wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biochem LE3 practice test

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Compared with her twin who is asleep, what happens to JinnY’s oxygen demand in her muscles while she’s brisk-walking?

a)

The same

b)

Zero

c)

Higher

d)

Lower

2.

In a healthy young adult, arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) during moderate exercise (vs. rest) is usually:

a)

About the same

b)

Much lower

c)

Much higher

3.

In a normal person, arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) in the aorta during sleep vs. quiet wakefulness is generally:

a)

Higher during sleep

b)

Essentially the same

c)

Lower during sleep

4.

A finger pulse oximeter is placed on a patient. Which parameter is NOT directly measured by the device?

a)

O2 saturation (SpO2)

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Pulse rate

5.

Which change most directly increases O2 delivery to exercising skeletal muscle?

a)

Higher SaO2

b)

Higher pulse rate

c)

Lower cardiac output

d)

Lower hemoglobin

6.

JinnY’s pulse oximeter reads 60% SpO2, but she’s walking briskly and talking normally. Which explanation is most likely?

a)

Methemoglobinemia

b)

Oximeter probe malposition/poor signal

c)

Pulseless electrical activity

d)

True severe hypoxemia

7.

Which parameter is actually increased in JinnY during brisk walking and helps improve O2 delivery?

a)

None of the above

b)

Blood viscosity

c)

Pulse rate

d)

Deoxyhemoglobin level only

8.

Which factor in exercising muscle shifts the O2–Hb dissociation curve to the right, enhancing O2 unloading?

a)

Higher pH

b)

Lower temperature

c)

Higher PCO2 and temperature

d)

Lower 2,3-BPG

9.

Which histidine residue is absent in fetal hemoglobin (HbF), contributing to its left-shifted O2 dissociation curve (higher O2 affinity)?

a)

β143 His

b)

β8 His

c)

E7 His

10.

Myoglobin has high affinity for oxygen (and even carbon monoxide). Which structural feature promotes tight ligand binding?

a)

Hydrogen bond between ligand (O2) and distal His

b)

Direct Fe2+–proximal His bond alone

c)

Hydrophobic pocket around heme

d)

Protonation of Val in the T-state

11.

In a patient with end-stage renal disease, which hormone–manifestation pair is correct?

a)

Aldosterone – anemia

b)

Erythropoietin – anemia

c)

Renin – rickets

d)

1,25-(OH)2–vitamin D – hypertension

12.

Which enzyme of carbohydrate metabolism is present in the renal cortex (and liver) and allows the kidney to perform gluconeogenesis during prolonged fasting?

a)

Pyruvate kinase

b)

Hexokinase

c)

Phosphofructokinase-1

d)

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

13.

During prolonged fasting, what role does the kidney play in glucose metabolism?

a)

Secretes insulin to stimulate gluconeogenesis

b)

Actively inhibits ketone production

c)

Reabsorbs glucose in the collecting duct

d)

Acts as a gluconeogenic organ

14.

How do the kidneys help regulate intracellular fluid (ICF) osmolarity?

a)

By secreting bicarbonate

b)

By reabsorbing glucose

c)

By adjusting extracellular K+ levels

d)

By storing Na+ in bone

15.

A diabetic patient is started on an SGLT2 inhibitor. What is the most characteristic urinalysis finding?

a)

Marked proteinuria

b)

Ketones only

c)

Leukocyturia

d)

Glucosuria

16.

Which mechanism in the kidney is a major ATP consumer?

a)

Urea recycling

b)

Passive water reabsorption

c)

Na+/K+ exchange across tubular cells

d)

Excretion of HPO4 2−

17.

Who has the lowest percentage of total body water relative to body weight?

a)

Average adult male

b)

Average infant

c)

Thin infant

d)

Obese adult female

18.

A triathlete wants to stay hydrated pre-race but avoid frequent urination. Which beverage would best achieve this?

a)

Coconut water

b)

Milk

c)

Fruit juice

d)

Plain water

19.

A patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus has a mutation in aquaporin-2. What is the main physiologic consequence?

a)

Increased water reabsorption

b)

Reduced ADH secretion

c)

Increased urine output and dehydration

d)

Marked reduction in Na+ reabsorption in collecting ducts

20.

Bonita is dehydrated with metabolic acidosis. Correcting which parameter most directly restores her acid–base status?

a)

Body temperature

b)

PaCO2 alone

c)

Blood pressure/volume

d)

SaO2

21.

At what relationship between pH and pKa does a buffer work best?

a)

pH ≈ pKa

b)

pH > pKa

22.

At pH equal to pKa, which statement about a weak acid buffer is most accurate?

a)

Acid predominates over conjugate base

b)

Buffer is ineffective near this pH

c)

Conjugate base predominates over acid

d)

Acid and conjugate base are equimolar

23.

Which feature makes the bicarbonate buffer effective in blood?

a)

Minimal renal involvement

b)

High concentration of strong acid

c)

Open system with CO2 exhalation

d)

Closed system without gas exchange

24.

A patient retains CO2 due to hypoventilation. What primary acid–base disorder results?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

25.

Loss of gastric contents from vomiting most likely causes which disorder before compensation?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

26.

Which immediate physiologic response helps raise pH during metabolic acidosis?

a)

Hypoventilation decreasing CO2

b)

Hyperventilation decreasing CO2

c)

Hepatic urea production

d)

Renal HCO3− reabsorption

27.

During exercise, which reaction chiefly links rising CO2 to H+ generation in capillaries?

a)

Dissolved CO2 remains inert

b)

Binding of CO2 to globin chains

c)

Carbonic anhydrase hydration of CO2

d)

Chloride shift into cells

28.

An ABG shows low HCO3− with low PaCO2 and near-normal pH. What pattern fits best?

a)

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

b)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

d)

Compensated metabolic acidosis

29.

Which change indicates respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis on ABG?

a)

High HCO3− concentration

b)

Low PaO2 measurement

c)

High PaCO2 measurement

d)

Low PaCO2 measurement

30.

In sepsis with lactic acidosis, labs show low HCO3− and low PaCO2. Which description fits?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis primarily

b)

Metabolic alkalosis primarily

c)

Respiratory acidosis primarily

d)

Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

31.

Which compound is the conjugate base of a weak dicarboxylic acid such as methylmalonate?

a)

Protonated carboxyl group

b)

Neutral carboxylic acid form

c)

Deprotonated carboxylate anion

d)

Esterified carboxyl group

32.

Which extrahepatic reaction lowers circulating ammonia by forming a nontoxic carrier?

a)

Oxidative deamination of glutamate

b)

Amination forming glutamine

c)

Hydroxylation of phenylalanine

d)

Transamination to α-ketoglutarate

33.

Which enzyme catalyzes conversion of glutamate and NH3 to glutamine using ATP?

a)

Glutamine synthetase

b)

Glutamate dehydrogenase

c)

Alanine aminotransferase

d)

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

34.

During starvation, which amino acid transports carbon and nitrogen from muscle to liver for gluconeogenesis and urea formation?

a)

Aspartate

b)

Alanine

c)

Glutamine

d)

Glutamate

35.

Under normal physiology, what is the primary fate of phenylalanine in catabolism?

a)

Direct conversion to fumarate

b)

Deamination to phenylpyruvate

c)

Hydroxylation to tyrosine

d)

Decarboxylation to dopamine

36.

Which amino acid yields both acetoacetate and fumarate upon catabolism?

a)

Isoleucine

b)

Leucine

c)

Lysine

d)

Phenylalanine

e)

Tyrosine

37.

Which amino acid is catabolized to succinyl‑CoA, serving as a glucogenic substrate during fasting?

a)

Isoleucine

b)

Leucine

c)

Lysine

d)

Phenylalanine

38.

Which amino acid is degraded via the kynurenine pathway and can be used to synthesize NAD+?

a)

Tyrosine

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Phenylalanine

d)

Methionine

39.

A 40‑year‑old with seizures after aspartame ingestion likely has deficiency of which enzyme?

a)

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

b)

Tyrosine hydroxylase

c)

Dihydropteridine reductase

d)

Cystathionine β‑synthase

40.

Which intermediate of the urea cycle also participates directly in the TCA cycle?

a)

Fumarate

b)

Aspartate

c)

Citrulline

d)

Carbamoyl phosphate

41.

Which enzyme cleaves argininosuccinate to produce arginine and fumarate in the urea cycle?

a)

Ornithine transcarbamylase

b)

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

c)

Argininosuccinate lyase

d)

Arginase

42.

Which mitochondrial enzyme catalyzes the committed, rate-limiting step of the urea cycle?

a)

Ornithine transcarbamylase

b)

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

c)

Argininosuccinate synthetase

d)

Arginase

43.

Which compound is the immediate precursor of ornithine formation in the urea cycle?

a)

Carbamoyl phosphate

b)

Argininosuccinate

c)

Arginine

d)

Aspartate

44.

A 2‑day‑old infant has hyperammonemia, respiratory alkalosis, and markedly elevated orotic acid. Which urea‑cycle enzyme is most likely deficient?

a)

Argininosuccinate synthetase

b)

Arginase

c)

Ornithine transcarbamylase

d)

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

45.

Which therapy most directly lowers blood ammonia in ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency?

a)

Niacin supplementation

b)

Arginine supplementation

c)

Sodium benzoate administration

d)

Hippurate administration

46.

After a very high‑fat meal, which substrate–pathway pair best explains increased triacylglycerol (TAG) synthesis?

a)

Increased amino acids leading to urea formation

b)

Increased acetyl‑CoA leading to TAG synthesis

c)

Increased amino acids leading to protein synthesis

d)

Increased acetyl‑CoA leading to ketone body synthesis

47.

In obesity with metabolic syndrome, which mechanism explains TNF‑alpha–induced hyperglycemia?

a)

Increased ectopic free fatty acids alone

b)

Impaired GLUT4 translocation or function

c)

Incomplete oxidation of glucose

d)

Enlarged GLUT4 vesicles accumulation

48.

Which sequence best reflects liver metabolism from 7 AM after breakfast to 7 AM the next day during overnight fast?

a)

Glycogenolysis then lipolysis then gluconeogenesis then glycolysis

b)

Glycolysis then glycogenesis then glycogenolysis then lipolysis then gluconeogenesis

c)

Gluconeogenesis then glycogenesis then glycolysis then lipolysis

d)

Lipolysis then glycogenolysis then glycolysis then glycogenesis then gluconeogenesis

49.

During overnight fasting, which event occurs in adipose and peripheral tissues?

a)

Fatty acids are transported to tissues for oxidation

b)

Chylomicrons deliver dietary TAG to adipose

c)

Brain relies mainly on ketone bodies

d)

Lipids are stored in muscle

50.

On day 3 of total fasting, which substrate contributes most to hepatic gluconeogenesis to maintain blood glucose?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Glycerol

c)

Fructose‑2,6‑bisphosphate

d)

Dietary glucose

51.

A patient with a glucagon‑secreting pancreatic tumor is most likely to show which clinical course?

a)

Weight loss with muscle wasting

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Increased hepatic glycolysis

d)

Decreased lipolysis

52.

Approximately what percent of circulating free fatty acids released from adipose TAGs are re‑esterified back to TAGs in adipose tissue rather than oxidized?

a)

About fifty percent

b)

Nearly zero percent

c)

About twenty‑five percent

d)

About seventy‑five percent

53.

Paper‑partition chromatography separates amino acids primarily based on which property?

a)

Interaction with lipids

b)

Binding to specific ligands

c)

Partition between solvent and water in paper

d)

Stokes radius in solution

54.

In cation‑exchange chromatography, the stationary phase typically carries which functional group?

a)

Ammonium groups

b)

Polyalkylamine chains

c)

Polystyrene matrix alone

d)

Sulfonyl groups

55.

If the pH is raised above the pKa of an amino acid side chain, that group tends to become which charge state?

a)

Negatively charged for acidic side chains

b)

Positively charged regardless of type

c)

Neutral under all conditions

d)

Variably charged in random fashion

56.

Which gradient is commonly used to elute bound cations from a cation‑exchange column?

a)

Lowering salt concentration progressively

b)

Resin with positive groups added

c)

pH gradient from acidic to neutral to basic

d)

Decreasing buffer concentration over time

57.

The retention factor Rf in paper chromatography is defined as which ratio?

a)

Solute distance to paper height

b)

Solute distance to solvent distance

c)

Solvent distance to paper height

d)

Solvent distance to solute distance

58.

In an ascending paper chromatography experiment, an amino acid migrates 4 cm while the solvent front migrates 5 cm. What is the Rf value?

a)

One fifth

b)

Two fifths

c)

Three fifths

d)

Four fifths

59.

Using an ethanol‑rich mobile phase in paper chromatography, which amino acid type is expected to travel the farthest?

a)

Very polar with strong hydrophilicity

b)

Insoluble in ethanol side chains

c)

Highly reactive side chain residues

d)

Small, non‑polar amino acids

60.

Which glycolytic enzyme deficiency in erythrocytes most commonly causes chronic hemolytic anemia due to low ATP?

a)

Hexokinase deficiency in red cells

b)

Pyruvate kinase deficiency in red cells

c)

Phosphofructokinase deficiency in red cells

d)

Enolase deficiency in red cells

61.

Glucokinase is predominantly expressed in which tissues to buffer postprandial hyperglycemia?

a)

Skeletal muscle and adipose

b)

Liver and pancreatic beta cells

c)

Kidney and intestine

d)

Brain and erythrocytes

62.

Compared with hexokinase, glucokinase characteristically exhibits which kinetic profile?

a)

Lower Km and lower Vmax

b)

Lower Km and higher Vmax

c)

Higher Km and lower Vmax

d)

Higher Km and higher Vmax

63.

In the Cori cycle, what metabolite is transported from anaerobic muscle to the liver for conversion back to glucose?

a)

Lactate from anaerobic glycolysis

b)

Pyruvate from glycolysis

c)

Glycerol from adipose

d)

Alanine from transamination

64.

The first committed step of glycogenesis is best described as which reaction?

a)

Glucose phosphorylation to glucose‑6‑phosphate

b)

Addition of glucose to glycogen primer

c)

Formation of UDP‑glucose from G1P

d)

Isomerization of G6P to G1P

65.

Which enzyme elongates glycogen by forming alpha‑1,4 glycosidic bonds at non‑reducing ends?

a)

Debranching enzyme complex

b)

Branching enzyme activity

c)

Glycogen synthase enzyme

d)

Glycogenin protein primer

66.

The branching enzyme creates which linkages to increase glycogen solubility and rapid mobilization?

a)

Beta‑1,6 branch linkages

b)

Alpha‑1,4 only linkages

c)

Beta‑1,4 only linkages

d)

Alpha‑1,6 branch linkages

67.

What is the rate‑limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis that releases glucose‑1‑phosphate?

a)

Debranching enzyme complex

b)

Phosphoglucomutase isomerase

c)

Glycogen synthase in cytosol

d)

Glycogen phosphorylase enzyme

68.

Skeletal muscle cannot export free glucose during glycogen breakdown because it lacks which enzyme?

a)

Phosphoglucomutase isomerase

b)

Hexokinase catalytic activity

c)

Glycogen phosphorylase enzyme

d)

Glucose‑6‑phosphatase enzyme

69.

During an overnight fast of approximately 8–12 hours, which organ is the primary source of blood glucose?

a)

Working skeletal muscle

b)

Brain oxidation only

c)

Adipose tissue stores

d)

Liver glycogen mainly

70.

A deficiency of muscle glycogen phosphorylase presents as exercise intolerance and myoglobinuria. What disorder is this?

a)

Von Gierke disease type I

b)

Pompe disease type II

c)

Cori disease type III

d)

McArdle disease type V

71.

Which hormone most directly stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis via cAMP signaling?

a)

Glucagon secreted in fasting

b)

Insulin released postprandially

c)

Cortisol steroid hormone

d)

Somatostatin paracrine factor

72.

Which substrate is NOT a major carbon source for gluconeogenesis?

a)

Palmitate from beta‑oxidation

b)

Glycerol from lipolysis

c)

Alanine from muscle

d)

Lactate from Cori cycle

73.

Which enzyme pair bypasses the irreversible pyruvate kinase step during gluconeogenesis?

a)

Malate dehydrogenase pair

b)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

c)

Pyruvate carboxylase then PEP carboxykinase

d)

Lactate dehydrogenase enzyme

74.

Pyruvate carboxylase requires which covalently bound cofactor to carry CO2?

a)

Biotin prosthetic group

b)

Thiamine pyrophosphate

c)

Pyridoxal phosphate

d)

Cobalamin coenzyme

75.

Which clinical finding suggests impaired gluconeogenesis during fasting?

a)

Increased hepatic glycogen stores

b)

Hypoglycemia during overnight fast

c)

High serum ketones with normal glucose

d)

Hyperglycemia in prolonged fast

76.

In hepatocytes, fructose‑2,6‑bisphosphate acts primarily to do what?

a)

Activate PFK‑1 and inhibit FBPase‑1

b)

Have no role in carbohydrate metabolism

c)

Inhibit phosphofructokinase‑1 enzyme

d)

Activate fructose‑1,6‑bisphosphatase

77.

During prolonged fasting, which amino acid is most important for renal gluconeogenesis and acid excretion?

a)

Phenylalanine aromatic acid

b)

Lysine as ketogenic amino acid

c)

Glutamine generating NH4+

d)

Alanine from muscle proteolysis

78.

Ethanol intoxication elevates hepatic NADH. Which reaction is driven forward, lowering gluconeogenic precursors and causing hypoglycemia?

a)

G6P converted to glucose

b)

Pyruvate converted to lactate

c)

Lactate converted to pyruvate

d)

Oxaloacetate converted to malate

79.

In the fed state with high insulin, which pathways in liver are most active?

a)

Glycogenolysis and lipolysis

b)

Ketogenesis and beta‑oxidation

c)

Glycogenesis and glycolysis

d)

Gluconeogenesis predominates

80.

Which enzyme is inhibited by ATP and citrate in glycolysis?

a)

PFK-1

b)

Hexokinase

c)

Enolase

d)

Aldolase

81.

In a well-oxygenated resting muscle, most pyruvate from glycolysis is converted to:

a)

Acetyl-CoA

b)

Alanine

c)

Oxaloacetate

d)

Lactate

82.

Which glycolytic intermediate is also a precursor of 2,3-BPG in RBCs?

a)

G6P

b)

PEP

c)

F1,6-BP

d)

1,3-BPG

83.

In liver, glucagon via cAMP leads to phosphorylation that:

a)

Activates glycogen phosphorylase and inactivates glycogen synthase

b)

Has no effect on glycogen metabolism

c)

Activates glycogen synthase

d)

Inactivates glycogen phosphorylase

84.

The net ATP gain from anaerobic glycolysis (glucose → 2 lactate) is:

a)

2 ATP

b)

1 ATP

c)

0 ATP

d)

4 ATP

85.

A drug inhibiting enolase would cause accumulation of:

a)

2-Phosphoglycerate

b)

3-Phosphoglycerate

c)

PEP

d)

Lactate

86.

Von Gierke disease (type I glycogen storage disease) is caused by deficiency of:

a)

Branching enzyme

b)

Debranching enzyme

c)

Glucose-6-phosphatase

d)

Glycogen phosphorylase

87.

The main site of de novo fatty acid synthesis is:

a)

Mitochondrial matrix

b)

Cytosol of liver and adipose cells

c)

Cytosol of RBCs

d)

Lysosomes

88.

The immediate precursor for fatty acid synthesis is:

a)

Malonyl-CoA

b)

Citrate

c)

Oxaloacetate

d)

Pyruvate

89.

Cytosolic acetyl-CoA for FA synthesis is derived from mitochondrial acetyl-CoA via export of:

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Citrate

c)

Malate

d)

Oxaloacetate

90.

Malonyl-CoA inhibits:

a)

Fatty acid synthase

b)

Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT I)

c)

Hormone-sensitive lipase

d)

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

91.

Which hormone profile promotes lipogenesis?

a)

High cortisol, low insulin

b)

High epinephrine, high glucagon

c)

High insulin, low glucagon

d)

High glucagon, low insulin

92.

In uncontrolled type 1 diabetes, increased lipolysis in adipose tissue is due to:

a)

Activation of lipoprotein lipase

b)

Decreased catecholamines

c)

Activation of hormone-sensitive lipase

d)

High insulin levels

93.

Which tissue is the primary producer of ketone bodies?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Liver

c)

Heart

d)

Brain

94.

In prolonged fasting, ketone bodies are used as major fuels by:

a)

RBCs

b)

Liver

c)

Brain

d)

Intestinal mucosa

95.

Ketone body synthesis is favored when:

a)

High insulin promotes TCA flux

b)

Oxaloacetate is depleted for gluconeogenesis

c)

Oxaloacetate is plentiful

d)

Glycolysis is very active

96.

The primary ketone body measured in blood (and correlated with severity) is:

a)

Acetone

b)

Acetoacetate

c)

β-Hydroxybutyrate

d)

3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA

97.

In diabetic ketoacidosis, which statement is true?

a)

Excess acetyl-CoA is diverted to ketogenesis

b)

Glucagon promotes lipogenesis

c)

Insulin levels are high

d)

OAA accumulates

98.

During an overnight fast, which source provides glycerol for gluconeogenesis?

a)

Dietary TAG

b)

Adipose tissue TAG breakdown

c)

Muscle glycogen

d)

Liver glycogen

99.

Which enzyme is shared by both FA synthesis and degradation pathways?

a)

None; pathways are distinct

b)

3-Hydroxyacyl dehydrogenase

c)

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

d)

Carnitine acyltransferase II

100.

Which lipoprotein is most associated with transporting dietary TAG from intestine to tissues?

a)

LDL

b)

VLDL

c)

HDL

d)

Chylomicrons

101.

Which lipoprotein primarily returns cholesterol from tissues to liver?

a)

Chylomicrons

b)

HDL

c)

VLDL

d)

LDL

102.

In the post-absorptive state (3–5 h after a meal), which pathways are active in liver?

a)

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

b)

Glycogenesis and ketogenesis

c)

Glycolysis and lipogenesis

d)

Ketogenesis and lipogenesis

103.

Which hormone directly activates lipoprotein lipase (LPL) in adipose tissue?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Glucagon

c)

Insulin

d)

Epinephrine

104.

In a high-carbohydrate diet, excess glucose is converted to fatty acids. The key regulatory step in FA synthesis is catalyzed by:

a)

HMG-CoA reductase

b)

Carnitine acyltransferase

c)

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

d)

FA synthase

105.

Which metabolic state shows highest ketone body production?

a)

Well-fed

b)

Early fasting (3–6 h)

c)

Prolonged fasting (>72 h)

d)

Immediately postprandial

106.

During prolonged exercise, which source becomes increasingly important for muscle energy?

a)

Brain ketone bodies

b)

Free fatty acids from adipose tissue

c)

Muscle glycogen only

d)

Liver glycogen only

107.

An aminotransferase uses which cofactor to transfer amino groups?

a)

FAD

b)

Thiamine pyrophosphate

c)

Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)

d)

Biotin

108.

The typical pair in aminotransferase reactions is:

a)

Alanine/pyruvate

b)

Aspartate/oxaloacetate

c)

All of the above

d)

Glutamate/α-ketoglutarate

109.

The reaction alanine + α-ketoglutarate ↔ pyruvate + glutamate is catalyzed by:

a)

AST

b)

ALT

c)

Glutamate dehydrogenase

d)

Glutamine synthetase

110.

Which enzyme releases free NH3 directly from glutamate in liver mitochondria?

a)

Glutamate dehydrogenase

b)

Glutamine synthetase

c)

ALT

d)

AST

111.

Which cofactor is required for glutamate dehydrogenase in oxidative deamination?

a)

Biotin

b)

FAD

c)

NAD+ or NADP+

d)

PLP

112.

In extrahepatic tissues, most ammonia is transported to liver in the form of:

a)

Free NH3

b)

Urea

c)

Glutamine and alanine

d)

Asparagine

113.

A neonate with lethargy and vomiting has hyperammonemia, low BUN, and elevated glutamine. Most likely defect:

a)

Ornithine aminotransferase

b)

Glutamine synthetase

c)

Arginase

d)

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

114.

Which amino acid provides the second nitrogen of urea (in argininosuccinate synthetase reaction)?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Glutamine

c)

Aspartate

d)

Alanine

115.

Urea synthesis occurs primarily in:

a)

Kidney

b)

Muscle

c)

Intestine

d)

Liver

116.

A patient has hyperammonemia and very low citrulline levels. The most likely enzyme defect is:

a)

CPS I

b)

OTC

c)

Argininosuccinate lyase

d)

Arginase

117.

Elevated blood levels of argininosuccinate suggest deficiency of:

a)

CPS I

b)

Argininosuccinate synthetase

c)

Argininosuccinate lyase

d)

Arginase

118.

Which treatment helps urea cycle disorders by providing an alternative route for nitrogen excretion?

a)

High-fat diet

b)

Sodium benzoate or phenylacetate therapy

c)

Low-carbohydrate diet

d)

High-protein diet

119.

The energetic cost of forming one molecule of urea is approximately:

a)

3 ATP equivalents

b)

4 ATP equivalents

c)

2 ATP equivalents

d)

1 ATP

120.

Branched-chain amino acid (BCAA) oxidation defects, like in Maple Syrup Urine Disease, primarily affect metabolism of:

a)

Lysine and tryptophan

b)

Phenylalanine and tyrosine

c)

Methionine and cysteine

d)

Valine, leucine, isoleucine

121.

A 6-month-old infant has musty odor, eczema, and seizures. Labs show elevated phenylalanine and low tyrosine. Which diet modification is appropriate?

a)

High methionine

b)

High phenylalanine

c)

Low phenylalanine, adequate tyrosine

d)

High tyrosine and phenylalanine

122.

In homocystinuria due to cystathionine β-synthase deficiency, which vitamin may partially improve symptoms?

a)

Niacin

b)

Riboflavin

c)

Pyridoxine (B6)

d)

Biotin

123.

In the glucose–alanine cycle, alanine released from muscle is converted in the liver to:

a)

Oxaloacetate and NH3

b)

Pyruvate and urea

c)

Lactate and alanine

d)

Glutamine and fumarate

124.

Which amino acid is both a neurotransmitter and a precursor to GABA?

a)

Glycine

b)

Serine

c)

Aspartate

d)

Glutamate

125.

The side chain of histidine can act as a good buffer near physiological pH because its imidazole group has a pKa near:

a)

6

b)

4

c)

2

d)

10

126.

Which amino acid is precursor for serotonin?

a)

Tyrosine

b)

Histidine

c)

Tryptophan

d)

Phenylalanine

127.

Which amino acid is strictly ketogenic?

a)

Isoleucine

b)

Threonine

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Lysine

128.

A deficiency in arginase will lead to:

a)

Hyperammonemia with high arginine

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Increased fumarate

d)

Hypoammonemia

129.

Ornithine is structurally similar to which TCA intermediate?

a)

Oxaloacetate

b)

α-Ketoglutarate

c)

Lysine

d)

Aspartate

130.

A buffer is strongest when acid equals conjugate base. At this point, the pH:

a)

Is unrelated to pKa

b)

Is 2 units below the pKa

c)

Equals the pKa

d)

Is 1 unit above the pKa

131.

The main extracellular buffer system is:

a)

Protein buffer

b)

Bicarbonate buffer

c)

Hemoglobin buffer

d)

Phosphate buffer

132.

The major intracellular buffer in RBCs is:

a)

Phosphate

b)

Lactate

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Bicarbonate

133.

Phosphate buffer is more important in:

a)

Plasma

b)

RBCs

c)

Interstitial fluid

d)

Renal tubular fluid

134.

The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation for the bicarbonate buffer is:

a)

pH = pKa + log([HCO3−]/[CO2])

b)

pH = pKa + log([CO2]/[HCO3−])

c)

pH = pKa + log([H+]/[HCO3−])

d)

pH = pKa + log([HCO3−]/[H+])

135.

A patient has ABG: pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3− 23 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH alkalotic, PaCO2 alkalotic, HCO3− normal. What is the primary disorder?

a)

Mixed alkalosis

b)

Normal

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

136.

ABG: pH 7.25, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3− 24 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH acidotic, PaCO2 acidotic, HCO3− normal. Primary disorder?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

d)

Mixed

137.

ABG: pH 7.10, PaCO2 20 mmHg, HCO3− 6 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH acidotic, PaCO2 alkalotic, HCO3− acidotic. Interpretation:

a)

Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

b)

Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation

c)

Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis

d)

Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

138.

ABG: pH 6.90, PaCO2 68 mmHg, HCO3− 13 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH acidotic, PaCO2 acidotic, HCO3− acidotic. Best description:

a)

Pure metabolic acidosis

b)

Pure respiratory acidosis

c)

Normal

d)

Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis

139.

For Bonita: pH 7.30, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3− 15 mEq/L (given). The absolute difference in tic-tac-toe for HCO3− vs normal (24) is:

a)

3

b)

15

c)

7

d)

9

140.

A patient with metabolic alkalosis (HCO3− 36 mEq/L) shows which expected compensatory change?

a)

Increased H+ excretion

b)

Hyperventilation → PaCO2 ↓

c)

Hyperventilation → PaCO2 ↑

d)

Increased HCO3− excretion

141.

A mountain climber at high altitude develops pH 7.50, PaCO2 28 mmHg, HCO3− 20 mEq/L. This reflects:

a)

Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

b)

Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation

c)

Mixed acidosis

d)

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

142.

In lactic acidosis, buffering by bicarbonate produces increased:

a)

H+

b)

HCO3−

c)

NH4+

d)

H2CO3, then CO2 exhalation

143.

Which HCO3− level is most consistent with chronic respiratory acidosis (compensated)?

a)

24 mEq/L

b)

30 mEq/L

c)

10 mEq/L

d)

18 mEq/L

144.

Diarrhea primarily causes:

a)

Loss of HCl → metabolic alkalosis

b)

Loss of HCO3− → metabolic acidosis

c)

Loss of water only → no acid–base change

d)

Loss of phosphate → metabolic alkalosis

145.

Vomiting primarily causes:

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

146.

A patient with salicylate intoxication initially shows:

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

No acid–base change

147.

The anion gap is calculated as:

a)

Na+ + K+ − (Cl− + HCO3−)

b)

Na+ − (K+ + HCO3−)

c)

Cl− + HCO3− − Na+

d)

Na+ − (Cl− + HCO3−)

148.

High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in all EXCEPT:

a)

Lactic acidosis

b)

Ketoacidosis

c)

Methanol poisoning

d)

Diarrhea

149.

In renal failure, metabolic acidosis occurs mainly due to:

a)

Increased CO2 production

b)

Loss of HCl

c)

Increased phosphate excretion

d)

Accumulation of non-volatile acids and ↓ H+ excretion