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Dermatologic, Ears, Eyes, Nose, Throat Drugs

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which ophthalmic alpha2 agonist is indicated for elevated intraocular pressure and ocular redness?

a)

Brimonidine ophthalmic solution

b)

Timolol ophthalmic drops

c)

Bimatoprost eye drops

d)

Latanoprost ophthalmic gel

2.

A non‑selective ophthalmic beta‑blocker commonly used for elevated intraocular pressure is:

a)

Timolol ophthalmic drops

b)

Brimonidine eye gel

c)

Cyclosporin eye ointment

d)

Olopatadine eye solution

3.

Which prostaglandin analog is associated with eyelash growth and iris color change?

a)

Bimatoprost ophthalmic drops

b)

Olopatadine ocular spray

c)

Hydroxyzine IV injection

d)

Triamcinolone nasal mist

4.

Which ophthalmic agent is a calcineurin inhibitor indicated for keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

a)

Cyclosporin ophthalmic emulsion

b)

Diphenhydramine oral syrup

c)

Cetirizine oral tablets

d)

Promethazine with codeine

5.

Permethrin topical is primarily used to treat:

a)

Lice and scabies

b)

Acne vulgaris

c)

Pruritus and anxiety

d)

Allergic rhinitis

6.

Which topical retinoic acid derivative is indicated for acne?

a)

Adapalene topical gel

b)

Clobetasol ointment

c)

Chlorhexidine mouthwash

d)

Guaifenesin tablets

7.

Chlorhexidine (topical, PO) is classified as an antiseptic with common indications including:

a)

Skin cleanser and gingivitis

b)

Elevated intraocular pressure

c)

Allergic conjunctivitis

d)

Nasal congestion relief

8.

A high‑potency topical corticosteroid used for psoriasis and atopic dermatitis is:

a)

Clobetasol topical cream

b)

Fluticasone nasal spray

c)

Triamcinolone intranasal

d)

Olopatadine eye drops

9.

Which expectorant is available OTC for cough?

a)

Guaifenesin oral tablets

b)

Dextromethorphan capsules

c)

Benzonatate soft gel

d)

Codeine with guaifenesin

10.

Which antitussive has a warning not to break the capsule due to choking risk?

a)

Benzonatate oral capsules

b)

Dextromethorphan lozenges

c)

Promethazine with codeine

d)

Guaifenesin liquid

11.

Which alpha1 agonist is sold behind the counter and can increase blood pressure and heart rate?

a)

Pseudoephedrine oral tablets

b)

Loratadine chewable tabs

c)

Levocetirizine oral syrup

d)

Olopatadine ophthalmic

12.

An intranasal corticosteroid commonly used for allergic rhinitis is:

a)

Fluticasone nasal spray

b)

Adapalene topical gel

c)

Hydroxyzine IV solution

d)

Bimatoprost eye drops

13.

Which intranasal antihistamine may cause headache, epistaxis, bitter taste, and drowsiness?

a)

Azelastine intranasal spray

b)

Fexofenadine oral tablets

c)

Cetirizine oral liquid

d)

Olopatadine ophthalmic

14.

Which first‑generation antihistamine has OTC oral forms but should not be used in children under 6 years?

a)

Diphenhydramine oral forms

b)

Loratadine chewables

c)

Levocetirizine solution

d)

Olopatadine eye drops

15.

Hydroxyzine is indicated for pruritus, nausea, and anxiety. A key safety consideration is:

a)

Risk of QTc prolongation

b)

Iris color change

c)

Adrenal suppression

d)

Hyperpigmentation of skin

16.

Which second‑generation antihistamine is associated with diarrhea, drowsiness, and headache?

a)

Fexofenadine oral tablets

b)

Cetirizine oral tablets

c)

Loratadine oral tablets

d)

Levocetirizine oral solution

17.

Olopatadine ophthalmic is indicated for:

a)

Allergic conjunctivitis

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Nasal congestion

d)

Elevated IOP

18.

Promethazine with codeine carries a US boxed warning related to concomitant use with CNS depressants because it may cause:

a)

Profound sedation and respiratory depression

b)

Ocular hyperemia and eyelash growth

c)

Nasal dryness and epistaxis

d)

Skin burning and hypopigmentation

19.

Opioid‑containing cough products, such as codeine and guaifenesin combinations, are no longer indicated for:

a)

Patients younger than 18 years

b)

Adults over fifty years

c)

Pregnant patients first trimester

d)

Patients with allergic rhinitis

20.

Which antitussive should be avoided within 14 days of MAOI therapy due to interaction risk?

a)

Dextromethorphan oral forms

b)

Guaifenesin expectorant

c)

Benzonatate capsules

d)

Olopatadine eye drops

21.

Which drug class reduces prostate size by inhibiting conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?

a)

Alpha1 blockers for urinary flow improvement

b)

Beta3 agonists for bladder relaxation

c)

5 alpha-reductase inhibitors for DHT blockade

d)

Anticholinergics for detrusor suppression

22.

Tamsulosin primarily treats which condition by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck?

a)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia symptoms relief

b)

Hypertension blood pressure reduction

c)

Hypokalemia electrolyte correction

d)

Overactive bladder urge reduction

23.

Which key adverse effect is associated with finasteride therapy?

a)

Sexual dysfunction including decreased libido

b)

Hyperkalemia with ECG changes

c)

Flushing and cardiac arrest risk

d)

Orange-red urine discoloration

24.

What counseling point is important for women of child-bearing age regarding finasteride tablets?

a)

Avoid touching crushed or broken tablets

b)

Take 30 minutes after the same meal

c)

Dilute before intravenous infusion

d)

May change body fluids red or orange

25.

Which alpha blocker lists orthostatic hypotension and intraoperative floppy iris syndrome (rare) as key risks?

a)

Tamsulosin once daily capsules

b)

Doxazosin immediate and XL tablets

c)

Mirabegron extended-release tablets

d)

Oxybutynin patch and syrup

26.

What timing instruction is specific to tamsulosin dosing to optimize absorption?

a)

Take 30 minutes after the same meal daily

b)

Administer only at bedtime with water

c)

Alternate morning and evening doses

d)

Skip doses before planned surgery

27.

Which anticholinergic is available as both oral and transdermal patch formulations for overactive bladder?

a)

Solifenacin film-coated tablets

b)

Oxybutynin PO and patch options

c)

Phenazopyridine OTC tablets

d)

Mirabegron ER capsules

28.

Common anticholinergic adverse effects include which pair of symptoms?

a)

Xerostomia and constipation

b)

Edema and hypervolemia

c)

Hypertension and tachycardia

d)

Nausea and hypoglycemia

29.

Mirabegron, a Beta3 agonist, carries which notable risk?

a)

Hypertension elevation potential

b)

Hypokalemia requiring supplementation

c)

Cardiac arrest with rapid IV push

d)

Orange-red urine discoloration

30.

Which urinary analgesic provides symptomatic relief of dysuria but does not treat infection?

a)

Phenazopyridine OTC brand Azo

b)

Albumin 5% infusion

c)

Normal saline IV bolus

d)

Calcium acetate phosphate binder

31.

What counseling point is specific to phenazopyridine regarding body fluid changes?

a)

May turn urine and tears red or orange

b)

Requires dilution before IV administration

c)

Take oral forms with a full glass of water

d)

Avoid in narrow‑angle glaucoma

32.

Rapid undiluted IV administration of magnesium sulfate is associated with which severe event?

a)

Cardiac arrest with hypotension

b)

Hypervolemia and edema

c)

Orange-red urine staining

d)

Intraoperative floppy iris

33.

Which statement distinguishes potassium chloride IV from oral formulations?

a)

IV requires dilution to avoid hyperkalemia

b)

PO causes immediate hypoglycemia risk

c)

IV is safe as rapid push bolus

d)

PO must be crushed for absorption

34.

Which crystalloid is linked with hyperglycemia, hyponatremia, and hypervolemia risks?

a)

5% dextrose in water (D5W)

b)

Normal saline 0.9%

c)

Lactated Ringers solution

d)

Albumin 5% colloid

35.

Albumin infusions are primarily indicated for which clinical scenario?

a)

Hypovolemia with SBP or paracentesis

b)

Carrier fluid for medications

c)

Correction of hypokalemia

d)

Treatment of overactive bladder

36.

Which drug class reduces angiotensin II formation by inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme?

a)

Angiotensin II receptor blockers prevent receptor activation

b)

ACE inhibitors block conversion of angiotensin I to II

c)

ARNIs increase neprilysin degradation of natriuretic peptides

d)

Calcium channel blockers decrease renin secretion

37.

Which adverse effect is most characteristic of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril?

a)

Peripheral edema with flushing

b)

Dry cough due to bradykinin

c)

Constipation with bradycardia

d)

Gynecomastia with hyperkalemia

38.

Which boxed warning applies to ACE inhibitors and ARBs in pregnancy?

a)

Severe hypoglycemia risk

b)

Fetal toxicity contraindication

c)

Malignant hyperthermia risk

d)

Anaphylaxis risk in neonates

39.

Which statement best distinguishes ARBs from ACE inhibitors?

a)

ARBs block angiotensin II receptors directly

b)

ARBs increase bradykinin accumulation

c)

ARBs inhibit renin release centrally

d)

ARBs cause gynecomastia reliably

40.

Which combination is an ARNI used in heart failure?

a)

Valsartan with sacubitril

b)

Losartan with hydrochlorothiazide

c)

Amlodipine with benazepril

d)

Verapamil with diltiazem

41.

What timing rule prevents angioedema risk when starting sacubitril/valsartan after an ACE inhibitor?

a)

Start immediately without delay

b)

Wait at least 12 hours

c)

Do not use within 36 hours

d)

Overlap therapy for 7 days

42.

Which calcium channel blocker is dihydropyridine commonly used for hypertension and CAD?

a)

Amlodipine oral formulation

b)

Verapamil sustained-release

c)

Diltiazem immediate-release

d)

Clonidine transdermal patch

43.

Which key side effect is typical of dihydropyridine CCBs like nifedipine?

a)

Bradycardia with constipation

b)

Peripheral edema and hypotension

c)

Hyperkalemia with angioedema

d)

Drug-induced lupus syndrome

44.

Which intravenous CCB is used for hypertensive crisis?

a)

Nicardipine IV infusion

b)

Amlodipine oral tablet

c)

Verapamil IV bolus

d)

Hydralazine IM dose

45.

Which non-dihydropyridine CCB is associated with bradycardia and constipation?

a)

Amlodipine once daily

b)

Diltiazem extended-release

c)

Verapamil immediate-release

d)

Nifedipine long-acting

46.

Which thiazide diuretic is first-line for hypertension with photosensitivity risk?

a)

Hydrochlorothiazide oral dose

b)

Furosemide intravenous push

c)

Spironolactone daily capsule

d)

Torsemide extended tablet

47.

Which thiazide-related diuretic alternative to HCTZ can lower potassium more strongly?

a)

Chlorthalidone long-acting

b)

Eplerenone selective MRA

c)

Metoprolol succinate

d)

Losartan potassium salt

48.

Which combination product pairs amlodipine with benazepril?

a)

Lotrel fixed-dose capsule

b)

Hyzaar film-coated tablet

c)

Zestoretic scored tablet

d)

Diovan-HCT daily pack

49.

Which drug pair forms Zestoretic for hypertension?

a)

Lisinopril with HCTZ

b)

Losartan with HCTZ

c)

Valsartan with HCTZ

d)

Olmesartan with HCTZ

50.

Which brand corresponds to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide?

a)

Hyzaar co-formulation

b)

Benicar-HCT blend

c)

Diovan-HCT combo

d)

Lotrel dual agent

51.

Which mechanism explains CCB benefit in coronary artery disease?

a)

Decreased venous return significantly

b)

Arteriolar vasodilation reduces afterload

c)

Enhanced sodium excretion strongly

d)

Increased renin secretion notably

52.

Which adverse effect of verapamil can aggravate in older adults?

a)

Photosensitivity rash

b)

Constipation with bradycardia

c)

Xerostomia with tremor

d)

Gynecomastia with edema

53.

Which ARB is marketed as Diovan?

a)

Valsartan branded Diovan

b)

Losartan branded Cozaar

c)

Olmesartan branded Benicar

d)

Irbesartan branded Avapro

54.

Which ACE inhibitor has the brand name Zestril or Prinivil?

a)

Lisinopril common brand

b)

Enalapril typical brand

c)

Ramipril trade brand

d)

Benazepril market brand

55.

Which counseling point applies to HCTZ therapy?

a)

Expect hyperkalemia routinely

b)

Monitor for hyponatremia risk

c)

Plan for bradycardia symptoms

d)

Avoid use within pregnancy

56.

Which drug is a direct thrombin inhibitor used orally for atrial fibrillation stroke prevention and VTE?

a)

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) oral capsule

b)

Apixaban (Eliquis) oral tablet

c)

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) oral tablet

d)

Warfarin (Coumadin) oral tablet

57.

Premature discontinuation of apixaban carries which boxed warning risk?

a)

Increased thrombotic events risk

b)

Severe hepatotoxicity risk

c)

Life‑threatening arrhythmias risk

d)

Hyperkalemia with chronic use

58.

Which anticoagulant requires INR monitoring due to a narrow therapeutic index?

a)

Warfarin vitamin K antagonist

b)

Heparin unfractionated IV

c)

Enoxaparin low‑molecular‑weight

d)

Dabigatran direct thrombin

59.

Which counseling point is correct for dabigatran capsules?

a)

Swallow whole, do not open

b)

Avoid grapefruit juice

c)

Take with high‑fat meals

d)

Store at room air unsealed

60.

A patient on rivaroxaban is scheduled for spinal anesthesia. What risk should be considered?

a)

Epidural or spinal hematoma

b)

Hyperthyroidism exacerbation

c)

Bronchospasm in asthma

d)

Acute gout precipitation

61.

Which agent has a boxed warning for increased risk of epidural or spinal hematoma with spinal puncture?

a)

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) injection

b)

Clopidogrel (Plavix) tablet

c)

Nitroglycerin (SL) tablets

d)

Aspirin OTC products

62.

Heparin key side effects include which adverse reaction?

a)

Bleeding and HIT

b)

Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis

c)

Photosensitivity reactions

d)

Dyspepsia and heartburn

63.

Which antiplatelet agent has diminished effectiveness in poor metabolizers?

a)

Clopidogrel P2Y12 inhibitor

b)

Aspirin salicylate NSAID

c)

Ticagrelor reversible P2Y12

d)

Warfarin vitamin K blocker

64.

Ticagrelor counseling includes avoiding aspirin doses above 100 mg daily due to what effect?

a)

Reduced ticagrelor effectiveness

b)

Increased bronchospasm risk

c)

Elevated hepatic transaminases

d)

Prolonged hyperkalemia

65.

Which vasodilator is used sublingually for acute coronary syndrome and stable angina?

a)

Nitroglycerin SL tablets

b)

Hydralazine oral tablet

c)

Minoxidil topical foam

d)

Isosorbide mononitrate ER

66.

Which counseling note applies to nitroglycerin regarding PDE‑5 inhibitors?

a)

Do not use with PDE‑5 inhibitors

b)

Increase dose with PDE‑5 inhibitors

c)

Take concurrently with sildenafil

d)

Stop only if headache resolves

67.

Which fibrinolytic can be given intracatheter or IV for STEMI and PE?

a)

Alteplase (tPA) activase

b)

Heparin sodium infusion

c)

Enoxaparin subcutaneous

d)

Clopidogrel loading dose

68.

Which antiplatelet’s key side effects include dyspnea?

a)

Ticagrelor (Brilinta) tablet

b)

Clopidogrel (Plavix) tablet

c)

Aspirin enteric‑coated tablet

d)

Warfarin (Coumadin) tablet

69.

Children and teenagers with viral infection should avoid aspirin due to risk of what syndrome?

a)

Reye’s syndrome development

b)

Stevens‑Johnson syndrome

c)

Guillain‑Barré syndrome

d)

Cushing’s syndrome

70.

Which antiarrhythmic is intended only for life‑threatening arrhythmias per boxed warning?

a)

Amiodarone (PO, IV) therapy

b)

Ezetimibe cholesterol blocker

c)

Fenofibrate PPAR‑alpha agonist

d)

Icosapent ethyl fish oil

71.

Amiodarone key side effects include which set of toxicities?

a)

Thyroid, pulmonary, hepatic

b)

Renal, hematologic, pancreatic

c)

Dermal, otic, orthopedic

d)

Gastrointestinal, urologic, dental

72.

Which lipid‑lowering drug commonly causes myalgias and diarrhea?

a)

Ezetimibe (Zetia) oral

b)

Icosapent ethyl oral

c)

Nitroglycerin sublingual

d)

Clopidogrel oral tablet

73.

Which fibric acid derivative is associated with dyspepsia and possible rhabdomyolysis?

a)

Fenofibrate (Tricor) oral

b)

Simvastatin (Zocor) oral

c)

Ezetimibe (Zetia) oral

d)

Amiodarone (IV) infusion

74.

Statin therapy counseling should include avoiding excessive intake of what beverage?

a)

Grapefruit juice beverage

b)

Whole milk beverage

c)

Black coffee beverage

d)

Green tea beverage

75.

Which omega‑3 product can prolong bleeding time and has fish/shellfish allergy cautions?

a)

Lovaza ethyl esters oral

b)

Nitrostat SL tablets

c)

Pravachol pravastatin oral

d)

Eliquis apixaban oral

76.

Which class best describes budesonide when administered via inhalation for asthma management?

a)

Short-acting beta2 agonist inhaler

b)

Inhaled corticosteroid medication

c)

Long-acting muscarinic antagonist

d)

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

77.

Advair and Wixela combine fluticasone with salmeterol. What pharmacologic pairing does this represent?

a)

ICS plus long-acting beta2 agonist

b)

LAMA plus short-acting beta2 agonist

c)

Leukotriene antagonist plus ICS

d)

Partial nicotine agonist plus LABA

78.

Which inhaled agent is primarily used as a rescue bronchodilator for acute symptoms?

a)

Tiotropium inhalation capsules

b)

Albuterol inhalation aerosol

c)

Montelukast oral tablets

d)

Varenicline oral tablets

79.

Trelegy Ellipta contains umeclidinium, vilanterol, and fluticasone. Which combined classes are included?

a)

LABA and LAMA only

b)

ICS and SABA only

c)

ICS, LABA, and LAMA

d)

Leukotriene and partial nicotine

80.

Which medication carries a US Boxed Warning about serious neuropsychiatric effects, including suicidal thoughts and actions?

a)

Montelukast oral therapy

b)

Tiotropium inhalation

c)

Albuterol inhaler

d)

Budesonide inhaler

81.

Which side effect is most characteristic of inhaled corticosteroids used for asthma?

a)

Oral candidiasis risk

b)

Severe hypoglycemia

c)

Renal failure risk

d)

Profound hyperkalemia

82.

A patient on albuterol reports tremor and palpitations. Which electrolyte change is commonly associated with this drug?

a)

Increased potassium levels

b)

Decreased potassium levels

c)

Increased calcium levels

d)

Decreased sodium levels

83.

Which counseling point helps prevent thrush in patients using ICS or ICS/LABA inhalers?

a)

Take with high-fat meals

b)

Rinse mouth and spit after use

c)

Use before bedtime daily

d)

Avoid any spacer devices

84.

Which agent is a partial nicotine agonist indicated for smoking cessation and commonly causes nausea and abnormal dreams?

a)

Varenicline oral therapy

b)

Montelukast oral therapy

c)

Tiotropium inhalation

d)

Formoterol inhalation

85.

Which natural penicillin is appropriate for syphilis treatment via IV/IM dosing?

a)

Penicillin G potassium IV/IM

b)

Penicillin V potassium PO

c)

Amoxicillin PO

d)

Cefazolin IV

86.

Which infection is a common indication for amoxicillin as an aminopenicillin?

a)

Otitis media treatment

b)

Hospital-acquired pneumonia

c)

Diabetic foot infection

d)

Meningitis therapy

87.

Amoxicillin-clavulanate activity includes coverage for which group due to the inhibitor component?

a)

Enterobacteriaceae organisms

b)

Treponema pallidum

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

MRSA pathogens

88.

Which beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor pair is given IV and covers Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a)

Piperacillin-tazobactam IV

b)

Ampicillin-sulbactam IV

c)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate PO

d)

Cefuroxime IV

89.

Cephalexin, a first-generation cephalosporin, is most commonly used for which condition?

a)

Skin and soft tissue infection

b)

Ventilator-associated pneumonia

c)

Pyelonephritis management

d)

Clostridioides difficile colitis

90.

Which first-generation cephalosporin is commonly used for surgical antimicrobial prophylaxis?

a)

Cefazolin IV

b)

Ceftriaxone IV/IM

c)

Cefuroxime IV/PO

d)

Cefepime IV

91.

Second-generation cephalosporins commonly treat otitis media; which agent fits this category?

a)

Cefuroxime IV/PO

b)

Cephalexin PO

c)

Cefepime IV

d)

Penicillin V PO

92.

Which organism is a typical activity target for cefuroxime?

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Treponema pallidum

c)

MRSA strains

d)

Clostridioides difficile

93.

Cefdinir is indicated for bacterial sinusitis and otitis media and has activity against which respiratory pathogen?

a)

Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Enterococcus faecalis

94.

Which third-generation cephalosporin is widely used for meningitis and CAP?

a)

Ceftriaxone IV/IM

b)

Cefazolin IV

c)

Cephalexin PO

d)

Cefuroxime IV/PO

95.

Which fourth-generation cephalosporin retains activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a)

Cefepime IV

b)

Cefdinir PO

c)

Cephalexin PO

d)

Cefuroxime IV/PO

96.

Key side effects shared by many cephalosporins on this list include which adverse reaction?

a)

Hypersensitivity reactions

b)

Agranulocytosis only

c)

Thyroid dysfunction

d)

Severe ototoxicity

97.

Which carbapenem is preferred for DFI and IAI due to ESBL coverage?

a)

Ertapenem IV

b)

Meropenem IV

c)

Ciprofloxacin PO/IV

d)

Azithromycin PO/IV

98.

Meropenem has activity against ESBL-producing Enterobacteriaceae and which non-fermenter?

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Treponema pallidum

c)

MRSA isolates

d)

Chlamydia trachomatis

99.

Which fluoroquinolone is noted for pyelonephritis coverage and Pseudomonas activity?

a)

Ciprofloxacin PO/IV

b)

Moxifloxacin PO/IV

c)

Azithromycin PO/IV

d)

Doxycycline PO/IV

100.

Levofloxacin is indicated for CAP and VAP and covers which gram-negative pathogen?

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Enterococcus faecium

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Clostridioides difficile

101.

Which boxed warning applies to systemic fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin?

a)

Risk of tendinitis and tendon rupture

b)

Fulminant thyroid storm risk

c)

Severe hemolytic anemia risk

d)

Irreversible ototoxicity risk

102.

Moxifloxacin has poor Pseudomonas coverage but is used for which respiratory indication?

a)

Community-acquired pneumonia

b)

Diabetic foot infection

c)

Hospital-acquired meningitis

d)

Tickborne rickettsial disease

103.

Azithromycin is active against atypicals and commonly used for which outpatient respiratory condition?

a)

Community-acquired pneumonia

b)

Ventilator-associated pneumonia

c)

Pyelonephritis episodes

d)

Clostridioides difficile colitis

104.

Which macrolide is reserved for CDI due to activity against C. difficile?

a)

Fidaxomicin PO

b)

Azithromycin PO/IV

c)

Ciprofloxacin PO/IV

d)

Minocycline PO/IV

105.

Which tetracycline covers MRSA in SSTI and is contraindicated in children <8 due to dental effects?

a)

Doxycycline PO/IV

b)

Levofloxacin PO/IV

c)

Azithromycin PO/IV

d)

Cefdinir PO

106.

Which tetracycline has a warning for drug-induced lupus (DILE) and photosensitivity?

a)

Minocycline PO/IV

b)

Cefuroxime IV/PO

c)

Meropenem IV

d)

Azithromycin PO/IV

107.

Which counseling point applies to fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines regarding divalent cations?

a)

Avoid concurrent dairy or mineral supplements

b)

Increase calcium-fortified juice intake

c)

Take with multivitamins for absorption

d)

Co-administer iron to boost efficacy

108.

Which antibiotic class includes imipenem, meropenem, and ertapenem?

a)

Carbapenems

b)

Macrolides

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Glycopeptides

109.

Which fluoroquinolone has notable activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Moxifloxacin

d)

Norfloxacin

110.

Which macrolide is commonly used for atypical pneumonia coverage?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Clarithromycin

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Telithromycin

111.

Which adverse effect is classically associated with macrolides due to QT interval impact?

a)

Torsades de pointes

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Optic neuritis

d)

Renal stones

112.

Which tetracycline is preferred for acne and rickettsial infections?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Minocycline

c)

Tigecycline

d)

Oxytetracycline

113.

Which lincosamide antibiotic is active against MRSA and anaerobes but risks C. difficile?

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Lincomycin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Metronidazole

114.

Which sulfonamide combination inhibits folate synthesis via sequential blockade?

a)

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

b)

Sulfasalazine-pyridoxine

c)

Sulfadiazine-rifampin

d)

Sulfisoxazole-azithromycin

115.

Which urinary antibiotic is used for cystitis and concentrates in urine?

a)

Nitrofurantoin

b)

Fosfomycin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Amoxicillin

116.

Which aminoglycoside carries risks of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

a)

Tobramycin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Amikacin

d)

Streptomycin

117.

Which glycopeptide is a mainstay for MRSA and requires trough monitoring?

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Teicoplanin

c)

Daptomycin

d)

Linezolid

118.

Which antibiotic is first-line for anaerobic infections and causes a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

d)

Cefotetan

119.

Which topical antibiotic is used for MRSA decolonization of nares?

a)

Mupirocin

b)

Neomycin

c)

Polymyxin B

d)

Bacitracin

120.

Which fluoroquinolone is preferred for community-acquired pneumonia due to better Streptococcus coverage?

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Norfloxacin

d)

Ofloxacin

121.

Which tetracycline should be avoided in pregnancy and children due to teeth discoloration?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Minocycline

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Tigecycline

122.

Which class’s hallmark side effects include tendon rupture and dysglycemia?

a)

Fluoroquinolones

b)

Macrolides

c)

Carbapenems

d)

Glycopeptides

123.

Which carbapenem is stable to renal dehydropeptidase and does not require cilastatin?

a)

Meropenem

b)

Imipenem

c)

Ertapenem

d)

Doripenem

124.

Which lincosamide is linked to Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea in boxed warnings?

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Lincomycin

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Vancomycin

125.

Which urinary antibiotic is a single-dose treatment option for uncomplicated cystitis?

a)

Fosfomycin

b)

Nitrofurantoin

c)

Trimethoprim

d)

Cefalexin

126.

Which glycopeptide infusion reaction presents with flushing and pruritus during rapid administration?

a)

Red man syndrome

b)

Blue toe syndrome

c)

Gray baby syndrome

d)

Serotonin syndrome

127.

Which aminoglycoside dosing strategy targets high peak concentrations with extended intervals?

a)

Once-daily high-dose

b)

Twice-daily low-dose

c)

Continuous infusion

d)

Microdosing regimen

128.

Which drug class reduces pain and inflammation by nonselective cyclooxygenase inhibition?

a)

NSAIDs for broad COX inhibition

b)

COX-2 selective agents only

c)

Aminoquinolones antimalarial class

d)

Alpha2 agonists for spasticity

129.

Which medication is an alpha2 agonist indicated for spasticity?

a)

Tizanidine oral formulation

b)

Hydroxychloroquine tablets

c)

Cyclobenzaprine capsules

d)

Etanercept subcutaneous

130.

Hydroxychloroquine is classified as which pharmacologic category?

a)

Aminoquinolone antimalarial

b)

NSAID analgesic agent

c)

Skeletal muscle relaxant

d)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

131.

Which NSAID is available as a topical formulation commonly branded as Voltaren?

a)

Diclofenac topical gel

b)

Ibuprofen oral tablets

c)

Indomethacin capsules

d)

Naproxen OTC tablets

132.

Which agent is COX-2 selective and used for OA or RA?

a)

Celecoxib capsules

b)

Ketorolac IV doses

c)

Meloxicam tablets

d)

Etanercept injections

133.

Which skeletal muscle relaxant is commonly used for acute muscle spasm?

a)

Cyclobenzaprine oral

b)

Allopurinol tablets

c)

Colchicine oral

d)

Adalimumab SQ

134.

Which transdermal topical analgesic is also an antiarrhythmic when used IV?

a)

Lidocaine patch or IV

b)

Diclofenac gel topical

c)

Ketorolac IV analgesic

d)

Naproxen OTC tablets

135.

Which antigout agent treats acute gout flares but can cause GI upset?

a)

Colchicine oral dosing

b)

Etanercept injections

c)

Celecoxib capsules

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

136.

Which drug is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to lower uric acid?

a)

Allopurinol tablets

b)

Indomethacin capsules

c)

Baclofen oral solution

d)

Adalimumab SQ pen

137.

Which neuromuscular blocking agent provides rapid paralysis for intubation?

a)

Succinylcholine IV

b)

Tizanidine oral

c)

Methocarbamol oral

d)

Naproxen OTC

138.

Which biologic inhibits tumor necrosis factor alpha for RA?

a)

Etanercept subcutaneous

b)

Celecoxib capsules

c)

Colchicine oral

d)

Lidocaine transdermal

139.

Which agent shares the TNF-alpha mechanism and is used in Crohn’s disease?

a)

Adalimumab subcutaneous

b)

Hydroxychloroquine tablets

c)

Ketorolac IV doses

d)

Cyclobenzaprine capsules

140.

Which NSAID is restricted to short-term use due to GI risks and is available IV?

a)

Ketorolac parenteral

b)

Ibuprofen OTC

c)

Meloxicam oral

d)

Naproxen OTC

141.

Which medication is indicated for spasticity via GABA-B agonism?

a)

Baclofen oral agent

b)

Tizanidine alpha2 agonist

c)

Methocarbamol carbamate

d)

Succinylcholine depolarizer

142.

Which biguanide is first-line for type 2 diabetes and PCOS due to efficacy and weight neutrality?

a)

Metformin oral tablets

b)

Sitagliptin oral tablets

c)

Empagliflozin oral tablets

d)

Glipizide oral tablets

143.

Which DPP-4 inhibitor is associated with nasopharyngitis as a common adverse effect?

a)

Sitagliptin tablets

b)

Pioglitazone tablets

c)

Dulaglutide injection

d)

Insulin glargine injection

144.

Which SGLT2 inhibitor increases risk of genital mycotic infections and UTIs?

a)

Empagliflozin tablets

b)

Semaglutide injections

c)

Glimepiride tablets

d)

Tirzepatide injection

145.

Which sulfonylurea commonly causes hypoglycemia and weight gain?

a)

Glipizide tablets

b)

Metformin tablets

c)

Liraglutide injection

d)

Insulin aspart injection

146.

Which thiazolidinedione may worsen heart failure and has fracture risk?

a)

Pioglitazone tablets

b)

Dapagliflozin tablets

c)

Semaglutide injections

d)

Insulin lispro injection

147.

Which GLP-1 receptor agonist carries a boxed warning for thyroid C-cell tumors?

a)

Liraglutide injection

b)

Glipizide tablets

c)

Insulin regular injection

d)

Cholecalciferol capsules

148.

Which drug is a dual GLP-1 and GIP agonist used for chronic weight management?

a)

Tirzepatide injection

b)

Empagliflozin tablets

c)

Alendronate tablets

d)

Levothyroxine tablets

149.

Which insulin is long-acting and used in type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

a)

Insulin glargine injection

b)

Insulin aspart injection

c)

Insulin regular injection

d)

Insulin NPH injection

150.

Which insulin is classified as intermediate-acting and available OTC?

a)

Insulin NPH injection

b)

Insulin lispro injection

c)

Insulin glargine injection

d)

Insulin aspart injection

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