wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term best describes the biological system responsible for producing gametes and enabling sexual reproduction in humans?

a)

Digestive system processing nutrients

b)

Genital reproduction system organs

c)

Endocrine system regulating hormones

d)

Respiratory system exchanging gases

2.

Identify the primary function of the genital reproduction system.

a)

Oxygen transport in blood

b)

Gametogenesis and fertilization

c)

Detoxification of xenobiotics

d)

Thermoregulation of the body

3.

Which component is NOT typically considered part of the genital reproduction system?

a)

Lungs or bronchi

b)

Ovaries or testes

c)

Uterus or prostate

d)

External genitalia

4.

In health sciences, which process directly depends on the genital reproduction system?

a)

Protein synthesis in ribosomes

b)

Gluconeogenesis in the liver

c)

Meiosis producing gametes

d)

Gas exchange in alveoli

5.

Which statement best distinguishes the genital reproduction system from the endocrine system?

a)

Both primarily exchange gases

b)

One produces hormones only

c)

Both digest and absorb nutrients

d)

One forms and transports gametes

6.

A clinician evaluates infertility. Which system is the main focus?

a)

Musculoskeletal system

b)

Genital reproduction system

c)

Integumentary system

d)

Respiratory system structures

7.

Which outcome would be most impaired by dysfunction of the genital reproduction system?

a)

Successful fertilization capacity

b)

Effective nutrient absorption

c)

Adequate lymph fluid return

d)

Maintaining blood pH homeostasis

8.

Select the best description of 'genital' in medical terminology.

a)

Pertaining to digestive tract

b)

Pertaining to lungs and airways

c)

Pertaining to reproductive organs

d)

Pertaining to skeletal muscles

9.

Which professional field most directly studies the genital reproduction system?

a)

Pulmonology subspecialty

b)

Gynecology and andrology

c)

Neurology discipline

d)

Gastroenterology specialty

10.

A textbook cover reads “Genital Reproduction System.” What core topics will likely be emphasized?

a)

Gas diffusion physiology

b)

Gametogenesis and mating

c)

Renal filtration mechanisms

d)

Immunoglobulin synthesis

11.

Which duct system is associated with male internal structures during development?

a)

Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts

b)

Urogenital sinus derivatives

c)

Accessory gland primordia

d)

Paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts

12.

Which hormone primarily directs male external genitalia differentiation in weeks 8–12?

a)

Estrogen (E2)

b)

Progesterone (P4)

c)

Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH)

d)

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

13.

AMH secreted by Sertoli cells primarily causes which developmental effect?

a)

Regression of Müllerian ducts

b)

Promotion of Wolffian ducts

c)

Masculinization of external genitalia

d)

Formation of accessory glands

14.

During the indifferent stage (weeks 4–7), which structure pair remains undifferentiated?

a)

Gonadal ridges and ducts

b)

Seminal vesicles and prostate

c)

Labia majora and minora

d)

Penile urethra and glans

15.

Which pathway outcome is linked to paramesonephric (Müllerian) duct fate?

a)

Uterus, fallopian tubes, upper vagina

b)

Epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles

c)

Prostate, bulbourethral glands, urethra

d)

Penile shaft, scrotum, glans penis

16.

Which clinical correlation most directly involves failure of testicular descent?

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Cryptorchidism

c)

Müllerian agenesis

d)

Hypospadias

17.

Which structure is homologous to the male scrotum in external genitalia?

a)

Labia minora

b)

Vestibular bulbs

c)

Clitoral glans

d)

Labia majora

18.

Which accessory gland develops from the urogenital sinus in males?

a)

Epididymis

b)

Seminal vesicles

c)

Testis

d)

Prostate gland

19.

During descent of the gonads, which ligament guides ovarian positioning?

a)

Broad ligament proper

b)

Gubernaculum of testis

c)

Ovarian ligament and round ligament

d)

Suspensory ligament of ovary

20.

Which arterial supply primarily serves the penis alongside venous drainage and innervation?

a)

Obturator artery

b)

Inferior epigastric artery

c)

Femoral circumflex artery

d)

Internal pudendal artery

21.

Which structure primarily produces ova in the female reproductive system?

a)

Vagina generates secondary oocytes

b)

Cervix forms Graafian oocytes

c)

Uterus secretes primary oocytes

d)

Ovaries produce mature oocytes

22.

Which pathway connects the ovary to the uterine cavity for gamete transport?

a)

Vaginal canal propels zygotes proximally

b)

Uterine body carries spermatozoa

c)

Uterine (fallopian) tubes conduct oocytes

d)

Cervical canal transfers embryos distally

23.

Which external female structure collectively refers to the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, and vestibule?

a)

Endometrium termed mucosa

b)

External genitalia termed vulva

c)

Pelvic floor termed perineum

d)

Uterine cervix termed os externum

24.

Which follicular stage is characterized by a fluid-filled antrum?

a)

Graafian mature follicles

b)

Primary preantral follicles

c)

Primordial ovarian follicles

d)

Secondary (antral) follicles

25.

During spermatogenesis, which cells directly differentiate into spermatozoa following spermiogenesis?

a)

Spermatids become spermatozoa

b)

Spermatogonia form Sertoli cells

c)

Leydig cells produce spermatids

d)

Primary spermatocytes yield ova

26.

Which hormone is chiefly responsible for male reproductive regulation and secondary sex characteristics?

a)

Testosterone regulates male traits

b)

Estrogen drives male features

c)

Prolactin induces ejaculation

d)

Progesterone controls spermiation

27.

Which axis coordinates hormonal control of male reproduction involving GnRH, LH, and FSH?

a)

Sympathetic–Adrenal–Gonadal axis

b)

Pituitary–Thyroid–Testicular axis

c)

Cortico–Limbic–Pituitary axis

d)

Hypothalamic–Pituitary–Gonadal axis

28.

Which component primarily contributes the largest volume to semen?

a)

Bulbourethral mucus dominant share

b)

Testicular plasma principal fraction

c)

Prostatic secretions minor component

d)

Seminal vesicle fluid major component

29.

Which event is part of the stepwise physiological sequence of ejaculation during the sympathetic phase?

a)

Bulbospongiosus relaxation only

b)

Vasodilation sustaining tumescence

c)

Neural control via parasympathetics

d)

Transport during emission phase

30.

Approximately what proportion of semen volume is contributed by the prostate?

a)

Bulbourethral glands roughly five to ten percent

b)

Seminal vesicles around sixty to seventy percent

c)

Testes contribute approximately fifty percent

d)

Prostatic contribution about twenty-five to thirty percent

31.

Which phase of the menstrual cycle typically spans days 15 to 28?

a)

Follicular phase (days 1–14)

b)

Ovulation phase (day 14)

c)

Luteal phase (days 15–28)

d)

Menstrual phase (days 1–5)

32.

Ovulation most commonly occurs on which day of a typical 28‑day cycle?

a)

Day 10

b)

Day 21

c)

Day 14

d)

Day 18

33.

Which endocrine axis integrates hormonal control of the menstrual cycle in the 'Integrated Flow (HPO–Ovary–Endometrium)'?

a)

HPT axis: hypothalamus–pituitary–thyroid

b)

HPG axis: hypothalamus–pituitary–gonad

c)

HPO axis: hypothalamus–pituitary–ovary

d)

HPA axis: hypothalamus–pituitary–adrenal

34.

Which process is defined as the making of the ovum?

a)

Spermatogenesis

b)

Oogenesis

c)

Implantation

d)

Lactogenesis

35.

During which days does the menstrual phase commonly occur in the next cycle timeline?

a)

Days 5–10 of current cycle

b)

Days 10–14 of next cycle

c)

Days 1–5 of next cycle

d)

Days 20–28 of next cycle

36.

Which section would most likely map where contraceptives act within the menstrual cycle?

a)

Practical pearls and tips

b)

Mechanism map of contraceptive action

c)

Big‑picture cycle features table

d)

Timeline (day‑by‑day blocks)

37.

Which stage immediately follows fertilization in early pregnancy development?

a)

Implantation

b)

Organogenesis

c)

Menstruation

d)

Lactation

38.

Which maternal system adaptation is highlighted during pregnancy in 'Maternal Physiological Adaptations'?

a)

Respiratory and hematologic changes

b)

Reduced cardiac output

c)

Skeletal muscle hypertrophy

d)

Thyroid gland atrophy

39.

Which hormones group is emphasized as placental and fetal during pregnancy?

a)

Placental and fetal hormones

b)

Thyroid hormones only

c)

Pancreatic peptide hormones

d)

Catecholamines mainly

40.

Which lactation topic details phases of milk production?

a)

Benefits of breastfeeding

b)

Composition of human milk

c)

Lactogenesis phases

d)

Neuroendocrine reflexes

41.

Which drug class is primarily used to stimulate follicular development in infertility treatment?

a)

Selective estrogen modulators for ovulation

b)

Clomiphene citrate for follicular growth

c)

PDE5 inhibitors for vascular supply

d)

Progesterone-only agents for luteal support

42.

Which mechanism best explains how combined oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy?

a)

Enhance LH surge and ovulation

b)

Inhibit GnRH to suppress ovulation

c)

Increase uterine contractility during luteal phase

d)

Stimulate endometrial proliferation for implantation

43.

Alpha-blockers are most appropriately indicated for which prostate-related condition?

a)

Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

b)

Prostate cancer with bone metastasis

c)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia causing obstruction

d)

Acute bacterial prostatitis with fever

44.

Which statement correctly describes PDE5 inhibitors in erectile dysfunction therapy?

a)

Directly depolarize smooth muscle cells

b)

Increase penile arterial inflow via cGMP

c)

Block nitric oxide synthesis in corpora

d)

Enhance sympathetic tone during erection

45.

Which hormone replacement therapy component primarily addresses vasomotor symptoms in menopausal patients?

a)

Progestin therapy for bone loss

b)

Testosterone therapy for libido

c)

Oxytocin therapy for sleep

d)

Estrogen therapy for hot flashes

46.

Which drug promotes uterine contractions to induce labor?

a)

Tocolytics for myometrial relaxation

b)

GnRH analogs for cervical dilation

c)

Oxytocin for uterine activation

d)

Alpha-blockers for uterine tone

47.

Which agent class suppresses preterm labor by relaxing the uterus?

a)

Alpha-blockers for uterine blood flow

b)

Tocolytics for myometrial relaxation

c)

Oxytocics for contractile force

d)

Clomiphene for cervical ripening

48.

Which STI is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

a)

Syphilis with spirochete etiology

b)

Gonorrhea with gram-negative diplococci

c)

Chlamydia with intracellular pathogen

d)

Trichomoniasis with flagellated protozoa

49.

Which contraceptive component is typically a progestin used in hormonal contraception?

a)

Clomiphene or letrozole

b)

Levonorgestrel or medroxyprogesterone

c)

Oxytocin or carboprost tromethamine

d)

Ethinylestradiol or mestranol

50.

Which disorder is most directly treated by 5α-reductase inhibitors?

a)

Erectile dysfunction with vascular cause

b)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia with enlargement

c)

Testicular torsion with acute pain

d)

Prostatitis due to bacterial infection

51.

Which bacterium is the causative agent of Chlamydia in the reproductive tract?

a)

Chlamydia trachomatis bacterium

b)

Gardnerella vaginalis anaerobe

c)

Haemophilus ducreyi coccobacillus

d)

Treponema pallidum spirochete

52.

Syphilis is primarily caused by which pathogen?

a)

Treponema pallidum spirochete

b)

Chlamydia trachomatis pathogen

c)

Candida albicans fungus

d)

Herpes simplex virus type

53.

Bacterial vaginosis commonly involves which organism?

a)

Papillomaviridae virions

b)

Haemophilus ducreyi pathogen

c)

Gardnerella vaginalis bacterium

d)

Chlamydia trachomatis agent

54.

Chancroid is associated with which bacterial species?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae species

b)

Treponema pallidum species

c)

Haemophilus ducreyi species

d)

Gardnerella vaginalis species

55.

Human Papillomavirus belongs to which virus family?

a)

Lentivirus genus group

b)

Retroviridae family group

c)

Herpesviridae family group

d)

Papillomaviridae family group

56.

Herpes simplex virus is classified under which viral family?

a)

Papillomaviridae viral family

b)

Adenoviridae viral family

c)

Retroviridae viral family

d)

Herpesviridae viral family

57.

Human Immunodeficiency Virus is part of which broader taxonomic group?

a)

Herpesviridae family classification

b)

Retroviridae family classification

c)

Papillomaviridae family classification

d)

Orthomyxoviridae family classification

58.

Within Retroviridae, HIV is categorized under which genus?

a)

Lentivirus genus grouping

b)

Flavivirus genus grouping

c)

Alphavirus genus grouping

d)

Orthomyxovirus genus grouping

59.

Candidiasis represents which type of reproductive tract infection?

a)

Fungal infection category

b)

Protozoal infection category

c)

Viral infection category

d)

Bacterial infection category

60.

Trichomoniasis is best described as what class of pathogen?

a)

Protozoal parasite class

b)

Fungal yeast class

c)

Bacterial coccus class

d)

Viral capsid class

61.

During weeks 3–7 of embryonic life, which factor primarily directs the development toward male or female pathways?

a)

Chromosomal sex and SRY presence

b)

Fetal adrenal androgen output

c)

Placental hormones and hCG levels

d)

Maternal estrogen and progesterone

62.

Primordial germ cells originate from which embryonic structure before migrating to the genital ridges?

a)

Yolk sac endoderm region

b)

Intermediate mesoderm layer

c)

Cloacal membrane ectoderm

d)

Paramesonephric duct tissue

63.

Failure of primordial germ cell migration is most likely to result in which outcome?

a)

Streak gonads such as in Turner

b)

Adrenal cortical hyperplasia

c)

Persistent Müllerian structures

d)

Prostatic utricle enlargement

64.

Which molecular signal is associated with paired genital ridge formation around weeks 4–5?

a)

SF1 steroidogenic factor one

b)

HOX homeobox gene

c)

WT1 Wilms tumor gene

d)

SOX9 Sertoli cell factor

65.

Loss of SF1 function is clinically correlated with which consequence?

a)

Adrenal and gonadal failure

b)

Renal agenesis and oligohydramnios

c)

Pulmonary hypoplasia and distress

d)

Thyroid aplasia and cretinism

66.

At the indifferent gonad stage (weeks 6–7), which gene is key for gonadal development?

a)

WT1 with LHX9 activity

b)

AR with DHT signaling

c)

FOXL2 ovarian determinant

d)

AMH anti-Müllerian hormone

67.

Sexual differentiation begins after week 7. Which gene on the Y chromosome initiates testis development?

a)

HOXA10 with PAX2 control

b)

FOXL2 with CYP19 expression

c)

WNT4 with RSPO1 activation

d)

SRY with SOX9 induction

68.

Which hormone produced by Sertoli cells causes Müllerian duct regression in male embryos?

a)

Gonadotropin releasing hormone

b)

Dihydrotestosterone

c)

Anti-Müllerian hormone

d)

Testosterone hormone

69.

Dihydrotestosterone is essential for the development of which structures?

a)

Wolffian duct derivatives

b)

External male genitalia

c)

Placental chorionic villi

d)

Ovarian follicle cells

70.

Which embryological origin correctly describes gonadal development?

a)

Somites to mesonephric ducts

b)

Intermediate mesoderm to gonadal ridges

c)

Neural crest to genital tubercle

d)

Endoderm to paramesonephric ducts

71.

Which axis regulates gonadal hormone secretion postnatally with feedback to hypothalamus and pituitary?

a)

Hypothalamic–Pituitary–Gonadal axis

b)

Hypothalamic–Pituitary–Thyroid axis

c)

Renin–Angiotensin–Aldosterone system

d)

Sympathetic–Adrenal–Medullary axis

72.

Which clinical correlation is linked to WT1 mutation during indifferent gonad development?

a)

Denys–Drash syndrome

b)

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

c)

Kallmann syndrome

d)

Androgen insensitivity

73.

In females, the gonads produce which primary gametes and hormones?

a)

Sperm, testosterone, inhibin

b)

Sperm, estrogen, progesterone

c)

Ova, estrogen, progesterone

d)

Ova, testosterone, cortisol

74.

During weeks 5–7 of embryonic development, the gonadal ridge is best described as containing which structures that invade the mesoderm?

a)

Differentiated Leydig and Sertoli cells

b)

Mature ovarian follicles and stroma

c)

Definitive seminiferous tubules and rete

d)

Primitive sex cords that invade mesoderm

75.

Which statement correctly defines a bipotential gonad at the indifferent stage?

a)

Contains fully formed ovarian follicles

b)

Structurally identical to mature testes

c)

Already producing testosterone hormone

d)

Not committed to testis or ovary fate

76.

Failure of primordial germ cell migration most likely results in which gonadal outcome?

a)

Hyperplastic functional bilateral testes

b)

Non-functional fibrous streak gonads

c)

Normal ovaries with mature follicles

d)

Ambiguous gonads secreting androgens

77.

Which key gene set is highlighted as important in early gonadal development at the indifferent stage?

a)

GATA4 TBX5 NKX2-5 HAND1

b)

FGFR3 MAPK1 KRAS MEK1

c)

SOX2 NANOG OCT4 TET1

d)

WT1 SF1 DAX1 LHX9

78.

Primordial germ cells enter the primitive sex cords at the indifferent stage. What is the primary significance of this step?

a)

Determines external genitalia formation

b)

Triggers Müllerian duct regression

c)

Initiates spermatogenesis immediately

d)

Critical for gonadal viability establishment

79.

Activation of the SRY gene product most directly influences which developmental pathway of the bipotential gonad?

a)

Müllerian duct persistence pathway

b)

External genitalia feminization

c)

Ovarian folliculogenesis pathway

d)

Testicular differentiation pathway

80.

Which histologic feature characterizes the indifferent gonad in early development?

a)

Mature seminiferous architecture

b)

Primitive cords with loose stroma

c)

Distinct medulla–cortex partition

d)

Organized follicular compartments

81.

In the provided diagram, which duct system persists in the male and degenerates in the female?

a)

Cloacal duct persists in both

b)

Ureteric duct persists in female

c)

Müllerian duct persists in male

d)

Wolffian duct persists in male

82.

Which statement accurately contrasts duct fate between typical male and female development shown in the diagram?

a)

Both sexes retain Müllerian ducts equally

b)

Both sexes degenerate Wolffian ducts

c)

Male retains Wolffian ducts; female retains Müllerian

d)

Male retains Müllerian ducts; female retains Wolffian

83.

Which structure labeled near the developing testes in the male diagram is the future site of sperm storage and maturation?

a)

Epididymis adjacent to testes

b)

Metanephric kidney cortex

c)

Urinary bladder trigone

d)

Degenerated Müllerian remnant

84.

Which gene on the Y chromosome initiates testis development by producing Testis-Determining Factor?

a)

FGF9 gene in gonads

b)

SOX9 gene on autosomes

c)

SRY gene on Y chromosome

d)

AMH gene on X chromosome

85.

Sertoli cells primarily secrete which substance that causes regression of paramesonephric ducts?

a)

Testosterone synthesis

b)

DHT conversion enzyme

c)

MIS or AMH secretion

d)

LH hormone secretion

86.

By approximately which developmental time do Leydig cells differentiate under hCG influence?

a)

By week 4 of gestation

b)

By week 16 of gestation

c)

By birth of the infant

d)

By week 8 of gestation

87.

Testosterone maintains which ducts that develop into epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles?

a)

Allantoic duct derivatives

b)

Müllerian ducts structures

c)

Wolffian ducts structures

d)

Paramesonephric ducts

88.

Which androgen is derived from testosterone via 5α-reductase and is crucial for external male genitalia?

a)

Androstenedione via aromatase

b)

Dihydrotestosterone via 5α-reductase

c)

Estradiol via CYP19A1

d)

Progesterone via 3β-HSD

89.

Match each structure with its embryonic origin. Which pairing is correct?

a)

Leydig cells — mesenchymal cells

b)

Rete testis — mesonephric ducts

c)

Sertoli cells — medullary sex cords

d)

Seminiferous tubules — coelomic epithelium

90.

Which hormonal influence is associated with development of seminiferous tubules?

a)

MIS and AMH secretion

b)

SRY and SOX9 signaling

c)

hCG and LH stimulation

d)

PGD2 and FGF9 inhibition

91.

In Swyer syndrome, what phenotype is expected in an individual with a 46,XY karyotype?

a)

Ambiguous genitalia without uterus

b)

Female external genitalia develop

c)

Male internal and external genitalia

d)

Normal male phenotype with infertility

92.

Which sequence best summarizes the normal male pathway from SRY activation?

a)

SRY activates MIS, uterus forms

b)

SRY leads to testis, testosterone, Wolffian ducts

c)

SRY suppresses Leydig, Müllerian ducts persist

d)

SRY causes DHT absence, female genitalia

93.

In Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome, which statement is most accurate?

a)

Testes absent, testosterone not produced

b)

MIS absent, Müllerian ducts persist

c)

Androgen receptor defect, female external genitalia

d)

Wolffian ducts fully develop, male phenotype

94.

Which signaling molecules primarily drive ovarian development in XX embryos when SRY is absent?

a)

WNT4 and FOXL2

b)

AMH and DHH

c)

SOX9 and SF1

d)

RSPO1 and MIS

95.

During normal ovarian development, what happens to medullary cords?

a)

They form primordial follicles

b)

They proliferate rapidly

c)

They regress gradually

d)

They become Müllerian ducts

96.

Which structure arises from cortical cords enclosing oogonia?

a)

Theca cell layers

b)

Primordial follicles

c)

Genital ridge epithelium

d)

Müllerian ducts

97.

In the default female pathway, absence of MIS leads to persistence of which ducts?

a)

Common cloacal ducts

b)

Wolffian ducts

c)

Mesonephric ducts

d)

Paramesonephric ducts

98.

Which embryonic origin correctly matches theca cells?

a)

Intermediate mesoderm

b)

Mesenchyme origin

c)

Cortical sex cords

d)

Cortical epithelium

99.

Which hormone primarily stimulates granulosa cell development?

a)

Androgen hormone

b)

MIS hormone

c)

LH hormone

d)

FSH hormone

100.

A patient with WNT4 gene mutation most likely presents with which finding?

a)

Ambiguous external genitalia

b)

Normal ovaries with regular menses

c)

Absent uterus and upper vagina

d)

Functional Müllerian structures

101.

Which karyotype is characteristic of Turner syndrome described in the material?

a)

47,XXY trisomy

b)

45,X monosomy

c)

46,XY normal

d)

45,XX mosaic

102.

Which hormonal profile is typical in Turner syndrome due to reduced estrogen feedback?

a)

Normal FSH with low LH

b)

Elevated FSH and LH

c)

Suppressed FSH and LH

d)

Elevated MIS and DHT

103.

In WNT4 mutation, why are external genitalia typically normal?

a)

Excess MIS secretion present

b)

No SRY-driven testis pathway

c)

Mesonephric ducts dominate development

d)

Hyperandrogenism promotes virilization

104.

Which factor initiates testis development in an XY embryo during gonadal differentiation?

a)

Cortical cord formation

b)

FOXL2 transcription program

c)

SRY-mediated SOX9 activation

d)

WNT4 signaling cascade

105.

In androgen insensitivity syndrome, which structure regresses due to Sertoli cell secretion of MIS?

a)

Wolffian ducts

b)

External genitalia

c)

Müllerian ducts

d)

Cortical cords

106.

A newborn with ambiguous genitalia has a 46,XY karyotype, normal testosterone, and absent Müllerian structures. Which defect best explains female-appearing external genitalia?

a)

5α-reductase deficiency

b)

Androgen receptor defect

c)

SRY gene deletion

d)

WNT4 gene mutation

107.

Which pathway is most associated with ovarian differentiation in XX embryos?

a)

SRY and SOX9 cascade

b)

WNT4 with FOXL2 pathway

c)

MIS-driven duct regression

d)

Leydig cell testosterone surge

108.

What is the primary role of SOX9 in gonadal differentiation?

a)

Promote cortical cords in ovary

b)

Activate Sertoli cell development

c)

Induce FOXL2 expression

d)

Maintain Müllerian duct patency

109.

Which finding distinguishes 5α-reductase deficiency from androgen insensitivity syndrome in a 46,XY patient?

a)

Low circulating testosterone levels

b)

Absent Müllerian structures

c)

Intact Wolffian duct derivatives

d)

Female-appearing external genitalia

110.

SRY gene deletion most likely results in which outcome for gonadal development?

a)

Under-virilization at puberty

b)

Partial androgen insensitivity

c)

Complete gonadal dysgenesis

d)

Exaggerated Leydig cell function

111.

Which cell type produces MIS to cause regression of Müllerian ducts?

a)

Theca cells

b)

Leydig cells

c)

Sertoli cells

d)

Granulosa cells

112.

In a 46,XY fetus with functional androgen receptors, what do Wolffian ducts typically form under testosterone influence?

a)

Uterus and fallopian tubes

b)

Ovarian cortical cords

c)

Labia majora and clitoris

d)

Epididymis and vas deferens

113.

Which statement best explains female-appearing external genitalia in complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?

a)

Androgens cannot act at receptors

b)

MIS fails to regress Müllerian ducts

c)

Testosterone synthesis is absent

d)

WNT4 drives testis formation

114.

During weeks 5–7 of embryogenesis, which paired duct systems run alongside the mesonephros in all embryos?

a)

Thyroglossal and branchial ducts

b)

Ureteric and cloacal ducts

c)

Mesonephric and Müllerian ducts

d)

Hepatic and pancreatic ducts

115.

In XY embryos, what primary signal from the early testis triggers regression of Müllerian ducts?

a)

Anti-Müllerian hormone from Sertoli cells

b)

Testosterone from Leydig cells

c)

Dihydrotestosterone from skin

d)

FSH from pituitary gonadotrophs

116.

Which hormone preserves and differentiates Wolffian ducts into male internal structures?

a)

Prolactin via Jak-Stat signaling

b)

Progesterone via PR activation

c)

Estrogen via ER-alpha binding

d)

Testosterone via androgen receptors

117.

In XX embryos, absence of significant AMH and testicular testosterone leads to which outcome?

a)

Formation of prostate and epididymis

b)

Persistence and fusion of Müllerian ducts

c)

Development of seminal vesicles and vas deferens

d)

Rapid differentiation of Wolffian ducts

118.

Which structure is a derivative of the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct in males and primarily functions in sperm maturation and storage?

a)

Ureter draining the kidney

b)

Prostatic urethra conducting semen

c)

Seminal vesicle secreting fructose

d)

Epididymis with long coiled tube

119.

Topographic remodeling of Wolffian derivatives produces which regional specialization for peristaltic propulsion during emission?

a)

Epididymis with highly coiled tubules

b)

Seminal vesicles with alkaline fluid

c)

Ejaculatory ducts entering prostatic urethra

d)

Ductus deferens with thick muscular wall

120.

Which embryologic source gives rise to the ejaculatory ducts?

a)

Distal mesonephric duct segments

b)

Urogenital sinus endoderm

c)

Paramesonephric duct remnants

d)

Cloacal membrane ectoderm

121.

Without testosterone in XX embryos, what happens to Wolffian ducts?

a)

Involution via apoptosis

b)

Transformation into Müllerian ducts

c)

Persistence with gland outgrowth

d)

Hyperplasia with coiling

122.

Which gene family is noted for patterning tubes such as uterus versus cervix during weeks 6–12?

a)

SOX17–FOX A gut genes

b)

MYOD1–MYF5 myogenic genes

c)

PAX2–8 nephric genes

d)

HOXA9–13 patterning genes

123.

What is the overall functional rationale of the Wolffian duct system in males after differentiation?

a)

Low-resistance conduit for sperm storage and emission

b)

High-pressure vessel for hormonal delivery

c)

Absorptive surface for nutrient uptake

d)

Barrier epithelium for immune protection

124.

Which hormone causes regression of the Müllerian ducts during typical male development?

a)

Estradiol from granulosa cells

b)

Dihydrotestosterone from Leydig cells

c)

Progesterone from the placenta

d)

Anti-Müllerian hormone from Sertoli cells

125.

In androgen insensitivity syndrome (46,XY), which developmental outcome is expected?

a)

Ambiguous external genitalia with uterus

b)

Normal male internal tract with uterus

c)

Male external genitalia with prostate

d)

Female external genitalia with no uterus

126.

Which step requires 5α-reductase for normal male external genitalia formation?

a)

Stabilization of Wolffian ducts by AMH

b)

Migration of testes to scrotum

c)

Secretion of AMH by Sertoli cells

d)

Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

127.

A patient with 5α-reductase deficiency at birth is most likely to present with which finding?

a)

Female external genitalia with functional uterus

b)

Normal male external genitalia with absent Wolffian ducts

c)

Ambiguous genitalia with complete Müllerian regression failure

d)

Under-virilized external genitalia with preserved Wolffian ducts

128.

Which embryologic structure develops into epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles?

a)

Urogenital sinus under AMH influence

b)

Allantois under progesterone influence

c)

Wolffian ducts under testosterone influence

d)

Müllerian ducts under estrogen influence

129.

In XX embryos, what allows paramesonephric ducts to persist and form uterovaginal canal?

a)

High AMH and high androgen levels

b)

Absence of AMH and low androgen levels

c)

Testosterone surge and Wolffian stabilization

d)

Presence of DHT and HOXA11 suppression

130.

Which HOX gene is most associated with development of the upper vagina and cervix?

a)

HOXA13 guiding upper vagina and cervix

b)

HOXA11 guiding lower uterus and cervix

c)

HOXA9 guiding fallopian tubes

d)

HOXA10 guiding uterine body alone

131.

Failure of midline fusion and resorption of the Müllerian septum most likely leads to which anomaly?

a)

Didelphys with complete duplication

b)

Unicornuate uterus with one duct

c)

MRKH syndrome with agenesis

d)

Septate uterus with resorption failure

132.

Which clinical feature distinguishes AIS from 5α-reductase deficiency in adolescence?

a)

Regression of Müllerian ducts ceases in AIS at puberty

b)

Partial virilization at puberty in 5α-reductase deficiency

c)

Development of uterus in AIS during puberty

d)

Formation of prostate in both conditions

133.

Where are testes commonly located in complete AIS?

a)

In abdomen or inguinal canal

b)

In scrotum with normal descent

c)

Adjacent to functional uterus

d)

Retroperitoneal near kidneys

134.

Which embryologic source gives rise to the fallopian (uterine) tubes?

a)

Caudal Müllerian fusion zone

b)

Caudal Müllerian sinus induction

c)

Fused Müllerian uterovaginal canal

d)

Cranial, unfused Müllerian ducts

135.

What is the primary functional rationale of the cervix in reproductive physiology?

a)

Barrier and selective mucus

b)

Oocyte capture and transport

c)

Implantation and gestation

d)

Birth canal epithelium

136.

In Müllerian agenesis (MRKH), which clinical feature is most characteristic?

a)

Absent uterus with upper vagina

b)

Two uteri with two cervices

c)

Single-horn uterus with rudimentary horn

d)

Septum dividing the uterine cavity

137.

Which uterine anomaly is most strongly linked to early pregnancy loss?

a)

Septate uterus with fibromuscular septum

b)

Unicornuate uterus with agenesis

c)

Uterus didelphys with non-fusion

d)

Bicornuate uterus with partial fusion

138.

Which mnemonic correctly pairs Wolffian derivatives in males?

a)

SEED: Skene glands, Epididymis, Ejaculatory ducts, Deferens

b)

F-U-V: Fallopian tubes, Uterus, Vestibular glands

c)

F-U-V: Fallopian tubes, Uterus, Upper vagina

d)

SEED: Seminal vesicles, Epididymis, Ejaculatory ducts, Ductus deferens

139.

Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) primarily targets which structure during sexual differentiation?

a)

Müllerian duct regression

b)

Urogenital sinus budding

c)

External genitalia virilization

d)

Wolffian duct maintenance

140.

Testosterone’s principal role in duct development is best summarized as:

a)

Induces prostate budding

b)

Virilizes external genitalia

c)

Regresses Müllerian ducts

d)

Maintains Wolffian ducts (SEED)

141.

Which statement about dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is most accurate?

a)

Not needed for duct decisions

b)

Inhibits Sertoli cell AMH

c)

Primarily regresses Müllerian ducts

d)

Directly maintains Wolffian ducts

142.

Which accessory gland arises from urogenital sinus endoderm and produces citrate and PSA?

a)

Skene gland with estrogen modulation

b)

Bartholin gland with estrogen modulation

c)

Bulbourethral gland with androgen dependence

d)

Prostate with androgen-dependent budding

143.

Which female accessory gland is homologous to the bulbourethral gland and provides vaginal lubrication?

a)

Prostate derived from sinus endoderm

b)

Skene gland from paraurethral endoderm

c)

Bartholin gland from vestibular endoderm

d)

Seminal vesicle from Wolffian duct

144.

Which cell type secretes Anti-Müllerian Hormone during fetal gonadal development?

a)

Theca cells in ovary

b)

Leydig cells in testes

c)

Sertoli cells in testes

d)

Granulosa cells in ovary

145.

Primary target of Anti-Müllerian Hormone in embryogenesis is which duct system?

a)

Müllerian duct system

b)

Metanephric duct

c)

Wolffian duct system

d)

Urogenital sinus

146.

Testosterone maintains and differentiates Wolffian derivatives. Which structure is NOT a Wolffian derivative?

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Ejaculatory ducts

c)

Ductus deferens

d)

Epididymis segment

147.

Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone requires which enzyme?

a)

17β-HSD enzyme

b)

Aromatase enzyme

c)

5α-reductase enzyme

d)

11β-hydroxylase

148.

Under DHT influence, which targets undergo virilization in male development?

a)

Renal collecting ducts

b)

Internal Müllerian organs

c)

External genitalia structures

d)

Anterior pituitary tissue

149.

Deficiency of 5α-reductase most likely leads to which phenotype at birth?

a)

Complete Müllerian agenesis

b)

Ambiguous external genitalia

c)

Absent Wolffian derivatives

d)

Primary ovarian formation

150.

In the absence of AMH and androgens, which female ductal derivatives persist from the Müllerian system?

a)

Uterus and cervix

b)

Seminal vesicles only

c)

Ejaculatory duct pair

d)

Epididymis and prostate

Similar Resources on Wayground

UNIT 6 (The Newborn)

153 questions

UNIT 6 (The Newborn)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University