WorksheetsReview Exam 1
Total questions: 153
Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The anterior pituitary is also called the adenohypophysis.
true
false
Salivary amylase is activated once it enters the acidic environment of the stomach.
true
false
During swallowing, elevation of the uvula and soft palate prevents food or fluid from entering the nasopharynx.
true
false
Incomplete proteins contain all essential amino acids, but none of the others.
true
false
Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system has
more localized and long-lasting effects.
more widespread and long-lasting effects.
more localized and short-term effects.
more widespread and short-term effects.
Endocrine glands
are ductless glands.
are the organs of the endocrine system.
secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream.
help maintain homeostasis.
All of the choices are correct.
Which is NOT characteristic of the endocrine system?
Effects: causes metabolic activity changes in target cells
Response time: slow reaction time = seconds to hours
Duration of response: long-lasting = minutes to weeks
Recovery time: rapid, immediate return to prestimulation level
Communication method: hormones in the bloodstream
The parathyroid glands are located
just below the thalamus.
within the thymus.
above the kidneys.
anterior to the thyroid gland.
posterior to the thyroid gland.
Parathyroid hormone release depends on blood levels of calcium. Such an endocrine reflex is said to be initiated by
hormonal stimulation.
humoral stimulation.
neural stimulation.
positive feedback stimulation.
Aldosterone release can be triggered by the presence of the blood-borne messenger angiotensin II or by low levels of sodium, and so its secretion regulation is said to be
purely neural.
both hormonal and humoral.
both antagonistic and synergistic.
both neural and synergistic.
purely hormonal.
Thyroid hormone is somewhat unique in that it is a
biogenic amine that is lipid-soluble.
protein hormone that is water-soluble.
steroid hormone that is water-soluble.
steroid hormone that is lipid-soluble.
monoamine that is water-soluble.
Follicle-stimulating hormone is a
glycoprotein.
steroid.
monoamine.
oligopeptide.
Protein hormones are
lipid-soluble.
water-soluble.
soluble in both water and lipids.
soluble in neither water nor lipids.
Eicosanoids are synthesized from
cholesterol.
prostaglandin.
arachidonic acid.
amino acids.
When a chemical messenger helps initiate an inflammatory response by causing cellular changes in neighboring cells, it is demonstrating signaling.
autocrine
allomone
pheromone
Most hormones are made of chains of amino acids and are therefore
steroids.
biogenic amines.
proteins.
catecholamines.
nucleic acids.
Steroid hormones are lipids, derived from
cholesterol.
glycerol.
amines.
polypeptides.
nucleic acids.
Which type of hormone requires a carrier protein in the blood?
Autocrine hormone
Water-soluble hormone
Oligopeptide
Lipid-soluble hormone
The binding of a hormone and a carrier protein is ; a very fraction of such a hormone in the blood is bound to a carrier at any one point in time.
permanent; large
permanent; small
Damage to the liver might impair enzymatic degradation of some hormones. The levels of such hormones in the blood would therefore be expected to
increase.
decrease.
remain unchanged.
Generally, the shorter the half-life of a hormone
the more frequently it must be replaced.
the less frequently it must be replaced.
Lipophilic hormones bind to _____ receptors of target cells.
membrane-bound
Lipid-soluble hormones, such as progesterone, exert their effects by forming hormone-receptor complexes that
activate a G protein and second-messenger cascade.
bind to DNA and initiate transcription.
open ion channels in the cell membrane.
activate adenylate cyclase.
When the effects of water-soluble hormones on their target cells are considered, the hormone itself is
the G protein.
the second messenger.
the first messenger.
the hormone-response element.
the phospholipase.
As someone starts to develop in puberty, most cells in their reproductive organs are probably starting to express
more receptors for sex hormones.
fewer receptors for sex hormones.
Glucagon and insulin work on blood glucose levels.
permissively
synergistically
When the effects of one hormone reinforce the activity of another hormone on the same target cell, the interaction is said to be
agonistic.
antagonistic.
synergistic.
permissive.
The part of the brain that functions as a “master control center” of the endocrine system is the
pineal gland.
cerebral cortex.
spinal cord.
hypothalamus.
adrenal cortex.
The pituitary gland is located__________ to the hypothalamus and is connected by the__________.
superior, thalamus
inferior, infundibulum
inferior, epithalamus
posterior, infundibulum
The hormone oxytocin is synthesized in the
anterior pituitary.
posterior pituitary.
paraventricular nucleus.
pineal gland.
nucleus of the solitary tract.
The hormones that come from the posterior pituitary
are synthesized there and are released upon signals from the anterior pituitary.
are synthesized in the hypothalamus and are released from the posterior pituitary when nerve signals arrive.
are synthesized in the anterior pituitary and are transported to and from the posterior pituitary by the primary and secondary plexus.
are synthesized in the posterior pituitary and released by the anterior pituitary by way of the hypophyseal portal system.
The two hormones released from the posterior pituitary are
oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.
thyrotropin-releasing hormone and corticotropin-releasing hormone.
prolactin and growth hormone.
prolactin and vasopressin.
follicle-stimulating hormone and leuteinizing hormone.
Where are the target cells for follicle-stimulating hormone?
Thyroid follicles
Ovaries and testes
Mammary glands
Uterus
Hair follicles
The primary function of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is to
regulate salt and water balance by acting on the renal system.
stimulate glucocorticoid release from the adrenal glands.
stimulate adrenaline release from the adrenal medulla.
stimulate cell growth and cell division in muscle and bone.
stimulate the development of the folds on the surface of the brain.
Which hormones are collectively called the gonadotropins?
Prolactin and oxytocin
Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
Follicle-stimulating hormone and leuteinizing hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone and growth hormone
Thyroid-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone
Which is NOT correct regarding growth hormone (GH)?
GH affects most body cells.
GH stimulates cell growth and mitosis.
GH is also known as somatotropin.
GH stimulates the kidney to secrete somatomedin.
GH is a tropic hormone.
Excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults can cause
Graves disease.
acromegaly.
pituitary gigantism.
pituitary dwarfism.
Cushing syndrome.
The thyroid gland is located
anterior to the atria of the heart.
immediately anterior to the trachea.
immediately superior to the larynx.
immediately posterior to the cricoid cartilage.
Which is not true about the thyroid gland?
It requires iodine to synthesize thyroid hormone.
It is located on the anterior surface of the trachea, inferior to the thyroid cartilage.
It has two lobes connected by a central portion called the commissure.
It secretes thyroid hormone in response to stimulation by TSH.
An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called a goiter.
Thyroid hormone synthesis involves secretion of a glycoprotein called by the follicular cells.
Thyroid peroxidase
T3
T4
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by the
hypothalamus, and it targets cells of the posterior pituitary gland.
hypothalamus, and it targets cells of the anterior pituitary gland.
anterior pituitary, and it targets follicular cells of the thyroid gland.
posterior pituitary, and it targets parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.
thyroid gland, and it targets cells of the parathyroid gland.
Thyroid hormone's effects are to
increase metabolic rate and body temperature by increasing protein synthesis in target cells.
increase metabolic rate and body temperature by turning on the G protein, cAMP cascade.
decrease metabolic rate and body temperature by increasing protein synthesis in target cells.
decrease metabolic rate and body temperature by turning on the G protein, cAMP cascade.
increase metabolic rate and body temperature by turning off the G protein, cAMP cascade.
You are “shadowing” an endocrinologist who is examining a patient complaining of weakness, weight loss, and heat intolerance. The doctor points out the patient’s obvious exophthalmos and asks for your diagnosis. What would you speculate is the patient’s problem?
Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone
Hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone
Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone
Hyposecretion of calcitonin
The release of hormones from the adrenal cortex is stimulated by
thyroid hormone.
adrenocorticotropic hormone.
oxytocin.
antidiuretic hormone.
luteinizing hormone.
Which region of the adrenal cortex synthesizes glucocorticoids?
Zona reticularis
Zona glucosa
Zona papilllarosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona glomerulosa
What is the function of the mineralocorticoids secreted by the adrenal gland?
Regulate glucose levels in the blood
Act as secondary sex hormones
Stimulate metabolism of lipids
Regulate electrolyte concentration in body fluids
Stimulate metabolism of proteins
The disease called ___ is cause by excessive secretion of glucocorticoids and is characterized by redistribution of body fat to produce characteristics features such as "moon face.:
cushing's syndrome
addison disease
androgenital syndrome
graves disease
The adrenal glands are located ____ to the parietal peritoneum and each has a cortex of a ____ color.
anterior, brown
anterior, yellow
posterior, brown
posterior, yellow
Which is not a cell type found in the pancreatic islets?
Alpha cell
Delta cell
Beta cell
F cell
C cell
In addition to secreting hormones, the pancreas also produces
white blood cells.
sodium chloride.
pancreatic juice.
endorphins.
prostaglandins.
Which is not correct regarding the pancreas?
A) It is located posterior to the stomach, between the small intestine and the spleen.
B) It has both endocrine and exocrine functions.
C) It is elongated in shape, spongy, and nodular.
D) The majority of cells in the pancreas are acinar cells.
E) It does not begin to secrete its hormones until puberty.
In response to high blood glucose, the pancreas releases insulin to enable glucose to enter body cells. When the blood glucose level returns to normal, insulin release stops. This is an example of regulation by
endocrine dysplasia.
negative feedback.
positive feedback.
neural regulation.
somatic regulation.
The hormone that increases the rate of glycogen breakdown and glucose release by the liver is
insulin.
glucagon.
glucocorticoid.
somatostatin.
epinephrine.
Which hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas?
Insulin
Glucagon
Somatostatin
Pancreatic polypeptide
Pancreatic lipase
The metabolic condition called ________ results from the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas due to an autoimmune response.
Type 2 diabetes
gestational diabetes
beta cell diabetes
insulin-independent diabetes mellitus
Type 1 diabetes
Which hormone is secreted by the pineal gland?
Melatonin
Insulin
Melanin
Cortisol
Oxytocin
During thyroid surgery, a surgeon mistakenly removes the parathyroid glands from his patient. Which of the following is a likely outcome in the patient?
A) Blood calcium levels will drop.
B) His kidneys will decrease the loss of calcium in the urine.
C) He will lose bone mass due to excessive bone erosion.
D) His blood sugar will increase.
Which of the following does not have an endocrine function?
Urinary bladder
Adipose tissue
Liver
Small intestine
Calcitonin
stimulates osteoblast activity.
stimulates bone resorption (breakdown).
increases blood calcium.
is synthesized by the skin, liver, and kidneys.
Normally, TH has a __ feedback effect on the anterior pituitary, which responds by __ release of TSH.
negative; decreasing
negative; increasing
positive; decreasing
positive; increasing
Which is not a function of the digestive system?
Absorption
Ingestion
Secretion
Micturition
Elimination
Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract?
Esophagus
Large intestine
Stomach
Oral cavity
Liver
Which organ is not considered an accessory digestive organ?
Tongue
Teeth
Pancreas
Salivary glands
Pharynx
An organ that helps break down food but is not part of the tube through which the foodstuffs pass is referred to as a(n)
chemically digesting organ.
accessory digestive organ.
alimentary canal organ.
diffuse digestive structure.
organ of mastication.
Peristalsis
is under voluntary control.
involves the opening and closing of muscular sphincters.
involves back-and-forth movement for mixing.
is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract.
All of the choices are correct.
The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion is the
stomach.
small intestine.
esophagus.
oral cavity.
pharynx.
The_________ are considered the opening from the oral cavity to the oropharynx.
A) fauces
B) choana
C) conchae
D) fossae
E) glossus
A) fauces
B) choana
C) conchae
D) fossae
E) glossus
Which bones form the hard palate?
Palatine bones
Maxillae and inferior nasal conchae
Ethmoid and sphenoid bones
Palatine bones and maxillae
Maxillae and sphenoid
What type of epithelium lines the majority of the oral cavity?
Keratinized stratified squamous
Nonkeratinized stratified squamous
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
Keratinized stratified cuboidal
Nonkeratinized stratified cuboidal
The lining of the gastrointestinal tract that allows for absorption and secretion is
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
areolar connective tissue.
simple columnar epithelium.
simple squamous epithelium.
Lipid molecules that are absorbed from the GI tract enter
mesenteric arteries.
mesenteric veins.
lymphatic capillaries.
the liver.
A sphincter is a
thickening of the longitudinal layer of the muscularis that propels materials through the GI tract.
thickening of the circular layer of the muscularis that controls movement of materials through the GI tract.
fold of the mucosa of the GI tract that increases the total surface area for absorption of nutrients.
circle of adventitia that anchors the GI tract to neighboring structures.
Mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors are found in the
adventitia of the upper portion of the GI tract.
epithelium of the inferior portion of the GI tract.
mucosa and submucosa of the GI tract along its length.
myenteric plexus of the mucosa of the intestine.
muscularis interna of the entire length of the GI tract.
If a fatty meal has been ingested, the liver and gallbladder need to be alerted about the need for bile. The receptors that are responsible for sensing the fat in the ingested food are referred to as
bilioreceptors.
mechanoreceptors.
chemoreceptors.
omental neurons
osmodetectors.
Secretin is a hormone that is secreted by the
stomach.
small intestine.
large intestine.
liver.
pancreas.
Cholecystokinin is a ____ released by the ___.
Enzyme; Stomach
Enzyme; Small Intestine
Enzyme; Gallbladder
Hormone; Small Intestine
Hormone; Gallbladder
Which of the following is considered to be one of the primary digestive system hormones?
Bile
Gastrin
Hydrochloric acid
Pancreatic amylase
An enzyme found within saliva is salivary ____
pancreatase.
nuclease.
amylase.
protease.
pepsin.
Most saliva is produced by the ___ gland.
Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual
Lingual
Buccal
Which is the layer of the serous membrane that directly covers the surface of internal organs?
Omental layer
Visceral peritoneum
Parietal peritoneum
Rectal peritoneum
Muscularis mucosa
Which peritoneal fold supports the large intestine?
Greater omentum
Lesser omentum
Falciform ligament
Mesocolon
Peritoneal ligament
Which peritoneal fold attaches the liver to the anterior internal body wall?
Coronary ligament
Falciform ligament
Mesentery proper
Intraperitoneal ligament
Hepatic ligament
Which organ is retroperitoneal?
Stomach
Jejunum
Transverse colon
Pancreas
Cecum
What is the correct order for the layers of the GI tract wall, from innermost (next to lumen) to outermost?
Mucosa - submucosa - adventitia/serosa - muscularis
Muscularis - mucosa - adventitia/serosa - submucosa
Adventitia/serosa - mucosa - submucosa - muscularis
Mucosa - submucosa - muscularis - adventitia/serosa
Adventitia/serosa - muscularis - mucosa - submucosa
For the majority of the GI tract, which layer(s) of the wall contain smooth muscle?
Muscularis only
Mucosa and adventitia
Serosa only
Mucosa and muscularis
Submucosa and muscularis
The esophagus
secretes digestive enzymes from its mucosa.
is located anterior to the trachea.
opens to the stomach at the pyloric sphincter.
contains both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.
is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
The inferior esophageal sphincter is also known as the
cardiac sphincter.
pyloric sphincter.
pharyngoesophageal sphincter.
pharyngealgastric sphincter.
esophageal hiatus.
Stenosis (constriction) of the pyloric sphincter would interfere with
passage of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum.
peristalsis.
passage of a bolus into the stomach.
passage of chyme into the duodenum.
mucus secretion.
Manufacturers of some medications used to treat heartburn advertise that their products shut down the acid-producing pumps in the stomach. Where are these “acid-producing pumps”? In other words, which type of gastric gland cell secretes acid?
Chief cells
Parietal cells
Mucous neck cells
Surface mucous cells
Enteroendocrine cells
Of the five types of secretory cells in the gastric glands, which ones secrete pepsinogen?
Chief cells
Parietal cells
Surface mucous cells
Mucous neck cells
Enteroendocrine cells
"Segmentation" within the small intestine refers to the
propulsion of material between the segments of the GI tract.
division of function between the different segments of the small intestine.
back-and-forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions.
gastroileal reflex that moves materials from the stomach to the large intestine.
Villi
are found throughout the gastrointestinal tract.
generate movement of materials in the large intestine.
increase surface area in the small intestine.
contain both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.
All of the choices are correct.
Protein digestion begins in the
stomach.
mouth.
esophagus.
small intestine.
large intestine.
Lacteals
are found only in the large intestine.
absorb the products of fat digestion.
secrete intestinal juice.
connect directly to the liver.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of regions of the small intestine, from beginning to end?
Ileum - duodenum - jejunum
Jejunum - duodenum - ileum
Duodenum - ileum - jejunum
Ileum - jejunum - duodenum
Duodenum - jejunum - ileum
What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum?
a: left colic flexure
b: ascending colon
c: transverse colon
d: right colic flexure
e: sigmoid colon
f: descending colon
f, c, d, e, a, b
b, d, c, a, f, e
e, b, a, c, d, f
b, a, c, d, f, e
e, b, d, c, a, f
Which region of the digestive tract moves material by peristalsis, haustral churning, and mass movement?
Large intestine
Small intestine
Stomach
Esophagus
Pharynx
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
Storage of vitamins and minerals
Protein digestion and nutrient absorption
Water and electrolyte absorption
Secretion of water, salts, sodium bicarbonate, and enzymes
Which is (are) not found in the wall of the large intestine?
Goblet cells
Simple columnar epithelium
Lymphoid nodules
Villi
Intestinal glands
Bacteria within the large intestine, some of which produce vitamins, are called __ bacteria.
exogenous
parasitic
pathogenic
Which duct transports bile to and from the gallbladder?
common bile duct
pancreatic duct
hepatopancreatic duct
cystic duct
hepatic duct
The pancreas is located primarily on the __
side of the body, and it produces an __ juice that is rich in a variety of enzymes.
left, acidic
left, alkaline
right, acidic
right, alkaline
The presence of fatty chyme in the small intestine stimulates it to release__, which cause the__.
gastrin; liver to secrete alkaline solution
CCK; gallbladder to release bile
CCK; stomach to increase gastric secretion
secretin; stomach to increase motility
secretin; pancreas to release acidic pancreatic juice
Amylase from saliva digests
lipids
protein
glucose
starch
Digestion of carbohydrates within the small intestine involves enzymes that come from the
a: mouth
b: stomach
c: pancreas
d: lining of the small intestine
a, b
b, c
c, d
a, d
a, b, c, d
Lactose intolerant individuals cannot digest the_________ lactose because they lack the
enzyme_________.
A) polysaccharide; maltase
B) disaccharide; lactase
C) monosaccharide; dextrolactase
D) lipid; pancreatic lipase
E) fatty acid; sucrolactase
a) polysaccharide; maltase
b) disaccharide; lactase
c) monosaccharides; dextrolactase
d) lipid; pancreatic lipase
d) fatty acid; sucrolactase
Which is an accurate description of glucose and sucrose?
A) Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a polysaccharide, both molecules are
starches.
B) Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a disaccharide, both molecules are
carbohydrates.
C) Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a monosaccharide, both molecules are lipids.
D) Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a glycolipid, both molecules are essential
nutrients.
E) Glucose is a monoamine, sucrose is a dipeptide, both molecules are acidic.
A) Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a polysaccharide, both molecules are
starches
B) Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a disaccharide, both molecules are
carbohydrates
C) Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a monosaccharide, both molecules are lipids
D) Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a glycolipid, both molecules are essential
nutrients
E) Glucose is a monoamine, sucrose is a dipeptide, both molecules are acidic.
Digestion of proteins is initiated by the enzyme
A) amylase.
B) hydrochloric acid.
C) aminopeptidase.
D) pepsin.
E) CCK
A) amylase
B) hydrochloric acid
C) aminopeptidase
D) pepsin
E) CCK
The enzyme pepsin becomes active when pH is
A) high.
B) low.
A) high
B) low
Pepsinogen is an
A) active enzyme that is released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates.
B) inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach.
C) active enzyme that digests proteins within the small intestine.
D) inactive precursor to a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and
released in the small intestine.
A) active enzyme that is released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates.
B) inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach.
C) active enzyme that digests proteins within the small intestine.
D) inactive precursor to a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and
released in the small intestine.
Proteolytic enzymes secreted from the pancreas are activated
A) once they reach the pancreatic duct.
B) within the lumen of the small intestine.
C) in secretory vesicles within pancreatic secretory cells.
D) once they reach the large intestine
A) once they reach the pancreatic duct
B) within the lumen of the small intestine.
C) in secretory vesicles within pancreatic secretory cells.
D) once they reach the large intestine
Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme that helps digest
A) amino acids within the stomach.
B) complex carbohydrates within the small intestine.
C) peptides within the small intestine.
D) disaccharides within the duodenum.
E) starch within the stomach.
A) amino acids within the stomach
B) complex carbohydrates within the small intestine.
C) peptides within the small intestine.
D) disaccharides within the duodenum.
E) starch within the stomach
As a protein is broken down into smaller and smaller fragments, each fragment ultimately
requires splitting of the last peptide bond within it. The breaking of the bond between those
last two amino acids is catalyzed by the enzyme
A) pepsin.
B) chymotrypsin.
C) dipeptidase.
D) trypsin.
E) glucoamylase.
A) pepsin.
B) chymotrypsin.
C) dipeptidase.
D) trypsin.
E) glucoamylase.
Bile salts are
A) amphipathic.
B) completely hydrophilic.
C) completely hydrophobic
A) amphipathic.
B) completely hydrophilic.
C) completely hydrophobic
Nucleic acids are digested within the
A) mouth.
B) stomach.
C) small intestine.
D) pancreas.
E) large intestine
A) mouth.
B) stomach.
C) small intestine.
D) pancreas.
E) large intestine
Intestinal glands contain_________ cells, which secrete antimicrobial substances such as
lysozyme.
A) paneth
B) stem
C) enteroendocrine
D) absorptive
A) paneth
B) stem
C) enteroendocrine
D) absorptive
Disaccharides are one type of
A) carbohydrate.
B) starch.
C) lipid.
D) essential amino acid.
E) triglyceride
A) carbohydrate.
B) starch.
C) lipid.
D) essential amino acid.
E) triglyceride
Triglycerides and steroids are both examples of
A) essential amino acids.
B) nonessential amino acids.
C) lipids.
D) carbohydrates.
E) proteins
A) essential amino acids.
B) nonessential amino acids.
C) lipids.
D) carbohydrates.
E) proteins
Gram for gram, the largest amount of energy can be stored in the body in the form of
A) vitamins.
B) steroids.
C) triglycerides.
D) monosaccharides.
E) polysaccharides.
A) vitamins.
B) steroids.
C) triglycerides.
D) monosaccharides.
E) polysaccharides.
A nonessential amino acid is one that
A) is not used in any physiological functions.
B) can be made within the body.
C) has the same structure as one of the other amino acids.
D) needs to come from the diet
A) is not used in any physiological functions.
B) can be made within the body.
C) has the same structure as one of the other amino acids.
D) needs to come from the diet
Which type of vitamins will be absorbed from the intestine into lacteals (lymphatic
capillaries)?
A) Fat-soluble
B) Water-soluble
A) Fat-soluble
B) Water-soluble
Vitamins A, D, E, and K are
A) fat-soluble.
B) water-soluble.
A) fat-soluble.
B) water-soluble.
A deficiency in vitamin _________ may result in night blindness as well as dry, flaky
skin.
A) A
B) B12
C) C
D) D
E) E
A) A
B) B12
C) C
D) D
E) E
A deficiency in vitamin _________ may lead to bleeding problems.
A) A
B) K
C) D
D) E
E) C
A) A
B) K
C) D
D) E
E) C
inorganic ions such as sodium and potassium are
A) vitamins.
B) essential amino acids.
C) minerals.
D) trace carbohydrates
A) vitamins.
B) essential amino acids.
C) minerals.
D) trace carbohydrates
All of the following are associated with a deficiency in calcium, except
A) loss of bone mass.
B) muscle weakness.
C) anemia.
D) depressed nerve activity.
A) loss of bone mass.
B) muscle weakness.
C) anemia.
D) depressed nerve activity.
Iron is considered a
A) major mineral, because it has a crucial physiological role.
B) trace mineral, because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet.
C) major mineral, because it is extremely abundant in the Earth.
D) trace mineral, because it is rare on the Earth.
A) major mineral, because it has a crucial physiological role.
B) trace mineral, because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet.
C) major mineral, because it is extremely abundant in the Earth.
D) trace mineral, because it is rare on the Earth.
Calcium, chloride, and potassium are all examples of _________ minerals.
A) major
B) trace
C) fat-soluble
D) nonessential
A) major
B) trace
C) fat-soluble
D) nonessential
Muscle cramps are associated with a deficiency in
A) copper.
B) chloride.
C) vitamin A.
D) monosaccharides
A) copper.
B) chloride.
C) vitamin A.
D) monosaccharides
Iodine is an example of a(n)
A) essential amino acid.
B) vitamin.
C) mineral.
D) nitrogenous base
A) essential amino acid.
B) vitamin.
C) mineral.
D) nitrogenous base
Milk is a source of lactose, which is a
A) lipid.
B) carbohydrate.
C) protein.
D) vitamin
A) lipid.
B) carbohydrate.
C) protein.
D) vitamin
Cellulose is a type of_________ from plants that remains in the GI tract as fiber and aids
in the movement of material through the tract.
A) vitamin
B) lipid
C) protein
D) carbohydrate
E) mineral
A) vitamin
B) lipid
C) protein
D) carbohydrate
E) mineral
Fruits, maple syrup, and sugar are all sources of
A) cellulose.
B) sucrose.
C) lactose.
D) nitrogen
A) cellulose.
B) sucrose.
C) lactose.
D) nitrogen
Positive nitrogen balance is a condition where
A) an individual's nitrogen input is equal to its loss in urine and feces.
B) an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted.
C) an individual's nitrogen intake is greater than phosphate intake.
D) too many proteins are being ingested in the diet.
E) a food has a positive effect on blood nitrogen levels.
A) an individual's nitrogen input is equal to its loss in urine and feces.
B) an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted.
C) an individual's nitrogen intake is greater than phosphate intake.
D) too many proteins are being ingested in the diet
E) a food has a positive effect on blood nitrogen levels
Negative nitrogen balance is commonly seen in individuals who
A) are pregnant or growing.
B) have lost blood or are malnourished.
A) are pregnant or growing.
B) have lost blood or are malnourished.
Recommended daily allowances established by the Food and Nutrition Board are based on
A) individual needs and factor in sex, age, and body mass.
B) averages obtained from population studies
A) individual needs and factor in sex, age, and body mass.
B) averages obtained from population studies
During the fed state, insulin release is
A) inhibited.
B) stimulated
A) inhibited.
B) stimulated
In response to the increased availability of nutrients during the fed state, liver and muscle
A) increase glycogenesis.
B) increase gluconeogenesis.
C) decrease amino acid uptake.
D) All of the choices are correct.
A) increase glycogenesis.
B) increase gluconeogenesis.
C) decrease amino acid uptake
D) All of the choices are correct.
Insulin causes adipose tissue to
A) stimulate lipolysis and inhibit lipogenesis.
B) inhibit lipolysis and stimulate lipogenesis.
C) stimulate both lipolysis and lipogenesis.
D) stimulate lipolysis and gluconeogenesis
A) stimulate lipolysis and inhibit lipogenesis.
B) inhibit lipolysis and stimulate lipogenesis.
C) stimulate both lipolysis and lipogenesis.
D) stimulate lipolysis and gluconeogenesis
To maintain homeostasis, the hormone that is secreted during the fasting state causes
A) a decrease in the level of fatty acids in the blood.
B) an increase in protein synthesis in tissue cells.
C) formation of tryglicerides from fatty acids.
D) an increase in the level of blood sugar
A) a decrease in the level of fatty acids in the blood.
B) an increase in protein synthesis in tissue cells.
C) formation of tryglicerides from fatty acids.
D) an increase in the level of blood sugar
What effect does glucagon have on protein metabolism?
A) It directly stimulates catabolism of proteins.
B) It stimulates the buildup of proteins from amino acids.
C) It increases absorption of amino acids in the intestine.
D) It has no effect on body proteins.
A) It directly stimulates catabolism of proteins.
B) It stimulates the buildup of proteins from amino acids.
C) It increases absorption of amino acids in the intestine.
D) It has no effect on body proteins.
Compared to other types of lipoproteins, very-low-density lipoproteins contain
the_________ lipid.
A) most
B) least
A) most
B) least
How do low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) move into cells?
A) LDLs diffuse through channels in the membrane.
B) LDLs are engulfed through receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C) LDLs diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer.
D) LDLs are transported through a pump that is also an ATPase
A) LDLs diffuse through channels in the membrane.
B) LDLs are engulfed through receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C) LDLs diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer.
D) LDLs are transported through a pump that is also an ATPase
High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are associated with the tranport of lipid from the
A) liver to periperal tissues.
B) peripheral tissues to the liver.
A) liver to periperal tissues.
B) peripheral tissues to the liver.
One of the metabolic functions of the liver is transamination, which is conversion of
A) NH2 to urea.
B) one amino acid form to another.
C) amino acid into carbohydrate.
D) acetyl CoA to a ketone body
A) NH2 to urea.
B) one amino acid form to another.
C) amino acid into carbohydrate.
D) acetyl CoA to a ketone body
If more glucose is consumed than is needed, the glucose can be
A) converted to an essential amino acid so that protein synthesis can increase.
B) converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage.
C) broken down to 2 NADH molecules that can enter the citric acid cycle.
D) deaminated by the liver and sent to the kidney for excretion in the urine
A) converted to an essential amino acid so that protein synthesis can increase.
B) converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage.
C) broken down to 2 NADH molecules that can enter the citric acid cycle.
D) deaminated by the liver and sent to the kidney for excretion in the urine
Metabolic rate is a measurement of the
A) total number of calories consumed per hour.
B) amount of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight.
C) energy used in a given period of time.
D) heat given off by contracting muscles
A) total number of calories consumed per hour.
B) amount of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight.
C) energy used in a given period of time.
D) heat given off by contracting muscles
When an individual is exposed to cold temperatures, total metabolic rate
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) remains constant.
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) remains constant.
Vigorous physical activity causes total metabolic rate to
A) increase for the duration of the exercise.
B) increase during the exercise and for hours afterwards.
C) remain constant.
D) decrease to conserve energy during the exercise but increase to repay oxygen debt.
E) decrease during the exercise and for hours afterwards.
A) increase for the duration of the exercise.
B) increase during the exercise and for hours afterwards.
C) remain constant.
D) decrease to conserve energy during the exercise but increase to repay oxygen debt.
E) decrease during the exercise and for hours afterwards.
Core body temperature is the
A) average temperature across all portions of the body.
B) average body temperature across all hours of the day.
C) temperature of the head and torso.
D) temperature recorded at the center of the long bones of the limbs
A) average temperature across all portions of the body.
B) average body temperature across all hours of the day.
C) temperature of the head and torso.
D) temperature recorded at the center of the long bones of the limbs
Sweating and shivering are necessary adaptations because
A) all parts of the body must remain at normal body temperature to maintain life.
B) the health of vital organs requires a near-normal temperature, and metabolic rate
fluctuates with changes in the environment.
C) to ensure that total metabolic rate remains constant, the body generates or releases
heat as needed.
D) proteins rapidly denature when tissue temperature drops below 98.5°F
A) all parts of the body must remain at normal body temperature to maintain life.
B) the health of vital organs requires a near-normal temperature, and metabolic rate fluctuates with changes in the environment.
C) to ensure that total metabolic rate remains constant, the body generates or releases
heat as needed.
D) proteins rapidly denature when tissue temperature drops below 98.5°F
The area of the brain that provides the primary control of body temperature is the
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebral cortex.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pineal gland.
E) medulla
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebral cortex.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pineal gland.
E) medulla
In response to decreases in body temperature, the brain signals the
A) anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B) anterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone.
C) posterior pituitary to release thyroid-releasing hormone.
D) posterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone.
A) anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B) anterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone.
C) posterior pituitary to release thyroid-releasing hormone.
D) posterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone.
