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Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the antacid mechanism of action for these agents?

a)

React with gastric acid to form neutral salts

b)

Inhibit proton pumps to reduce acid secretion

c)

Increase gastric acid secretion via parietal cells

d)

Block histamine H2 receptors in the stomach

2.

Magnesium hydroxide is characterized by which property compared with Maalox?

a)

Rapid-acting with high neutralizing capacity

b)

Slow-acting with low neutralizing capacity

c)

Primarily binds pepsin to facilitate healing

d)

Minimal effect on gastric acid neutralization

3.

Which antacid commonly causes diarrhea and is often combined with aluminum compounds to balance bowel effects?

a)

Magnesium hydroxide

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Maalox (aluminum)

d)

Bismuth subsalicylate

4.

A patient using calcium carbonate develops constipation and milk-alkali syndrome risk. What contributes to this risk?

a)

Excess calcium intake with chronic high doses

b)

Magnesium accumulation in renal failure

c)

Histamine receptor blockade

d)

Aluminum binding of dietary phosphate

5.

Maalox (aluminum compound) has which distinguishing affinity that can lead to hypophosphatemia?

a)

High affinity for bicarbonate

b)

High affinity for magnesium salts

c)

High affinity for calcium ions

d)

High affinity for phosphates

6.

Which timing maximizes antacid effectiveness while minimizing interactions?

a)

Take in the morning regardless of meals

b)

Take immediately with high-fat meals

c)

Take 1–3 hours after meals and at bedtime

d)

Take only on an empty stomach before meals

7.

For patients with renal impairment, which caution is most appropriate with magnesium hydroxide?

a)

Avoid due to risk of magnesium toxicity

b)

Increase dose to overcome acid rebound

c)

Combine with calcium carbonate routinely

d)

Use with histamine blockers to reduce risk

8.

Which assessment should nurses perform before initiating calcium carbonate therapy?

a)

Evaluate calcium levels and kidney stone history

b)

Measure pepsin activity and bile salts

c)

Assess hemoglobin and platelet counts

d)

Test for H. pylori serology routinely

9.

Which common symptom relief timeframe is expected after taking these antacids with food?

a)

Within 20–30 minutes

b)

Immediately within 1 minute

c)

Not until the next day

d)

After 2–3 hours only

10.

Which adverse effect is shared by magnesium hydroxide and Maalox but differs in bowel pattern?

a)

Sodium loading; diarrhea vs constipation

b)

Hypokalemia; vomiting vs nausea

c)

Hypermagnesemia; urticaria vs rash

d)

Hypocalcemia; dizziness vs vertigo

11.

Why should antacids be administered separately from many medications by at least 2 hours?

a)

They raise systemic pH significantly

b)

They can reduce absorption of other drugs

c)

They cause immediate drug degradation

d)

They directly increase drug potency

12.

Which patient counseling point is correct for calcium carbonate use to reduce acid reflux-related discomfort?

a)

Release of CO2 may cause belching

b)

Works best only on an empty stomach

c)

Suppresses acid production via H2 blockade

d)

Prevents GERD progression permanently

13.

A patient reports chronic indigestion and plans long-term antacid use. What is the best strategy?

a)

Combine all three antacids daily long-term

b)

Increase antacid dose progressively over months

c)

Rely on bedtime dosing indefinitely

d)

Use short-term and consider H2 blockers or PPIs

14.

Which nursing assessment is shared across antacid therapies to minimize complications?

a)

Perform neurological reflex testing

b)

Check hepatic enzymes weekly

c)

Measure fasting insulin levels

d)

Review current medications for interactions

15.

Which side effect is most associated with chronic high-dose calcium carbonate use?

a)

Severe hypomagnesemia with arrhythmia

b)

Profound metabolic acidosis universally

c)

Peptic ulcer perforation routinely

d)

Milk-alkali syndrome with hypercalcemia

16.

Maalox is slow-acting and can facilitate ulcer healing primarily by which action?

a)

Binding to pepsin and protecting mucosa

b)

Stimulating gastric acid secretion strongly

c)

Blocking proton pumps in parietal cells

d)

Increasing systemic bicarbonate levels

17.

Which instruction regarding meals is consistent across these antacids?

a)

Take after meals and before bed

b)

Take strictly with high-protein meals

c)

Take only before meals and skip bedtime

d)

Avoid taking near any food intake

18.

In patients with heart failure or hypertension, which antacid-related issue requires monitoring?

a)

Sodium loading from formulations

b)

Excess pepsin activation risk

c)

Histamine rebound phenomena

d)

Hypokalemia from bicarbonate loss

19.

Which scenario best reflects acid rebound risk?

a)

Single dose causing immediate gastric perforation

b)

Prolonged use leading to increased acid secretion

c)

Use with meals eliminating all reflux symptoms

d)

Short course permanently suppressing acid output

20.

Which combination is often used to balance bowel effects in antacid therapy?

a)

Magnesium hydroxide with aluminum compounds

b)

Calcium carbonate with proton pump inhibitors

c)

Bismuth subsalicylate with H2 blockers

d)

Sucralfate with bicarbonate alone

21.

Which best describes the mechanism of bulk-forming laxatives like psyllium?

a)

Lubricate mucosa to ease passage

b)

Lower surface tension to soften stool

c)

Stimulate intestinal motility directly

d)

Swell with water to form stool gel

22.

A patient starting psyllium should be instructed to take each dose with at least how much water to prevent choking or obstruction?

a)

240 mL of water

b)

480 mL of water

c)

60 mL of water

d)

120 mL of water

23.

What is the typical onset for formed stool after initiating psyllium?

a)

Within 1–3 hours

b)

Within 12–72 hours

c)

Within 4–6 days

d)

Immediate after first dose

24.

Which clinical use is most appropriate for psyllium?

a)

Long-term substitute for dietary fiber entirely

b)

Rapid bowel evacuation before surgery

c)

Primary therapy for acute bowel obstruction

d)

Preferred temporary treatment of constipation

25.

Which adverse effect is specifically cautioned with psyllium and requires taking with cold water or juice?

a)

Hepatic toxicity

b)

Renal impairment

c)

Esophageal obstruction risk

d)

Electrolyte imbalance

26.

Which assessment is essential before administering a bulk-forming laxative?

a)

Serum liver enzyme levels

b)

Visual analog pain score

c)

Recent dietary fat intake

d)

Presence of bowel sounds and no obstruction

27.

Which administration note for psyllium helps minimize gas and bloating?

a)

Separate from meals by 4 hours

b)

Avoid taking with any fluids

c)

Start low and increase gradually

d)

Start with high dose immediately

28.

Which patient population benefits from psyllium to avoid straining?

a)

Patients with active GI bleeding

b)

Patients with severe diarrhea from infection

c)

Patients with cardiovascular disease or hemorrhoids

d)

Patients with acute pancreatitis

29.

Which is a realistic counseling point for psyllium regarding onset of effect?

a)

Works only when taken fasting

b)

Takes 1–3 days for full effect

c)

Requires concomitant stimulant laxative

d)

Effects are immediate after first dose

30.

Which mechanism best describes docusate sodium (a surfactant laxative)?

a)

Forms a bulk gel mass with fiber

b)

Inhibits opioid receptors in gut

c)

Directly stimulates peristalsis in colon

d)

Lowers surface tension to allow water into stool

31.

What is the expected onset for a soft stool after starting docusate sodium?

a)

Within 12–24 hours consistently

b)

After two weeks of continuous use

c)

Within minutes of first dose

d)

Within 1–3 days of therapy

32.

Which common preventative indication favors docusate sodium rather than treating established constipation?

a)

Irritable bowel syndrome flare

b)

Bowel obstruction management

c)

Opioid-induced constipation prevention

d)

Active infectious diarrhea

33.

Which combination or co-administration should be avoided with docusate due to increased mineral oil absorption and toxicity risk?

a)

Polyethylene glycol

b)

Antacids

c)

Probiotics

d)

Mineral oil

34.

Which counseling point for docusate sodium is accurate?

a)

Must be taken fasting for best effect

b)

Not recommended after spinal surgery

c)

Safe for long-term use without dependency

d)

Causes urgency and cramping like stimulants

35.

Which side effect profile is most typical for docusate sodium when used appropriately?

a)

Mild abdominal cramping and nausea

b)

Profound hypotension frequently

c)

Parasthesias and neuropathy

d)

Severe electrolyte disturbances common

36.

Which best describes the mechanism of stimulant laxatives like bisacodyl?

a)

Directly stimulate intestinal peristalsis

b)

Neutralize gastric acid to speed transit

c)

Coat stool to ease passage

d)

Bind bile acids to reduce motility

37.

Magnesium citrate primarily promotes bowel evacuation by which mechanism?

a)

Blocking opioid receptors in the gut

b)

Drawing water into the intestinal lumen

c)

Increasing mucous secretion in colon

d)

Inhibiting sodium-potassium ATPase

38.

A nurse should avoid giving bisacodyl when the patient reports which symptom suggestive of an acute abdomen?

a)

Undiagnosed abdominal pain

b)

Mild flatulence

c)

Recent weight gain

d)

Low-grade fever only

39.

Which administration guidance is correct for enteric-coated bisacodyl tablets?

a)

Split tablet and take with food

b)

Crush and mix with antacid

c)

Chew thoroughly with warm milk

d)

Swallow whole without milk or antacids

40.

For pre-procedure bowel prep requiring semisolid stool within 6–12 hours, which agent is appropriate at low dose?

a)

Sucralfate

b)

Magnesium citrate

c)

Docusate sodium

d)

Loperamide

41.

Which patient factor must be assessed before giving magnesium citrate due to risk of toxicity?

a)

Liver enzyme levels

b)

Thyroid hormone levels

c)

Pulmonary function tests

d)

Renal function status

42.

Which common adverse effect is shared by bisacodyl and magnesium citrate?

a)

Photosensitivity

b)

Tinnitus

c)

Gingival hyperplasia

d)

Abdominal cramping

43.

Chronic use of bisacodyl is discouraged primarily because it can lead to which outcome?

a)

Irreversible mucosal ulceration

b)

Dependency and decreased bowel function

c)

Permanent malabsorption of fats

d)

Severe hypokalemia always

44.

Which scenario justifies using bisacodyl for constipation management?

a)

Severe dehydration with edema

b)

Active appendicitis symptoms

c)

Suspected bowel obstruction present

d)

Opioid‑induced slowed intestinal transit

45.

Which teaching is essential when a patient takes high-dose magnesium citrate for rapid bowel evacuation?

a)

Ensure bathroom access due to dramatic effect

b)

Avoid fluids to prevent dilution

c)

Combine with antacids routinely

d)

Expect relief only after 48 hours

46.

Magnesium citrate at high doses poses a particular risk of which condition in susceptible patients?

a)

Acute renal failure from magnesium load

b)

Acute liver failure from bile stasis

c)

Thyroid storm from iodine excess

d)

Pulmonary edema from bronchospasm

47.

Which co‑medication increases the risk of complications when using magnesium citrate?

a)

ACE inhibitors or ARBs

b)

H2 receptor antagonists

c)

Inhaled beta‑agonists

d)

Topical antifungals

48.

Before giving bisacodyl, which timing consideration helps maintain its enteric coating?

a)

Take with citrus juice immediately

b)

Give alongside proton pump inhibitors

c)

Administer with iron supplements

d)

Avoid milk or antacids within 1 hour

49.

Which evaluation finding indicates effective therapy after bisacodyl suppository use?

a)

Reduced urinary frequency

b)

Stable blood glucose levels

c)

Resolution of heartburn symptoms

d)

Bowel movement within 15–60 minutes

50.

Which teaching supports safe hydration when using magnesium citrate for bowel prep?

a)

Drink plenty of fluids during use

b)

Limit fluids to prevent edema

c)

Avoid oral intake for 12 hours

d)

Use diuretics to maintain balance

51.

Which best describes the mechanism of action of magnesium hydroxide as a laxative?

a)

Hyperosmolar salts draw water into intestinal lumen

b)

Stimulates enteric nerves to increase peristalsis

c)

Blocks chloride channels reducing fluid secretion

d)

Lubricates stool by coating intestinal mucosa

52.

For bowel preparation before a diagnostic procedure, which dosing approach is appropriate for magnesium hydroxide?

a)

Single microdose with immediate effect

b)

Low dose over 12–18 hours

c)

Continuous dosing for 3–5 days

d)

High dose producing watery stool in 2–6 hours

53.

Which patient assessment is MOST critical before giving magnesium hydroxide to a patient with chronic kidney disease?

a)

Thyroid levels for metabolic rate

b)

Liver enzymes for hepatotoxicity risk

c)

Serum magnesium for accumulation risk

d)

Platelet count for bleeding risk

54.

Which side effect is a major concern with magnesium-based laxatives in patients with renal impairment?

a)

Hypokalemia causing arrhythmias

b)

Magnesium toxicity causing weakness

c)

Hyponatremia causing seizures

d)

Hypercalcemia causing constipation

55.

A patient using high-dose magnesium hydroxide reports severe diarrhea. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Encourage low fluid intake to reduce stool

b)

Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

c)

Add stimulant laxative to enhance effect

d)

Discontinue all fiber to slow transit

56.

Which instruction helps minimize straining during defecation when using magnesium hydroxide?

a)

Avoid any fluids for six hours after dose

b)

Plan for constipation relief after one week

c)

Expect passage of soft or semiliquid stool

d)

Take with anticholinergic medications

57.

Long-term use of osmotic laxatives like magnesium hydroxide can lead to which outcome?

a)

Improved bowel tone and motility

b)

Dependence and electrolyte imbalances

c)

Enhanced nutrient absorption of medications

d)

Reduced risk of dehydration over time

58.

Which scenario indicates pantoprazole is preferred over other PPIs due to drug interaction profile?

a)

Patient prescribed levothyroxine daily

b)

Patient using metformin for diabetes

c)

Patient taking clopidogrel after stent placement

d)

Patient taking digoxin for heart failure

59.

Pantoprazole’s mechanism involves which cellular target?

a)

Reversible H2 receptor blockade

b)

Irreversible ATPase inhibition on parietal cells

c)

Cholinergic muscarinic receptor antagonism

d)

Prostaglandin analog activation

60.

Which therapeutic outcome best reflects effective pantoprazole therapy in GERD?

a)

Immediate relief of dysphagia within minutes

b)

Resolution of esophagitis confirmed by endoscopy

c)

Increased gastric acid secretion during meals

d)

Frequent nocturnal reflux episodes

61.

What is a recognized risk of long-term proton pump inhibitor use?

a)

Fractures due to osteoporosis risk

b)

Increased vitamin B12 levels

c)

Reduced risk of C. difficile infection

d)

Hypermagnesemia in all patients

62.

Which adverse effect may occur after stopping chronic PPI therapy abruptly?

a)

Rapid bacterial overgrowth

b)

Immediate hypoglycemia

c)

Permanent achlorhydria

d)

Rebound acid hypersecretion

63.

For ICU stress ulcer prophylaxis, pantoprazole is indicated for which patients?

a)

Only patients with chronic constipation

b)

All postoperative patients routinely

c)

Patients with multiple additional risk factors

d)

Low-risk patients without additional factors

64.

Which mechanism best explains misoprostol’s gastric protection?

a)

Stimulates bicarbonate and mucus secretion

b)

Coats ulcers with sucrose–aluminum complex

c)

Blocks H2 receptors reducing acid release

d)

Neutralizes acid with aluminum hydroxide

65.

What is the only approved gastrointestinal indication for misoprostol?

a)

Prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers

b)

Treatment of active bleeding duodenal ulcers

c)

Eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection

d)

Relief of functional abdominal pain syndromes

66.

Which patient assessment is critical before initiating misoprostol?

a)

Pregnancy status and childbearing potential

b)

Serum amylase and lipase levels

c)

History of pancreatitis episodes

d)

Baseline platelet aggregation study

67.

Which adverse effect most commonly occurs with misoprostol?

a)

Profound bradycardia episodes

b)

Severe hypomagnesemia

c)

Photosensitivity with rash

d)

Diarrhea with abdominal pain

68.

Why is misoprostol contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Produces neonatal opioid withdrawal signs

b)

Leads to maternal cholestasis and pruritus

c)

Causes fetal hypothyroidism and goiter

d)

Can induce uterine contractions and miscarriage

69.

For cervical ripening, misoprostol may cause what serious event if overdosed?

a)

Placental calcification with fetal hypoxia

b)

Acute maternal pulmonary edema

c)

Uterine tachysystole with excessive contractions

d)

Cervical laceration requiring surgical repair

70.

Which counseling point is essential for women of childbearing age using misoprostol?

a)

Stop all H2 blockers prior to use

b)

Increase dietary magnesium supplements

c)

Avoid grapefruit to reduce toxicity

d)

Use effective contraception during therapy

71.

Which dosing instruction optimizes misoprostol’s gastric protection and tolerability?

a)

Double dose when taking low-dose aspirin

b)

Crush delayed-release tablets for absorption

c)

Take at bedtime with antacids

d)

Take with food to minimize diarrhea

72.

Sucralfate’s mechanism in ulcer management is best described as:

a)

Forms a protective viscous barrier adhering to ulcers

b)

Neutralizes acid via ANC with magnesium

c)

Blocks muscarinic receptors reducing motility

d)

Directly inhibits proton pump acid secretion

73.

Which timing instruction is correct for sucralfate administration?

a)

Take with antacids to enhance mucosal binding

b)

Administer with meals to improve absorption

c)

Give on an empty stomach before meals and at bedtime

d)

Dose only once daily due to long half-life

74.

Which drug interaction precaution applies to sucralfate?

a)

Separate from digoxin, warfarin, and fluoroquinolones

b)

Co-administer with theophylline to reduce acid

c)

Combine with NSAIDs to accelerate healing

d)

Avoid spacing from antacids within ten minutes

75.

Which adverse effect is most frequently associated with sucralfate?

a)

Constipation occurring in a minority of patients

b)

Profound diarrhea with dehydration risk

c)

Renal failure due to acute tubular necrosis

d)

Severe hypoglycemia requiring dextrose

76.

What monitoring is recommended when a patient with CKD takes sucralfate?

a)

Measure thyroid function for hypothyroidism

b)

Check INR due to anticoagulant effect

c)

Track serum potassium for hyperkalemia

d)

Assess for aluminum accumulation and toxicity

77.

Which teaching reinforces sucralfate effectiveness?

a)

Take antacids at the same time for relief

b)

Use milk products to neutralize acidity

c)

Increase caffeine to stimulate mucosal flow

d)

Avoid smoking, alcohol, and NSAIDs to aid healing

78.

Diphenoxylate is classified pharmacologically as:

a)

Opioid used solely for diarrhea

b)

Peripheral anticholinergic antidiarrheal

c)

H2 receptor antagonist antidiarrheal

d)

Prokinetic dopamine antagonist

79.

Why is atropine added to diphenoxylate therapy?

a)

Discourages abuse by causing unpleasant effects at high doses

b)

Enhances opioid binding for stronger analgesia

c)

Prevents constipation through prokinetic action

d)

Neutralizes intestinal acid to improve comfort

80.

Which assessment is prioritized before starting diphenoxylate/atropine for severe diarrhea?

a)

Verify vitamin B12 levels for anemia screening

b)

Check serum calcium for hypocalcemia risk

c)

Measure liver enzymes for cholestatic patterns

d)

Rule out infectious etiology with pseudomembranous colitis

81.

Which patient safety warning is appropriate for diphenoxylate/atropine?

a)

Increase dose until euphoria then taper slowly

b)

Use freely in hepatic failure without adjustment

c)

Take during acute infection to slow motility

d)

Avoid alcohol and CNS depressants due to sedation

82.

Which class best describes metoclopramide?

a)

Anticholinergic antispasmodic

b)

Serotonin agonist antiemetic

c)

GABAergic sedative antiemetic

d)

Dopamine antagonist prokinetic

83.

Which mechanism is central to ondansetron’s antiemetic action?

a)

Blocks 5-HT3 receptors

b)

Stimulates D2 receptors

c)

Inhibits acetylcholine release

d)

Enhances GABA binding

84.

Metoclopramide primarily increases which GI function?

a)

Bile salt reabsorption

b)

Pancreatic enzyme output

c)

Gastric acid secretion

d)

Gastric emptying and motility

85.

Which adverse effect is most associated with metoclopramide?

a)

Extrapyramidal symptoms

b)

Hemolytic anemia

c)

Nephrotoxicity

d)

Photosensitivity rash

86.

Which patient factor requires caution before giving ondansetron?

a)

Past appendectomy

b)

Mild seasonal allergies

c)

Long QT syndrome history

d)

Lactose intolerance

87.

Which timing maximizes metoclopramide effectiveness?

a)

Thirty minutes before meals

b)

Only at bedtime

c)

Every other morning

d)

Immediately after meals

88.

Ondansetron is FIRST approved for preventing which condition?

a)

Radiation-induced diarrhea

b)

Gastroparesis-related reflux

c)

Postoperative ileus

d)

Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

89.

Which risk increases when ondansetron is combined with other QT-prolonging drugs?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Torsades de pointes

d)

Hyperkalemia

90.

Which symptom signals acute dystonia from metoclopramide?

a)

Involuntary muscle contractions

b)

Diffuse pruritic rash

c)

Polyuria and thirst

d)

Dry persistent cough

91.

Which treatment can reverse acute dystonia due to metoclopramide?

a)

NSAID plus fluids

b)

Diphenhydramine IM dose

c)

Activated charcoal orally

d)

High-dose loperamide

92.

Which population faces higher risk of EPS with metoclopramide?

a)

Patients with eczema

b)

Pregnant in second trimester

c)

Middle-aged athletes

d)

Children and older adults

93.

Which nursing assessment is essential before IV ondansetron in high‑risk patients?

a)

Skin prick testing

b)

Baseline ECG tracing

c)

Spirometry test

d)

Liver biopsy panel

94.

Which black box warning relates to metoclopramide?

a)

Tardive dyskinesia risk with long use

b)

Anaphylaxis in penicillin allergy

c)

Severe hypoglycemia episodes

d)

Acute renal failure risk

95.

Which common adverse effect occurs with ondansetron?

a)

Headache and diarrhea

b)

Photosensitivity and tinnitus

c)

Cough and rhinorrhea

d)

Polyuria and edema

96.

Which statement best describes metoclopramide’s CNS action?

a)

Enhances GABA activity broadly

b)

Blocks dopamine receptors in CTZ

c)

Stimulates serotonin release centrally

d)

Inhibits opioid receptors in medulla

97.

Which condition is a contraindication for metoclopramide?

a)

Iron‑deficiency anemia

b)

GI obstruction or perforation

c)

Uncomplicated migraine

d)

Mild GERD without symptoms

98.

Which monitoring priority applies when starting metoclopramide in a depressed patient?

a)

Check fasting lipid panel weekly

b)

Watch for mood changes and suicidality

c)

Assess for ankle edema daily

d)

Measure peak flow hourly

99.

Which scenario shows appropriate ondansetron use beyond chemotherapy?

a)

Relief of chronic constipation

b)

Management of peptic ulcer pain

c)

Prevention of postoperative nausea

d)

Treatment of bacterial colitis

100.

Which electrolyte abnormality heightens ondansetron’s QT risk?

a)

Hypernatremia or hypercalcemia

b)

Hyperkalemia or hyponatremia

c)

Hypocalcemia or hyperphosphatemia

d)

Hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia

101.

Which instruction helps minimize sedation with metoclopramide?

a)

Avoid alcohol and CNS depressants

b)

Take with high‑fat meals only

c)

Increase daytime caffeine intake

d)

Limit fluid intake before dosing

102.

Which receptor subtype does ondansetron primarily antagonize to prevent nausea and vomiting?

a)

M1 muscarinic receptors in gut

b)

5-HT3 serotonin receptors centrally

c)

H1 histamine receptors in vestibule

d)

D2 dopamine receptors in striatum

103.

Ondansetron is first-line for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting because it has which key advantage?

a)

No extrapyramidal adverse effects

b)

Stimulates dopamine release centrally

c)

Stronger sedation than promethazine

d)

Induces gastric emptying consistently

104.

A patient on ondansetron should be monitored most closely for which cardiac risk, especially with IV use?

a)

Shortened PR interval episodes

b)

QT interval prolongation risk

c)

Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

d)

Chronic atrial flutter onset

105.

Which statement best explains why ondansetron does not cause acute dystonia or akathisia?

a)

It blocks alpha-1 adrenergic receptors

b)

It does not block dopamine receptors

c)

It enhances GABAergic transmission

d)

It increases acetylcholine activity

106.

For a patient receiving ondansetron, which nursing action is most appropriate before administration?

a)

Correct hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia

b)

Check fasting blood glucose levels

c)

Measure serum amylase and lipase

d)

Administer anticholinergic premedication

107.

High-risk patients receiving IV ondansetron should be monitored for which specific rhythm concern?

a)

Ventricular bigeminy pattern

b)

Multifocal atrial tachycardia

c)

Torsades de pointes risk

d)

Sinus bradycardia only

108.

Which drug interaction increases the risk of QT prolongation when combined with ondansetron?

a)

Opioid analgesics

b)

Short-acting benzodiazepines

c)

Antiarrythmics that prolong QT

d)

Proton pump inhibitors

109.

Levodopa reduces Parkinson’s symptoms primarily by which mechanism in the brain?

a)

Inhibiting MAO-B in substantia nigra

b)

Activating GABA receptors in cortex

c)

Increasing dopamine synthesis in striatum

d)

Blocking COMT in the periphery

110.

Which statement describes how levodopa reaches the brain for therapeutic action?

a)

Transport via albumin-bound pathway

b)

Pinocytosis through endothelial cells

c)

Active transport system across BBB

d)

Passive diffusion without carriers

111.

Why is levodopa given with carbidopa in standard Parkinson’s therapy?

a)

Carbidopa blocks dopamine receptors centrally

b)

Carbidopa inhibits peripheral decarboxylase

c)

Carbidopa stimulates cholinergic receptors

d)

Carbidopa enhances MAO-B metabolism

112.

What is the effect of high-protein meals on levodopa therapy?

a)

Increase intestinal absorption markedly

b)

Have no significant clinical influence

c)

Reduce transport across blood–brain barrier

d)

Accelerate central conversion to dopamine

113.

Which dosing issue reflects levodopa’s acute loss of effect that can be minimized by regimen changes?

a)

Progressive tolerance only

b)

Irreversible receptor downregulation

c)

Shortening dosing interval episodes

d)

Fixed-interval withdrawal syndrome

114.

Entacapone is used adjunctively with levodopa to produce which pharmacokinetic effect?

a)

Prolong plasma half-life of levodopa

b)

Increase renal excretion of dopamine

c)

Block central D2 receptors directly

d)

Enhance acetylcholine receptor activity

115.

Carbidopa’s inability to cross the blood–brain barrier results in which benefit?

a)

Enhanced cholinergic signaling centrally

b)

Faster central receptor activation

c)

Direct agonism at striatal D1 receptors

d)

Reduced peripheral dopamine production

116.

Which adverse effect is commonly associated with levodopa due to dopaminergic activation?

a)

Persistent hypercalcemia episodes

b)

Chronic pancreatitis development

c)

Severe neutropenia consistently

d)

Visual hallucinations or nightmares

117.

Which patient counseling point helps optimize levodopa absorption when meals are needed?

a)

Use calcium supplements concurrently

b)

Avoid fluids for two hours after dose

c)

Split protein intake evenly all day

d)

Take with high-fat snacks consistently

118.

Which combination is appropriate for initial therapy in moderate Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Carbidopa alone daily

b)

Levodopa/carbidopa combination

c)

Entacapone monotherapy

d)

Ondansetron with carbidopa

119.

Which side effect of levodopa can be reduced by lowering the dosage, though beneficial effects may also diminish?

a)

Alpha-adrenergic agonism signs

b)

Malignant melanoma formation

c)

Psychosis with vivid hallucinations

d)

Permanent memory impairment

120.

Which nursing assessment is essential before initiating levodopa/carbidopa therapy?

a)

Test for G6PD deficiency status

b)

Evaluate narrow-angle glaucoma risk

c)

Measure serum lithium concentrations

d)

Assess thyroid-stimulating hormone

121.

Which best describes carbidopa’s role when combined with levodopa in Parkinson’s therapy?

a)

Antagonizes NMDA receptors to reduce excitotoxicity

b)

Inhibits MAO-B to prevent dopamine breakdown

c)

Stimulates dopamine release from striatal neurons

d)

Blocks peripheral decarboxylase to boost CNS delivery

122.

High-protein meals affect levodopa therapy primarily by

a)

Competing for intestinal and BBB transport

b)

Enhancing renal excretion via alkalinization

c)

Inducing hepatic enzymes to clear levodopa

d)

Increasing gastric pH to degrade levodopa

123.

Which interaction is a notable concern with levodopa preparations containing pyridoxine?

a)

Pyridoxine blocks NMDA receptors, reducing dyskinesia

b)

Pyridoxine inhibits COMT, raising levodopa levels

c)

Pyridoxine increases peripheral metabolism of levodopa

d)

Pyridoxine enhances cholinergic tone, worsening tremor

124.

Entacapone’s mechanism of action is best described as

a)

D2 receptor agonism in basal ganglia

b)

Irreversible MAO-B inhibition in CNS

c)

Selective reversible COMT inhibition in periphery

d)

Dopamine reuptake blockade in striatum

125.

A key therapeutic goal achieved by entacapone in combination therapy is

a)

Complete remission of Parkinson’s symptoms

b)

Cure of dopaminergic neuron loss

c)

Reduced "off" time with more consistent motor control

d)

Elimination of levodopa-induced dyskinesias

126.

Which adverse effect is characteristically associated with entacapone?

a)

Hyperkalemia with muscle weakness

b)

Photosensitivity with rash and pruritus

c)

Severe agranulocytosis with fever

d)

Yellow–orange urine discoloration with diarrhea

127.

Which drug interaction pattern is correct for entacapone?

a)

Increases levels of drugs metabolized by COMT

b)

Induces CYP3A4 to lower statin exposure

c)

Chelates iron to reduce absorption

d)

Blocks P-gp to raise digoxin levels

128.

Nursing assessment before entacapone initiation should include

a)

Serum lithium concentration monitoring

b)

Thyroid function testing panel

c)

Eye exam for retinopathy screening

d)

Baseline motor function and wearing-off history

129.

Donepezil belongs to which pharmacologic class?

a)

Dopamine agonist stimulating D2 receptors

b)

Cholinesterase inhibitor improving acetylcholine

c)

COMT inhibitor prolonging levodopa action

d)

NMDA antagonist reducing glutamate activity

130.

Donepezil’s expected clinical benefit in Alzheimer’s disease is

a)

Long-term disease modification and regeneration

b)

Rapid reversal and cure of dementia symptoms

c)

Modest cognitive improvement and slowed decline

d)

No change in cognition but improved motor tone

131.

An important cardiovascular adverse effect to monitor with donepezil is

a)

Hypertension with tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia with syncope risk

c)

Pulmonary hypertension progression

d)

Ventricular fibrillation routinely

132.

Which patient factor warrants caution when prescribing donepezil due to bronchoconstriction risk?

a)

Renal calculi history

b)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

c)

Asthma or COPD history present

d)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

133.

Memantine is best characterized pharmacologically as a

a)

GABA agonist enhancing inhibitory tone

b)

MAO-B inhibitor preventing dopamine breakdown

c)

NMDA receptor antagonist modulating glutamate

d)

Cholinesterase inhibitor raising acetylcholine

134.

Compared with cholinesterase inhibitors, memantine is generally

a)

Better tolerated with fewer cholinergic effects

b)

Less tolerated with more GI upset

c)

Equally sedating with marked bradycardia

d)

More hepatotoxic requiring frequent LFTs

135.

Which clinical outcome is consistent with memantine use in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Improved motor function without cognitive change

b)

Permanent prevention of disease progression

c)

Immediate recovery of memory and orientation

d)

Slowed decline in cognitive and functional status

136.

Memantine’s primary mechanism in Alzheimer’s disease involves blocking which receptor pathway to limit excitotoxicity while preserving normal signaling?

a)

NMDA receptor channel blockade

b)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibition

c)

GABA-A receptor potentiation

d)

AMPA receptor influx modulation

137.

Which clinical benefit is most consistently associated with memantine in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Prevention of amyloid formation

b)

Improved day-to-day functioning

c)

Complete cognitive restoration

d)

Reversal of disease progression

138.

A nurse should adjust memantine dosing primarily in which clinical situation?

a)

Uncontrolled hypothyroidism

b)

Active peptic ulcer disease

c)

Renal impairment present

d)

Hepatic impairment present

139.

When combined with donepezil, memantine may show which outcome compared to donepezil alone?

a)

Worsened cognitive scores

b)

Complete symptom resolution

c)

Similar decline rates

d)

Slower cognitive decline

140.

Which adverse effect is most characteristic of memantine therapy?

a)

Profound myelosuppression

b)

Blue-green urine tint

c)

Severe neutropenia

d)

Constipation common

141.

Interferon-beta agents for multiple sclerosis are best described pharmacologically as which class?

a)

NMDA antagonists

b)

Topoisomerase inhibitors

c)

Cholinesterase inhibitors

d)

Immunomodulators

142.

Which interferon-beta formulation contains glycoproteins identical to natural human interferon?

a)

Memantine

b)

Mitoxantrone

c)

Interferon beta-1b

d)

Interferon beta-1a

143.

Key therapeutic goals of interferon-beta in relapsing MS include which effect measured by imaging?

a)

Increase in lesion detectability

b)

Induction of remyelination on MRI

c)

Reduction in detectable brain lesions

d)

Complete elimination of plaques

144.

Baseline monitoring for interferon-beta should include which assessment to track hepatotoxicity risk?

a)

Thyroid function tests

b)

Liver function tests

c)

Echocardiography

d)

Pulmonary function tests

145.

Which side effect is commonly associated with interferon-beta injections and may be mitigated with acetaminophen?

a)

Profound cardiotoxicity

b)

Blue-green skin staining

c)

Flu-like symptoms

d)

Severe neutropenia

146.

Neutralizing antibodies developing against interferon-beta most likely lead to which clinical issue?

a)

Enhanced drug potency

b)

Permanent remission

c)

Reduced therapeutic effect

d)

Immediate hypersensitivity

147.

Which patient characteristic warrants caution or additional monitoring during interferon-beta therapy?

a)

History of glaucoma

b)

Active alcohol use or hepatotoxic meds

c)

Penicillin allergy only

d)

High vitamin D intake

148.

Mitoxantrone’s mechanism in MS involves which primary molecular action?

a)

Enhancing myelin synthesis

b)

Binding DNA and inhibiting topoisomerase

c)

Stimulating interferon receptors

d)

Blocking sodium channels

149.

A critical pre-infusion requirement for mitoxantrone includes which cardiac assessment threshold?

a)

Ejection fraction above 50%

b)

Ejection fraction above 30%

c)

Heart rate below 60 bpm

d)

Ejection fraction above 60%

150.

Which cumulative dose limit is associated with mitoxantrone due to cardiotoxicity risk?

a)

100 mg/m2 lifetime

b)

No defined limit

c)

140 mg/m2 lifetime

d)

200 mg/m2 lifetime