deficiency.

a)

Reticulocyte hemoglobin content

b)

Soluble transferrin receptor

c)

Serum Ferritin

d)

All of the given choices

106.

This type of anemia is usually due to common complication in patients with disorders as diverse as inflammation, infection, malignancy.

a)

Iron Deficiency Anemia

b)

Anemia of Chronic Inflammation/disorder

c)

Aplastic Anemia

d)

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

107.

This type of anemia is usually caused by an altered immune response resulting in production of antibody against the patient’s own erythrocytes, with subsequent hemolysis.

a)

Iron Deficiency Anemia

b)

Anemia of Chronic Inflammation/disorder

c)

Aplastic Anemia

d)

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

108.

A type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia that is due to immunoglobulin G (IgG) coating of erythrocytes with or without complement fixation.

a)

Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

b)

Cold Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

c)

Isoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

d)

Drug Induced Hemolytic Anemia

109.

A type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia that is due to IgM antibody that coats the erythrocytes causing extra-vascular hemolysis.

a)

Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

b)

Cold Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

c)

Isoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

d)

Drug Induced Hemolytic Anemia

110.

Macrocytes are usually seen in all of the following except?

a)

Liver Disease

b)

Alcoholism

c)

Megaloblastic Anemia

d)

Chronic Disease

111.

Which RBC shape is seen in abetalipoproteinemia and alcoholic cirrhosis.

a)

Echinocyte

b)

Acanthocyte

c)

Codocyte

d)

Spherocyte

112.

This are erythrocytes containing one or more vacuoles that resemble a blister on the skin as a result from the traumatic interaction of blood vessels and circulating blood such as fibrin deposits.

a)

Stomatocytes

b)

Dacryocytes

c)

Blister cells

d)

Microspherocytes

113.

When central pallor area exceeds 1/3 of the diameter of the cell, this is termed?

a)

Hyperchromia

b)

Hypochromia

c)

Normochromia

d)

None of the given choices

114.

This RBC inclusion appears round, solid- staining, dark-blue to purple inclusions, 1 to 2 mm in size formed as nuclear remnants of DNA.

a)

Heinz Bodies

b)

Howell Jolly Bodies

c)

Basophilic Stippling

d)

Pappenheimer Bodies

115.

Which stage of thrombopoiesis shows a horseshoe shape nucleus.

a)

Megakaryoblast

b)

Granular Megakaryocyte

c)

Promegakaryocyte

d)

Mature Megakaryocyte

116.

Dense granules of platelets includes all of the following except?

a)

Calcium

b)

ADP

c)

Serotonin

d)

vWF

117.

2/3 of the circulating platelets are located in the _____.

a)

Bloodstream

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Bone marrow

118.

Which granulocyte maturation stage has a kidney shaped nucleus?

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Myelocyte

c)

Promyelocyte

d)

Metamyelocyte

119.

Which granulocyte maturation stage does secondary granules occurs?

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Myelocyte

c)

Promyelocyte

d)

Metamyelocyte

120.

Which granulocyte maturation stage does primary granules occurs?

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Myelocyte

c)

Promyelocyte

d)

Metamyelocyte

121.

Which WBC type has pink to rose-violet specific granules.

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Monocytes

122.

Charcott-leyden crystals are formed from the disintegration of which WBC type?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Monocytes

123.

Responds to parasitic and allergic reaction and its concentration is normally high at night.

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Monocytes

124.

The nucleus of this cell is eccentric and exhibits cartwheel like pattern and has well-defined hof/perinuclear halo in the cytoplasm

a)

Plasmablast

b)

Plasma cell

c)

Monocyte

d)

Small Lymphocyte

125.

It refers to the inability of phagocytes to kill ingested

microorganisms.

a)

Job Syndrome

b)

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome

c)

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

d)

Toxic Granules

126.

It is a monocyte with ingested lymphocyte.

a)

Tart Cell

b)

LE cell

c)

Flame cell

d)

Hairy Cell

127.

It is a plasma cell with red to pink cytoplasm that is found in multiple myeloma.

a)

Tart Cell

b)

LE cell

c)

Flame cell

d)

Hairy Cell

128.

This lipid storage disease is mainly due to deficiency in Glucocerebrosidase or Beta-glucosidase.

a)

Gaucher's Disease

b)

Niemann-pick Disease

c)

Tay-Sachs

d)

Sandhoff

129.

This lipid storage disease is mainly due to deficiency in Sphingomyelinase.

a)

Gaucher's Disease

b)

Niemann-pick Disease

c)

Tay-Sachs

d)

Sandhoff

130.

It formed from degenerated /disintegrated nucleus of a ruptured white blood cell usually found in Chronic Lymphocytic

Leukemia (CLL).

a)

Tart Cell

b)

LE cell

c)

Flame cell

d)

Basket cell