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WorksheetsBiochem LE3 practice test
Total questions: 149
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Compared with her twin who is asleep, what happens to JinnY’s oxygen demand in her muscles while she’s brisk-walking?
The same
Zero
Higher
Lower
In a healthy young adult, arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) during moderate exercise (vs. rest) is usually:
About the same
Much lower
Much higher
In a normal person, arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) in the aorta during sleep vs. quiet wakefulness is generally:
Higher during sleep
Essentially the same
Lower during sleep
A finger pulse oximeter is placed on a patient. Which parameter is NOT directly measured by the device?
O2 saturation (SpO2)
Blood pressure
Pulse rate
Which change most directly increases O2 delivery to exercising skeletal muscle?
Higher SaO2
Higher pulse rate
Lower cardiac output
Lower hemoglobin
JinnY’s pulse oximeter reads 60% SpO2, but she’s walking briskly and talking normally. Which explanation is most likely?
Methemoglobinemia
Oximeter probe malposition/poor signal
Pulseless electrical activity
True severe hypoxemia
Which parameter is actually increased in JinnY during brisk walking and helps improve O2 delivery?
None of the above
Blood viscosity
Pulse rate
Deoxyhemoglobin level only
Which factor in exercising muscle shifts the O2–Hb dissociation curve to the right, enhancing O2 unloading?
Higher pH
Lower temperature
Higher PCO2 and temperature
Lower 2,3-BPG
Which histidine residue is absent in fetal hemoglobin (HbF), contributing to its left-shifted O2 dissociation curve (higher O2 affinity)?
β143 His
β8 His
E7 His
Myoglobin has high affinity for oxygen (and even carbon monoxide). Which structural feature promotes tight ligand binding?
Hydrogen bond between ligand (O2) and distal His
Direct Fe2+–proximal His bond alone
Hydrophobic pocket around heme
Protonation of Val in the T-state
In a patient with end-stage renal disease, which hormone–manifestation pair is correct?
Aldosterone – anemia
Erythropoietin – anemia
Renin – rickets
1,25-(OH)2–vitamin D – hypertension
Which enzyme of carbohydrate metabolism is present in the renal cortex (and liver) and allows the kidney to perform gluconeogenesis during prolonged fasting?
Pyruvate kinase
Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
During prolonged fasting, what role does the kidney play in glucose metabolism?
Secretes insulin to stimulate gluconeogenesis
Actively inhibits ketone production
Reabsorbs glucose in the collecting duct
Acts as a gluconeogenic organ
How do the kidneys help regulate intracellular fluid (ICF) osmolarity?
By secreting bicarbonate
By reabsorbing glucose
By adjusting extracellular K+ levels
By storing Na+ in bone
A diabetic patient is started on an SGLT2 inhibitor. What is the most characteristic urinalysis finding?
Marked proteinuria
Ketones only
Leukocyturia
Glucosuria
Which mechanism in the kidney is a major ATP consumer?
Urea recycling
Passive water reabsorption
Na+/K+ exchange across tubular cells
Excretion of HPO4 2−
Who has the lowest percentage of total body water relative to body weight?
Average adult male
Average infant
Thin infant
Obese adult female
A triathlete wants to stay hydrated pre-race but avoid frequent urination. Which beverage would best achieve this?
Coconut water
Milk
Fruit juice
Plain water
A patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus has a mutation in aquaporin-2. What is the main physiologic consequence?
Increased water reabsorption
Reduced ADH secretion
Increased urine output and dehydration
Marked reduction in Na+ reabsorption in collecting ducts
Bonita is dehydrated with metabolic acidosis. Correcting which parameter most directly restores her acid–base status?
Body temperature
PaCO2 alone
Blood pressure/volume
SaO2
At what relationship between pH and pKa does a buffer work best?
pH ≈ pKa
pH > pKa
At pH equal to pKa, which statement about a weak acid buffer is most accurate?
Acid predominates over conjugate base
Buffer is ineffective near this pH
Conjugate base predominates over acid
Acid and conjugate base are equimolar
Which feature makes the bicarbonate buffer effective in blood?
Minimal renal involvement
High concentration of strong acid
Open system with CO2 exhalation
Closed system without gas exchange
A patient retains CO2 due to hypoventilation. What primary acid–base disorder results?
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Loss of gastric contents from vomiting most likely causes which disorder before compensation?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Which immediate physiologic response helps raise pH during metabolic acidosis?
Hypoventilation decreasing CO2
Hyperventilation decreasing CO2
Hepatic urea production
Renal HCO3− reabsorption
During exercise, which reaction chiefly links rising CO2 to H+ generation in capillaries?
Dissolved CO2 remains inert
Binding of CO2 to globin chains
Carbonic anhydrase hydration of CO2
Chloride shift into cells
An ABG shows low HCO3− with low PaCO2 and near-normal pH. What pattern fits best?
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Compensated respiratory acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Which change indicates respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis on ABG?
High HCO3− concentration
Low PaO2 measurement
High PaCO2 measurement
Low PaCO2 measurement
In sepsis with lactic acidosis, labs show low HCO3− and low PaCO2. Which description fits?
Respiratory alkalosis primarily
Metabolic alkalosis primarily
Respiratory acidosis primarily
Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Which compound is the conjugate base of a weak dicarboxylic acid such as methylmalonate?
Protonated carboxyl group
Neutral carboxylic acid form
Deprotonated carboxylate anion
Esterified carboxyl group
Which extrahepatic reaction lowers circulating ammonia by forming a nontoxic carrier?
Oxidative deamination of glutamate
Amination forming glutamine
Hydroxylation of phenylalanine
Transamination to α-ketoglutarate
Which enzyme catalyzes conversion of glutamate and NH3 to glutamine using ATP?
Glutamine synthetase
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Alanine aminotransferase
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
During starvation, which amino acid transports carbon and nitrogen from muscle to liver for gluconeogenesis and urea formation?
Aspartate
Alanine
Glutamine
Glutamate
Under normal physiology, what is the primary fate of phenylalanine in catabolism?
Direct conversion to fumarate
Deamination to phenylpyruvate
Hydroxylation to tyrosine
Decarboxylation to dopamine
Which amino acid yields both acetoacetate and fumarate upon catabolism?
Isoleucine
Leucine
Lysine
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
Which amino acid is catabolized to succinyl‑CoA, serving as a glucogenic substrate during fasting?
Isoleucine
Leucine
Lysine
Phenylalanine
Which amino acid is degraded via the kynurenine pathway and can be used to synthesize NAD+?
Tyrosine
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Methionine
A 40‑year‑old with seizures after aspartame ingestion likely has deficiency of which enzyme?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Dihydropteridine reductase
Cystathionine β‑synthase
Which intermediate of the urea cycle also participates directly in the TCA cycle?
Fumarate
Aspartate
Citrulline
Carbamoyl phosphate
Which enzyme cleaves argininosuccinate to produce arginine and fumarate in the urea cycle?
Ornithine transcarbamylase
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Argininosuccinate lyase
Arginase
Which mitochondrial enzyme catalyzes the committed, rate-limiting step of the urea cycle?
Ornithine transcarbamylase
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Argininosuccinate synthetase
Arginase
Which compound is the immediate precursor of ornithine formation in the urea cycle?
Carbamoyl phosphate
Argininosuccinate
Arginine
Aspartate
A 2‑day‑old infant has hyperammonemia, respiratory alkalosis, and markedly elevated orotic acid. Which urea‑cycle enzyme is most likely deficient?
Argininosuccinate synthetase
Arginase
Ornithine transcarbamylase
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Which therapy most directly lowers blood ammonia in ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency?
Niacin supplementation
Arginine supplementation
Sodium benzoate administration
Hippurate administration
After a very high‑fat meal, which substrate–pathway pair best explains increased triacylglycerol (TAG) synthesis?
Increased amino acids leading to urea formation
Increased acetyl‑CoA leading to TAG synthesis
Increased amino acids leading to protein synthesis
Increased acetyl‑CoA leading to ketone body synthesis
In obesity with metabolic syndrome, which mechanism explains TNF‑alpha–induced hyperglycemia?
Increased ectopic free fatty acids alone
Impaired GLUT4 translocation or function
Incomplete oxidation of glucose
Enlarged GLUT4 vesicles accumulation
Which sequence best reflects liver metabolism from 7 AM after breakfast to 7 AM the next day during overnight fast?
Glycogenolysis then lipolysis then gluconeogenesis then glycolysis
Glycolysis then glycogenesis then glycogenolysis then lipolysis then gluconeogenesis
Gluconeogenesis then glycogenesis then glycolysis then lipolysis
Lipolysis then glycogenolysis then glycolysis then glycogenesis then gluconeogenesis
During overnight fasting, which event occurs in adipose and peripheral tissues?
Fatty acids are transported to tissues for oxidation
Chylomicrons deliver dietary TAG to adipose
Brain relies mainly on ketone bodies
Lipids are stored in muscle
On day 3 of total fasting, which substrate contributes most to hepatic gluconeogenesis to maintain blood glucose?
Glycogen
Glycerol
Fructose‑2,6‑bisphosphate
Dietary glucose
A patient with a glucagon‑secreting pancreatic tumor is most likely to show which clinical course?
Weight loss with muscle wasting
Hypoglycemia
Increased hepatic glycolysis
Decreased lipolysis
Approximately what percent of circulating free fatty acids released from adipose TAGs are re‑esterified back to TAGs in adipose tissue rather than oxidized?
About fifty percent
Nearly zero percent
About twenty‑five percent
About seventy‑five percent
Paper‑partition chromatography separates amino acids primarily based on which property?
Interaction with lipids
Binding to specific ligands
Partition between solvent and water in paper
Stokes radius in solution
In cation‑exchange chromatography, the stationary phase typically carries which functional group?
Ammonium groups
Polyalkylamine chains
Polystyrene matrix alone
Sulfonyl groups
If the pH is raised above the pKa of an amino acid side chain, that group tends to become which charge state?
Negatively charged for acidic side chains
Positively charged regardless of type
Neutral under all conditions
Variably charged in random fashion
Which gradient is commonly used to elute bound cations from a cation‑exchange column?
Lowering salt concentration progressively
Resin with positive groups added
pH gradient from acidic to neutral to basic
Decreasing buffer concentration over time
The retention factor Rf in paper chromatography is defined as which ratio?
Solute distance to paper height
Solute distance to solvent distance
Solvent distance to paper height
Solvent distance to solute distance
In an ascending paper chromatography experiment, an amino acid migrates 4 cm while the solvent front migrates 5 cm. What is the Rf value?
One fifth
Two fifths
Three fifths
Four fifths
Using an ethanol‑rich mobile phase in paper chromatography, which amino acid type is expected to travel the farthest?
Very polar with strong hydrophilicity
Insoluble in ethanol side chains
Highly reactive side chain residues
Small, non‑polar amino acids
Which glycolytic enzyme deficiency in erythrocytes most commonly causes chronic hemolytic anemia due to low ATP?
Hexokinase deficiency in red cells
Pyruvate kinase deficiency in red cells
Phosphofructokinase deficiency in red cells
Enolase deficiency in red cells
Glucokinase is predominantly expressed in which tissues to buffer postprandial hyperglycemia?
Skeletal muscle and adipose
Liver and pancreatic beta cells
Kidney and intestine
Brain and erythrocytes
Compared with hexokinase, glucokinase characteristically exhibits which kinetic profile?
Lower Km and lower Vmax
Lower Km and higher Vmax
Higher Km and lower Vmax
Higher Km and higher Vmax
In the Cori cycle, what metabolite is transported from anaerobic muscle to the liver for conversion back to glucose?
Lactate from anaerobic glycolysis
Pyruvate from glycolysis
Glycerol from adipose
Alanine from transamination
The first committed step of glycogenesis is best described as which reaction?
Glucose phosphorylation to glucose‑6‑phosphate
Addition of glucose to glycogen primer
Formation of UDP‑glucose from G1P
Isomerization of G6P to G1P
Which enzyme elongates glycogen by forming alpha‑1,4 glycosidic bonds at non‑reducing ends?
Debranching enzyme complex
Branching enzyme activity
Glycogen synthase enzyme
Glycogenin protein primer
The branching enzyme creates which linkages to increase glycogen solubility and rapid mobilization?
Beta‑1,6 branch linkages
Alpha‑1,4 only linkages
Beta‑1,4 only linkages
Alpha‑1,6 branch linkages
What is the rate‑limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis that releases glucose‑1‑phosphate?
Debranching enzyme complex
Phosphoglucomutase isomerase
Glycogen synthase in cytosol
Glycogen phosphorylase enzyme
Skeletal muscle cannot export free glucose during glycogen breakdown because it lacks which enzyme?
Phosphoglucomutase isomerase
Hexokinase catalytic activity
Glycogen phosphorylase enzyme
Glucose‑6‑phosphatase enzyme
During an overnight fast of approximately 8–12 hours, which organ is the primary source of blood glucose?
Working skeletal muscle
Brain oxidation only
Adipose tissue stores
Liver glycogen mainly
A deficiency of muscle glycogen phosphorylase presents as exercise intolerance and myoglobinuria. What disorder is this?
Von Gierke disease type I
Pompe disease type II
Cori disease type III
McArdle disease type V
Which hormone most directly stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis via cAMP signaling?
Glucagon secreted in fasting
Insulin released postprandially
Cortisol steroid hormone
Somatostatin paracrine factor
Which substrate is NOT a major carbon source for gluconeogenesis?
Palmitate from beta‑oxidation
Glycerol from lipolysis
Alanine from muscle
Lactate from Cori cycle
Which enzyme pair bypasses the irreversible pyruvate kinase step during gluconeogenesis?
Malate dehydrogenase pair
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
Pyruvate carboxylase then PEP carboxykinase
Lactate dehydrogenase enzyme
Pyruvate carboxylase requires which covalently bound cofactor to carry CO2?
Biotin prosthetic group
Thiamine pyrophosphate
Pyridoxal phosphate
Cobalamin coenzyme
Which clinical finding suggests impaired gluconeogenesis during fasting?
Increased hepatic glycogen stores
Hypoglycemia during overnight fast
High serum ketones with normal glucose
Hyperglycemia in prolonged fast
In hepatocytes, fructose‑2,6‑bisphosphate acts primarily to do what?
Activate PFK‑1 and inhibit FBPase‑1
Have no role in carbohydrate metabolism
Inhibit phosphofructokinase‑1 enzyme
Activate fructose‑1,6‑bisphosphatase
During prolonged fasting, which amino acid is most important for renal gluconeogenesis and acid excretion?
Phenylalanine aromatic acid
Lysine as ketogenic amino acid
Glutamine generating NH4+
Alanine from muscle proteolysis
Ethanol intoxication elevates hepatic NADH. Which reaction is driven forward, lowering gluconeogenic precursors and causing hypoglycemia?
G6P converted to glucose
Pyruvate converted to lactate
Lactate converted to pyruvate
Oxaloacetate converted to malate
In the fed state with high insulin, which pathways in liver are most active?
Glycogenolysis and lipolysis
Ketogenesis and beta‑oxidation
Glycogenesis and glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis predominates
Which enzyme is inhibited by ATP and citrate in glycolysis?
PFK-1
Hexokinase
Enolase
Aldolase
In a well-oxygenated resting muscle, most pyruvate from glycolysis is converted to:
Acetyl-CoA
Alanine
Oxaloacetate
Lactate
Which glycolytic intermediate is also a precursor of 2,3-BPG in RBCs?
G6P
PEP
F1,6-BP
1,3-BPG
In liver, glucagon via cAMP leads to phosphorylation that:
Activates glycogen phosphorylase and inactivates glycogen synthase
Has no effect on glycogen metabolism
Activates glycogen synthase
Inactivates glycogen phosphorylase
The net ATP gain from anaerobic glycolysis (glucose → 2 lactate) is:
2 ATP
1 ATP
0 ATP
4 ATP
A drug inhibiting enolase would cause accumulation of:
2-Phosphoglycerate
3-Phosphoglycerate
PEP
Lactate
Von Gierke disease (type I glycogen storage disease) is caused by deficiency of:
Branching enzyme
Debranching enzyme
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Glycogen phosphorylase
The main site of de novo fatty acid synthesis is:
Mitochondrial matrix
Cytosol of liver and adipose cells
Cytosol of RBCs
Lysosomes
The immediate precursor for fatty acid synthesis is:
Malonyl-CoA
Citrate
Oxaloacetate
Pyruvate
Cytosolic acetyl-CoA for FA synthesis is derived from mitochondrial acetyl-CoA via export of:
Pyruvate
Citrate
Malate
Oxaloacetate
Malonyl-CoA inhibits:
Fatty acid synthase
Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT I)
Hormone-sensitive lipase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Which hormone profile promotes lipogenesis?
High cortisol, low insulin
High epinephrine, high glucagon
High insulin, low glucagon
High glucagon, low insulin
In uncontrolled type 1 diabetes, increased lipolysis in adipose tissue is due to:
Activation of lipoprotein lipase
Decreased catecholamines
Activation of hormone-sensitive lipase
High insulin levels
Which tissue is the primary producer of ketone bodies?
Skeletal muscle
Liver
Heart
Brain
In prolonged fasting, ketone bodies are used as major fuels by:
RBCs
Liver
Brain
Intestinal mucosa
Ketone body synthesis is favored when:
High insulin promotes TCA flux
Oxaloacetate is depleted for gluconeogenesis
Oxaloacetate is plentiful
Glycolysis is very active
The primary ketone body measured in blood (and correlated with severity) is:
Acetone
Acetoacetate
β-Hydroxybutyrate
3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA
In diabetic ketoacidosis, which statement is true?
Excess acetyl-CoA is diverted to ketogenesis
Glucagon promotes lipogenesis
Insulin levels are high
OAA accumulates
During an overnight fast, which source provides glycerol for gluconeogenesis?
Dietary TAG
Adipose tissue TAG breakdown
Muscle glycogen
Liver glycogen
Which enzyme is shared by both FA synthesis and degradation pathways?
None; pathways are distinct
3-Hydroxyacyl dehydrogenase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Carnitine acyltransferase II
Which lipoprotein is most associated with transporting dietary TAG from intestine to tissues?
LDL
VLDL
HDL
Chylomicrons
Which lipoprotein primarily returns cholesterol from tissues to liver?
Chylomicrons
HDL
VLDL
LDL
In the post-absorptive state (3–5 h after a meal), which pathways are active in liver?
Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Glycogenesis and ketogenesis
Glycolysis and lipogenesis
Ketogenesis and lipogenesis
Which hormone directly activates lipoprotein lipase (LPL) in adipose tissue?
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
In a high-carbohydrate diet, excess glucose is converted to fatty acids. The key regulatory step in FA synthesis is catalyzed by:
HMG-CoA reductase
Carnitine acyltransferase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
FA synthase
Which metabolic state shows highest ketone body production?
Well-fed
Early fasting (3–6 h)
Prolonged fasting (>72 h)
Immediately postprandial
During prolonged exercise, which source becomes increasingly important for muscle energy?
Brain ketone bodies
Free fatty acids from adipose tissue
Muscle glycogen only
Liver glycogen only
An aminotransferase uses which cofactor to transfer amino groups?
FAD
Thiamine pyrophosphate
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
Biotin
The typical pair in aminotransferase reactions is:
Alanine/pyruvate
Aspartate/oxaloacetate
All of the above
Glutamate/α-ketoglutarate
The reaction alanine + α-ketoglutarate ↔ pyruvate + glutamate is catalyzed by:
AST
ALT
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Glutamine synthetase
Which enzyme releases free NH3 directly from glutamate in liver mitochondria?
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Glutamine synthetase
ALT
AST
Which cofactor is required for glutamate dehydrogenase in oxidative deamination?
Biotin
FAD
NAD+ or NADP+
PLP
In extrahepatic tissues, most ammonia is transported to liver in the form of:
Free NH3
Urea
Glutamine and alanine
Asparagine
A neonate with lethargy and vomiting has hyperammonemia, low BUN, and elevated glutamine. Most likely defect:
Ornithine aminotransferase
Glutamine synthetase
Arginase
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Which amino acid provides the second nitrogen of urea (in argininosuccinate synthetase reaction)?
Glutamate
Glutamine
Aspartate
Alanine
Urea synthesis occurs primarily in:
Kidney
Muscle
Intestine
Liver
A patient has hyperammonemia and very low citrulline levels. The most likely enzyme defect is:
CPS I
OTC
Argininosuccinate lyase
Arginase
Elevated blood levels of argininosuccinate suggest deficiency of:
CPS I
Argininosuccinate synthetase
Argininosuccinate lyase
Arginase
Which treatment helps urea cycle disorders by providing an alternative route for nitrogen excretion?
High-fat diet
Sodium benzoate or phenylacetate therapy
Low-carbohydrate diet
High-protein diet
The energetic cost of forming one molecule of urea is approximately:
3 ATP equivalents
4 ATP equivalents
2 ATP equivalents
1 ATP
Branched-chain amino acid (BCAA) oxidation defects, like in Maple Syrup Urine Disease, primarily affect metabolism of:
Lysine and tryptophan
Phenylalanine and tyrosine
Methionine and cysteine
Valine, leucine, isoleucine
A 6-month-old infant has musty odor, eczema, and seizures. Labs show elevated phenylalanine and low tyrosine. Which diet modification is appropriate?
High methionine
High phenylalanine
Low phenylalanine, adequate tyrosine
High tyrosine and phenylalanine
In homocystinuria due to cystathionine β-synthase deficiency, which vitamin may partially improve symptoms?
Niacin
Riboflavin
Pyridoxine (B6)
Biotin
In the glucose–alanine cycle, alanine released from muscle is converted in the liver to:
Oxaloacetate and NH3
Pyruvate and urea
Lactate and alanine
Glutamine and fumarate
Which amino acid is both a neurotransmitter and a precursor to GABA?
Glycine
Serine
Aspartate
Glutamate
The side chain of histidine can act as a good buffer near physiological pH because its imidazole group has a pKa near:
6
4
2
10
Which amino acid is precursor for serotonin?
Tyrosine
Histidine
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Which amino acid is strictly ketogenic?
Isoleucine
Threonine
Tyrosine
Lysine
A deficiency in arginase will lead to:
Hyperammonemia with high arginine
Hyperglycemia
Increased fumarate
Hypoammonemia
Ornithine is structurally similar to which TCA intermediate?
Oxaloacetate
α-Ketoglutarate
Lysine
Aspartate
A buffer is strongest when acid equals conjugate base. At this point, the pH:
Is unrelated to pKa
Is 2 units below the pKa
Equals the pKa
Is 1 unit above the pKa
The main extracellular buffer system is:
Protein buffer
Bicarbonate buffer
Hemoglobin buffer
Phosphate buffer
The major intracellular buffer in RBCs is:
Phosphate
Lactate
Hemoglobin
Bicarbonate
Phosphate buffer is more important in:
Plasma
RBCs
Interstitial fluid
Renal tubular fluid
The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation for the bicarbonate buffer is:
pH = pKa + log([HCO3−]/[CO2])
pH = pKa + log([CO2]/[HCO3−])
pH = pKa + log([H+]/[HCO3−])
pH = pKa + log([HCO3−]/[H+])
A patient has ABG: pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3− 23 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH alkalotic, PaCO2 alkalotic, HCO3− normal. What is the primary disorder?
Mixed alkalosis
Normal
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
ABG: pH 7.25, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3− 24 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH acidotic, PaCO2 acidotic, HCO3− normal. Primary disorder?
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Compensated metabolic alkalosis
Mixed
ABG: pH 7.10, PaCO2 20 mmHg, HCO3− 6 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH acidotic, PaCO2 alkalotic, HCO3− acidotic. Interpretation:
Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation
Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
ABG: pH 6.90, PaCO2 68 mmHg, HCO3− 13 mEq/L. Tic-tac-toe shows pH acidotic, PaCO2 acidotic, HCO3− acidotic. Best description:
Pure metabolic acidosis
Pure respiratory acidosis
Normal
Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
For Bonita: pH 7.30, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3− 15 mEq/L (given). The absolute difference in tic-tac-toe for HCO3− vs normal (24) is:
3
15
7
9
A patient with metabolic alkalosis (HCO3− 36 mEq/L) shows which expected compensatory change?
Increased H+ excretion
Hyperventilation → PaCO2 ↓
Hyperventilation → PaCO2 ↑
Increased HCO3− excretion
A mountain climber at high altitude develops pH 7.50, PaCO2 28 mmHg, HCO3− 20 mEq/L. This reflects:
Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation
Mixed acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
In lactic acidosis, buffering by bicarbonate produces increased:
H+
HCO3−
NH4+
H2CO3, then CO2 exhalation
Which HCO3− level is most consistent with chronic respiratory acidosis (compensated)?
24 mEq/L
30 mEq/L
10 mEq/L
18 mEq/L
Diarrhea primarily causes:
Loss of HCl → metabolic alkalosis
Loss of HCO3− → metabolic acidosis
Loss of water only → no acid–base change
Loss of phosphate → metabolic alkalosis
Vomiting primarily causes:
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
A patient with salicylate intoxication initially shows:
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
No acid–base change
The anion gap is calculated as:
Na+ + K+ − (Cl− + HCO3−)
Na+ − (K+ + HCO3−)
Cl− + HCO3− − Na+
Na+ − (Cl− + HCO3−)
High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in all EXCEPT:
Lactic acidosis
Ketoacidosis
Methanol poisoning
Diarrhea
In renal failure, metabolic acidosis occurs mainly due to:
Increased CO2 production
Loss of HCl
Increased phosphate excretion
Accumulation of non-volatile acids and ↓ H+ excretion
