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final review nur213

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

  1. Q: Severe diarrhea → What ABG pattern develops? 

a)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓CO₂ from hyperventilation.
b)
Metabolic alkalosis — ↑pH, ↑HCO₃ from excessive vomiting.
c)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, ↓HCO₃ from base loss through stool.
d)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑CO₂ from hypoventilation.
2.

  1. Q: Vomiting or nasogastric suction → What ABG pattern results? 

 

a)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓CO₂ from hyperventilation.
b)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑CO₂ from hypoventilation.
c)
Metabolic alkalosis — ↑pH, ↑HCO₃ from loss of gastric acid.
d)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, ↓HCO₃ from renal failure.
3.

  1. Q: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) → What ABG pattern appears? 

a)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, ↓HCO₃, ↓PaCO₂ (compensatory).
b)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↓pH, ↓HCO₃, ↑PaCO₂ (compensatory).
c)
Metabolic alkalosis — ↑pH, ↑HCO₃, ↑PaCO₂ (compensatory).
d)
Respiratory acidosis — ↑pH, ↑HCO₃, ↑PaCO₂ (compensatory).
4.

  1. Q: Hyperventilation or panic attack → What ABG pattern is seen? 

a)
Normal pH — PaCO₂ remains unchanged during stress.
b)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ due to hypoventilation.
c)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ due to CO₂ retention.
d)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ due to blowing off CO₂.
5.

  1. Q: Pulmonary edema / heart failure → What ABG change occurs? 

a)
Metabolic alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ from hyperventilation and fluid loss.
b)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ due to increased lung function.
c)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, normal PaCO₂ from renal failure and fluid overload.
d)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ from hypoventilation and fluid-filled alveoli.
6.

  1. Q: Pulmonary embolism (early stage) → What ABG pattern develops? 

a)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ from hyperventilation caused by anxiety/hypoxia.
b)
Normal ABG — pH and PaCO₂ levels remain unchanged.
c)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ due to airway obstruction.
d)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ from respiratory failure.
7.

  1. Q: Pneumonia → What ABG pattern is common? 

a)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ from anxiety.
b)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ due to impaired gas exchange.
c)
Metabolic alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ due to hyperventilation.
d)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, normal PaCO₂ due to renal failure.
8.

  1. Q: Asthma exacerbation (severe or late attack) → What ABG pattern occurs later? 

 

a)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ (from air trapping and fatigue).
b)
Metabolic alkalosis — ↑pH, ↑PaCO₂ (from dehydration).
c)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ (from overbreathing).
d)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, ↓PaCO₂ (from hyperventilation).
9.

  1. Q: Asthma exacerbation (early attack) → What ABG pattern occurs first? 

a)
Metabolic alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ (from excessive vomiting).
b)
Respiratory acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ (from airway obstruction).
c)
Metabolic acidosis — ↓pH, ↑PaCO₂ (from hypoventilation).
d)
Respiratory alkalosis — ↑pH, ↓PaCO₂ (from hyperventilation).
10.

Q: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) → What ABG pattern is expected? 

a)
Normal ABG values with no compensation
b)
Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
c)
Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
d)
Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation
11.

Q: What is a key safety priority for neurologic patients with weakness or dizziness? 

a)
Encourage patients to exercise vigorously.
b)
Advise patients to avoid all physical activity.
c)
Implement fall precautions and assist with ambulation.
d)
Monitor vital signs without any assistance.
12.

Q: What are classic signs of Parkinson’s disease? 
 

a)
Tremor at rest, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and shuffling gait.
b)
Tremor at rest, joint pain, slow reflexes, and steady gait.
c)
Tremor during movement, muscle weakness, rapid speech, and balanced gait.
d)
Muscle spasms, fatigue, quick movements, and normal gait.
13.

Q: What are warning signs of a TIA (mini-stroke)? 

a)
Sudden weakness, numbness, or vision changes that resolve within 24 hours.
b)
Sudden headache, dizziness, or confusion that lasts for days.
c)
Gradual weakness, numbness, or vision changes lasting over 24 hours.
d)
Persistent weakness, tingling, or vision loss that improves slowly.
14.

Q: What should nurses do for Bell’s palsy patients? 

a)
Encourage the patient to avoid all physical activity.
b)
Protect the affected eye with an eye patch and give artificial tears.
c)
Prescribe antibiotics and monitor for fever.
d)
Apply heat to the face and recommend facial exercises.
15.

Q: What symptom is typical in Bell’s palsy? 

a)
Complete loss of taste on one side of the tongue.
b)
Unilateral eye twitching with facial numbness.
c)
Unilateral facial droop with inability to close the eyelid.
d)
Bilateral facial weakness with difficulty smiling.
16.

Q: What is a key safety teaching for epilepsy patients? 

a)
Skip medications and drive cautiously.
b)
Take medications only when feeling unwell.
c)
Avoid all physical activities and stay indoors.
d)
Take medications consistently and avoid driving until cleared.
17.

Q: What is the postictal phase? 

a)
A state of heightened alertness before a seizure.
b)
A brief moment of clarity during a seizure.
c)
An intense headache that follows a seizure.
d)
Period of confusion, fatigue, or sleepiness after a seizure.
18.

Q: What are common triggers of seizures? 

a)
Stress, dehydration, loud noises, sleep deprivation, or caffeine intake.
b)
Cold weather, high altitude, strong odors, or spicy foods.
c)
Excessive exercise, poor diet, emotional distress, or bright colors.
d)
Fever, infection, electrolyte imbalance, flashing lights, or missed medication.
19.

Q: What should be documented after a seizure? 

a)
Duration, type of movements, loss of consciousness, and postictal behavior.
b)
Patient's age, medication history, and family background.
c)
Color of surroundings, noise level, and temperature changes.
d)
Time of day, location, witnesses, and prior history.
20.

Q: What is the priority nursing action during a seizure? 

a)
Provide emotional support — encourage the patient to talk during the episode.
b)
Check vital signs frequently — keep the patient in a sitting position.
c)
Administer medication immediately — ensure the patient is restrained.
d)
Protect the airway and prevent injury — do not restrain or insert anything in the mouth.
21.

Q: What are the positive signs that indicate meningeal irritation? 

a)
Cerebellar and vestibular signs.
b)
Lhermitte's and Babinski's signs.
c)
Meningeal and spinal reflexes.
d)
Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs.
22.

Q: What precautions are used for viral encephalitis? 

a)
Isolation precautions.
b)
Contact precautions.
c)
Droplet precautions.
d)
Standard precautions.
23.

Q: What precautions are required for bacterial meningitis? 

a)
Airborne precautions.
b)
Droplet precautions.
c)
Contact precautions.
d)
Standard precautions.
24.

Q: What are additional signs of meningitis? 

a)
Joint pain, rash, and fatigue.
b)
Cough, runny nose, and sore throat.
c)
Chest pain, shortness of breath, and dizziness.
d)

Fever, severe headache, photophobia, and petechial rash. 

25.

Q: What is the hallmark symptom of meningitis? 

a)
Severe headache and nausea.
b)
Fever and chills.
c)
Nuchal rigidity (stiff neck).
d)
Skin rash and itching.
26.

Q: What neurological change is an emergency? 

a)
A gradual increase in level of consciousness.
b)
A sudden loss of motor function.
c)
A brief episode of dizziness.
d)
A sudden decrease in level of consciousness.
27.

Q: What are the classic signs of a stroke? 

a)
Numbness in the legs, blurred vision, and headache.
b)
Facial drooping, arm weakness, and slurred speech.
c)
Dizziness, chest pain, and rapid heartbeat.
d)
Confusion, difficulty walking, and memory loss.
28.

Q: What is the priority nursing intervention for a stroke patient? 

a)
Administer aspirin immediately.
b)
Maintain airway and oxygenation.
c)
Start intravenous fluids without delay.
d)
Perform a CT scan right away.
29.

Q: What are late signs of increased ICP? 

a)
Cushing’s triad — bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, irregular respirations.
b)
Cushing's response — irregular heartbeat, low blood pressure, deep breaths.
c)
Cushing's syndrome — hypertension, rapid pulse, shallow breathing.
d)
Cushing's reflex — tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, normal respirations.
30.

Q: What are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? 

a)
Headache, vomiting, and altered level of consciousness.
b)
Nausea, confusion, and seizures.
c)
Dizziness, fatigue, and blurred vision.
d)
Neck pain, fever, and rash.
31.

  1. Q: What is the best way to prevent postoperative atelectasis? 

a)
Limit patient mobility and avoid deep breathing.
b)
Use only supplemental oxygen without exercises.
c)
Encourage incentive spirometer use and deep breathing exercises.
d)
Administer pain medication without respiratory support.
32.

  1. Q: What finding requires immediate intervention after thoracentesis? 

a)
Gradual shortness of breath (possible fluid accumulation).
b)
Sudden dyspnea or tracheal deviation (possible pneumothorax).
c)
Persistent chest pain or discomfort (possible rib fracture).
d)
Mild cough or fever (possible infection).
33.

  1. Q: What precaution is essential with COPD oxygen therapy? 

a)
Use low-flow oxygen (1–2 L/min) to prevent respiratory suppression.
b)
Increase oxygen flow to 3–4 L/min for better results.
c)
Administer oxygen only during sleep for COPD patients.
d)
Use high-flow oxygen (5–10 L/min) to enhance breathing.
34.

  1. Q: What symptom suggests a pneumothorax? 

a)
Gradual onset of chest pain and wheezing sounds.
b)
Persistent cough with clear sputum and fever.
c)
Sharp pain radiating to the shoulder and back.
d)
Sudden shortness of breath and absent breath sounds on one side.
35.

  1. Q: What is the first nursing action after chest tube insertion? 

a)
Monitor vital signs for any changes.
b)
Check for continuous bubbling or air leaks in the water seal chamber.
c)
Administer pain medication as needed.
d)
Prepare the patient for discharge immediately.
36.

  1. Q: What type of sputum is seen in bacterial pneumonia? 

a)
Yellow and frothy sputum.
b)
Rust-colored sputum.
c)
Greenish sputum.
d)
Clear and watery sputum.
37.

  1. Q: What indicates successful tuberculosis treatment? 

a)
Positive sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli (AFB).
b)
Presence of symptoms like cough and fever.
c)
Increased white blood cell count in blood tests.
d)
Negative sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli (AFB).
38.

  1. Q: What are early symptoms of tuberculosis? 

a)
Shortness of breath, fever, chills, and headache.
b)
Chest pain, dry cough, joint pain, and nausea.
c)
Skin rash, abdominal pain, dizziness, and insomnia.
d)
Persistent cough, night sweats, fatigue, and weight loss.
39.

  1. Q: What precautions are used for tuberculosis? 

a)
Droplet — Surgical mask and isolation room.
b)
Contact — Cloth mask and open-air space.
c)
Vector — No mask and standard room.
d)
Airborne — N95 mask and negative-pressure room.
40.

  1. Q: What are expected ABG findings in COPD? 

a)
Increased CO₂, decreased O₂ (respiratory acidosis).
b)
Decreased CO₂, increased O₂ (metabolic acidosis).
c)
Normal CO₂, normal O₂ (respiratory alkalosis).
d)
Increased O₂, decreased CO₂ (hyperventilation).
41.

  1. Q: What is the priority action for a patient with respiratory distress? 

a)
Place in supine position and monitor vitals.
b)
Administer IV fluids and elevate legs.
c)
Provide a nebulizer treatment and check pulse.
d)
Place in High Fowler’s position and administer oxygen.
42.

  1. Q: What is a red flag finding in asthma? 

a)
Wheezing — indicates airway constriction.
b)
Coughing — suggests mild respiratory issues.
c)
Chest tightness — shows normal lung function.
d)
Silent chest — indicates no air movement.
43.

  1. Q: What are symptoms of emphysema? 

a)
Frequent headaches, fatigue, and fever.
b)
Chronic cough, wheezing, and chest tightness.
c)
Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
d)
Barrel chest, dyspnea, and pursed-lip breathing.
44.

  1. Q: What are signs of chronic bronchitis? 

a)
Dry cough, wheezing, and rapid breathing.
b)
Shortness of breath, fever, and chest pain.
c)
Non-productive cough, pallor, and fatigue.
d)
Productive cough, cyanosis, and use of accessory muscles.
45.

  1. Q: What does pink, frothy sputum indicate? 

a)
Asthma attack.
b)
Chronic bronchitis.
c)
Lung cancer.
d)
Pulmonary edema.
46.

  1. Q: What is the primary symptom of pulmonary embolism? 

a)
Mild headache and fatigue.
b)
Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain.
c)
Persistent cough and fever.
d)
Dizziness and abdominal pain.
47.

  1. Q: What are late signs of hypoxia? 

a)
Tachycardia, hypertension, and pallor.
b)
Hyperventilation, fever, and confusion.
c)
Cyanosis, bradycardia, and hypotension.
d)
Dizziness, nausea, and headache.
48.

  1. Q: What respiratory rate indicates distress? 

a)
Greater than 30 breaths per minute.
b)
Less than 10 breaths per minute.
c)
Between 15 and 20 breaths per minute.
d)
Exactly 25 breaths per minute.
49.

  1. Q: What is a key early sign of hypoxia? 

a)
Increased heart rate.
b)
Restlessness or confusion.
c)
Dizziness or lightheadedness.
d)
Shortness of breath.
50.

Q: What are the classic signs and symptoms of pneumonia?

a)
Fever, productive cough, crackles, dyspnea, and pleuritic chest pain.
b)
Headache, dry cough, wheezing, fatigue, and abdominal pain.
c)
Sore throat, mild cough, shortness of breath, fever, and joint pain.
d)
Nausea, non-productive cough, chest tightness, chills, and muscle aches.
51.

Q: What is the top nursing priority for any patient with altered LOC? 

a)
Protect the airway and prevent aspiration.
b)
Encourage fluid intake regularly.
c)
Administer sedatives as needed.
d)
Monitor vital signs closely.
52.

Q: What is the first sign of post-tonsillectomy bleeding? 

a)
Throat pain.
b)
Frequent swallowing.
c)
Nausea and vomiting.
d)
Fever and chills.
53.

Q: What is the “Ask–Advise–Assess–Assist–Arrange” model used for? 

a)
Smoking cessation counseling.
b)
Weight loss strategies.
c)
Alcohol addiction treatment.
d)
Stress management techniques.
54.

Q: What vaccines help prevent respiratory infections? 

a)
Hepatitis B, measles, and mumps vaccines.
b)
Varicella, HPV, and shingles vaccines.
c)
Influenza, pneumococcal, and COVID-19 vaccines.
d)
Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis vaccines.
55.

Q: What color sputum indicates bacterial infection? 

a)
Yellow or green.
b)
Pink or red.
c)
Brown or black.
d)
Clear or white.
56.

Q: What is the normal oxygen saturation goal for COPD patients? 

a)
88–92%.
b)
92–95%
c)
80–85%
d)
75–80%
57.

Q: What is the best intervention to prevent pneumonia in immobile patients? 

a)
Regular use of antibiotics and bed rest.
b)
Daily chest X-rays and hydration.
c)
Use of an incentive spirometer and ambulation.
d)
Frequent use of cough suppressants and isolation.
58.

Q: What should be encouraged to thin respiratory secretions? 

a)
Increased fluid intake (2–3 liters/day).
b)
Reduced humidity levels in the environment.
c)
Increased caffeine consumption (2–3 cups/day).
d)
Decreased fluid intake (1–2 liters/day).
59.

Q: What position helps improve breathing in respiratory distress? 

a)
Supine position.
b)
Prone position.
c)
Lateral position.
d)
High Fowler’s position.
60.

Q: What is the nursing priority for all respiratory and neuro patients? 

a)
Administer medications as prescribed.
b)
Monitor vital signs and report changes.
c)
Maintain airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs).
d)
Ensure patient comfort and pain relief.
61.

Q: What is the early sign of an ear infection in children? 

a)
Rubbing the eyes with a persistent cough.
b)
Tugging or pulling at the ear with fever or irritability.
c)
Frequent yawning and loss of appetite.
d)
Complaining of stomach pain with a runny nose.
62.

Q: What precaution should a patient with hearing loss take during communication? 

a)
Face the speaker and use lip reading if needed.
b)
Use written notes instead of verbal communication.
c)
Speak loudly without facing the person.
d)
Look away while speaking to avoid distractions.
63.

Q: What is the most important teaching for hearing aid use? 

a)
Keep away from water, use vinegar for cleaning, and store in a drawer.
b)
Keep in a humid place, use soap for cleaning, and turn on during sleep.
c)
Expose to sunlight, use bleach for cleaning, and leave on all day.
d)
Keep dry, avoid alcohol for cleaning, and turn off when not in use.
64.

Q: What is the purpose of a cochlear implant? 

a)
To provide full hearing restoration.
b)
To restore partial hearing in severe sensorineural loss.
c)
To assist with balance in auditory issues.
d)
To enhance vision in hearing loss.
65.

Q: What are common causes of conductive hearing loss? 

a)
Genetic factors, head trauma, or sinus infections.
b)
Ear infections, excessive loud sounds, or allergies.
c)
Fluid in the middle ear, noise exposure, or aging.
d)
Earwax buildup, infections, or perforated tympanic membrane.
66.

Q: What is the function of the semicircular canals? 

a)
Control balance and equilibrium.
b)
Regulate heart rate and blood pressure.
c)
Facilitate hearing and sound perception.
d)
Support respiratory function and gas exchange.
67.

Q: What is the function of the cochlea? 

a)
Regulates balance and spatial orientation.
b)
Converts sound vibrations into nerve impulses.
c)
Filters background noise from the environment.
d)
Amplifies sound waves for better hearing.
68.

Q: What is the most important precaution during vertigo episodes? 

a)
Engage in physical exercise regularly.
b)
Avoid bright lights and loud noises.
c)
Stay hydrated and rest frequently.
d)
Prevent falls and ensure safety.
69.

Q: How should the ear be irrigated safely? 

a)
With tepid water using gentle pressure.
b)
With hot water using moderate pressure.
c)
With warm water using no pressure.
d)
With cold water using high pressure.
70.

Q: What are common signs of external otitis (swimmer’s ear)? 

a)
Fever, swelling, and earwax buildup.
b)
Nausea, dizziness, and hearing loss.
c)
Dryness, flaking skin, and tinnitus.
d)
Pain, redness, itching, and purulent discharge.
71.

Q: What is the primary treatment for acoustic neuroma? 

a)
Radiation therapy.
b)
Chemotherapy treatment.
c)
Observation and monitoring.
d)
Surgical removal.
72.

Q: What is an acoustic neuroma? 

a)
Benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve causing hearing loss and imbalance.
b)
Fluid-filled cyst in the inner ear resulting in tinnitus.
c)
Non-cancerous mass on the spinal cord causing paralysis.
d)
Malignant growth on the optic nerve leading to vision loss.
73.

Q: What is labyrinthitis? 

a)
Blockage of the ear canal resulting in tinnitus
b)
Infection of the outer ear leading to hearing loss
c)
Inflammation of the inner ear causing vertigo and nausea
d)
Swelling of the throat causing difficulty in swallowing
74.

Q: What medications treat acute Meniere’s attacks? 

a)
Diazepam and diuretics.
b)
Metformin and beta-blockers.
c)
Ibuprofen and corticosteroids.
d)
Aspirin and antihistamines.
75.

Q: What diet is recommended for Meniere’s disease? 

a)
Low-carb diet with increased caffeine.
b)
Low-sodium diet with fluid restriction.
c)
Balanced diet with high sugar intake.
d)
High-sodium diet with no restrictions.
76.

Q: What is Meniere’s disease? 

a)
Genetic disorder resulting in balance issues and ear ringing.
b)
Infection of the middle ear leading to temporary hearing loss.
c)
Condition affecting outer ear causing dizziness and ear pain.
d)
Disorder of inner ear fluid balance causing vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.
77.

Q: What surgery corrects otosclerosis? 

a)
Stapedectomy
b)
Myringotomy
c)
Tympanoplasty
d)
Cochlear implant
78.

Q: What is otosclerosis? 

a)
Fluid buildup in the inner ear causing balance issues.
b)
Deterioration of the cochlea resulting in tinnitus.
c)
Thickening of the eardrum leading to hearing loss.
d)
Stiffening of ossicles causing progressive conductive hearing loss.
79.

Q: What surgery treats chronic otitis media? 

a)
Myringotomy with tympanostomy tube placement.
b)
Antibiotic therapy alone.
c)
Mastoidectomy for infection.
d)
Tympanoplasty with grafting.
80.

Q: What is otitis media? 

a)
Pain and redness in the eardrum.
b)
Fluid buildup in the outer ear.
c)
Infection and inflammation of the middle ear.
d)
Swelling of the ear canal lining.
81.

Q: What test helps differentiate conductive vs. sensorineural hearing loss? 

a)
Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests.
b)
Audiogram and speech discrimination tests.
c)
Otoacoustic emissions and auditory brainstem response.
d)
Pure tone audiometry and tympanometry.
82.

Q: What test is used to assess balance? 

a)
Romberg test.
b)
Berg Balance Scale.
c)
Tinetti Assessment Tool.
d)
Functional Reach Test.
83.

Q: Name three ototoxic drugs. 

a)
Ibuprofen, Gentamicin, and Acetaminophen.
b)
Ciprofloxacin, Prednisone, and Metformin.
c)
Furosemide, Vancomycin, and Aspirin.
d)
Amoxicillin, Clindamycin, and Simvastatin.
84.

Q: What is a common symptom of ototoxicity? 

a)
Tinnitus.
b)
Dizziness.
c)
Hearing loss.
d)
Ear pain.
85.

Q: What causes conductive hearing loss? 

a)
Problems transmitting sound through the outer or middle ear.
b)
Damage to the auditory nerve.
c)
Obstructions in the ear canal.
d)
Issues with the inner ear structure.
86.

Q: What causes sensorineural hearing loss? 

a)
Infection of the outer ear.
b)
Excessive exposure to loud noises.
c)
Blockage of the ear canal.
d)
Damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve.
87.

Q: What are two main types of hearing loss? 

a)
Mild and severe.
b)
Temporary and permanent.
c)
Sensorineural and conductive.
d)
Auditory and visual.
88.

Q: What is the function of the Eustachian tube? 
 

a)
Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and throat.
b)
Filters dust and particles from the throat.
c)
Transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear.
d)
Regulates airflow in the nasal cavity.
89.

Q: What are the ossicles in the middle ear? 

a)
Tympanic membrane, cochlea, and eustachian tube.
b)
Auricle, pinna, and external canal.
c)
Hammer, anvil, and stirrup.
d)
Malleus, incus, and stapes.
90.

Q: What are the three main parts of the ear? 

a)
Outer, central, and deep ear.
b)
Surface, core, and peripheral ear.
c)
Visible, auditory, and sensory ear.
d)
External, middle, and inner ear.
91.

Q: What type of headache is most common and related to stress? 

a)
Migraine headache.
b)
Cluster headache.
c)
Sinus headache.
d)
Tension headache.
92.

Q: What is a cluster headache? 

a)
Intense headache affecting both sides of the head.
b)
Mild headache that occurs randomly throughout the day.
c)
Chronic pain in the neck and shoulders with no headache.
d)
Severe one-sided headache occurring in cycles or clusters.
93.

Q: What medication may be prescribed to prevent migraines? 

a)
Topiramate
b)
Amitriptyline
c)
Gabapentin
d)
Propranolol
94.

Q: What is a migraine headache often triggered by? 

a)
Bright lights and loud noises.
b)
Lack of sleep and dehydration.
c)
Certain foods like chocolate, red wine, or MSG.
d)
Stressful situations and anxiety.
95.

Q: What is the most common cause of a brain abscess? 

a)
Autoimmune disorders affecting the brain.
b)
Recent head trauma or injury.
c)
Untreated ear, tooth, or sinus infection.
d)
Chronic respiratory infection.
96.

Q: What is a brain abscess? 

a)
A fluid-filled cavity in the skull.
b)
A pus-filled infection in brain tissue.
c)
A type of brain tumor that is benign.
d)
An inflammation of the brain's outer layer.
97.

Q: What drugs are used to manage trigeminal neuralgia? 

a)
Lidocaine or Topiramate.
b)
Carbamazepine or Gabapentin.
c)
Aspirin or Ibuprofen.
d)
Morphine or Oxycodone.
98.

Q: What is trigeminal neuralgia? 

a)
Sudden severe facial pain along the trigeminal nerve.
b)
Mild discomfort in the jaw area.
c)
Chronic headaches affecting the temples.
d)
Numbness in the facial muscles.
99.

Q: What is the main treatment for Bell’s palsy? 

a)
Surgery and radiation therapy.
b)
Antibiotics and pain relievers.
c)
Corticosteroids and antiviral therapy.
d)
Physical therapy and massage.
100.

Q: What is the hallmark symptom of Bell’s palsy? 

a)
Bilateral facial weakness.
b)
Loss of taste sensation.
c)
Inability to close one eye.
d)
Unilateral facial paralysis.
101.

Q: What is the most serious complication of encephalitis? 

a)
Seizures and increased ICP
b)
Memory loss and confusion
c)
Nausea and vomiting
d)
Mild headaches and fatigue
102.

Q: What causes encephalitis? 

a)
Fungal infections such as cryptococcosis or candidiasis.
b)
Viral infections like herpes simplex or West Nile virus.
c)
Bacterial infections like meningitis or pneumonia.
d)
Autoimmune disorders affecting the brain or nervous system.
103.

Q: What is the priority isolation type for bacterial meningitis? 

a)
Droplet precautions.
b)
Standard precautions.
c)
Contact precautions.
d)
Airborne precautions.
104.

Q: What are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? 

a)
Headache, vomiting, and changes in LOC.
b)
Fever, chills, and muscle pain.
c)
Fatigue, confusion, and seizures.
d)
Nausea, dizziness, and blurred vision.
105.

Q: What is the first nursing priority in stroke management? 

a)
Monitor blood pressure every hour.
b)
Maintain airway and adequate oxygenation.
c)
Perform a CT scan without delay.
d)
Administer thrombolytics immediately.
106.

Q: What is the emergency drug for ischemic stroke within 3.5 hours? 

a)
tPA (alteplase)
b)
clopidogrel
c)
warfarin
d)
aspirin
107.

Q: What is the main cause of a hemorrhagic stroke? 

a)
A tear in the aorta.
b)
A blocked artery in the heart.
c)
A blood clot in the lungs.
d)
A ruptured blood vessel in the brain.
108.

Q: What is the most common cause of an ischemic stroke? 

a)
An infection affecting brain tissue.
b)
A severe drop in blood pressure.
c)
A ruptured blood vessel in the brain.
d)
A blood clot obstructing cerebral blood flow.
109.

Q: What does the acronym FAST stand for in stroke recognition? 

a)
Face swelling, Leg weakness, Hearing loss, Time to visit a doctor.
b)
Headache, Chest pain, Nausea, Time to rest at home.
c)
Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911.
d)
Vision changes, Back pain, Fatigue, Time to call a friend.
110.

Q: What is the main risk after a TIA? 

a)
Minor chance of temporary dizziness.
b)
Increased risk for a full stroke.
c)
No significant health risks involved.
d)
Slightly increased risk of heart attack.
111.

Q: What is a key nursing instruction for patients taking Dilantin? 

a)
Take with aspirin and avoid dairy products.
b)
Use mouthwash only and skip regular check-ups.
c)
Limit water intake and avoid high-fiber foods.
d)
Do not take with Coumadin and maintain good oral hygiene.
112.

Q: What is the primary medication class for seizure prevention? 

a)
Antiepileptic drugs (e.g., Phenytoin/Dilantin).
b)
Antibiotic agents (e.g., Amoxicillin/Amoxil).
c)
Antihypertensive drugs (e.g., Lisinopril/Prinivil).
d)
Antidepressant medications (e.g., Fluoxetine/Prozac).
113.

Q: What is a common diagnostic test for seizure disorders? 

a)
Blood Glucose Test
b)
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
c)
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
114.

Q: What medication is used to stop acute seizures? 

a)
Diazepam (Valium)
b)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
c)
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
d)
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
115.

Q: What is status epilepticus? 

a)
Single seizure lasting over an hour; not urgent.
b)
Intermittent seizures with recovery; a minor issue.
c)
Recurrent seizures with full recovery; a common condition.
d)
Continuous seizures without recovery; a medical emergency.
116.

Q: What are the two types of seizures? 

a)
Simple and complex.
b)
Acute and chronic.
c)
Focal (partial) and generalized.
d)
Localized and systemic.
117.

Q: What is the function of the hypothalamus? 

a)
Controls sleep patterns and emotional responses.
b)
Manages blood pressure and respiratory rate.
c)
Regulates temperature, hunger, thirst, and homeostasis.
d)
Influences memory and cognitive functions.
118.

Q: What is the primary function of the brainstem? 

a)
Regulates sleep patterns and dreams.
b)
Processes sensory information and emotions.
c)
Coordinates muscle movements and balance.
d)
Controls vital functions like breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.
119.

Q: What is the primary function of the cerebellum? 

a)
Balance and coordination.
b)
Speech and language.
c)
Vision and perception.
d)
Memory and learning.
120.

Q: What does the parasympathetic nervous system do? 

a)
Controls 'rest and digest' body functions.
b)
Increases heart rate and blood pressure.
c)
Stimulates 'fight or flight' responses.
d)
Regulates body temperature and sweating.
121.

Q: What does the sympathetic nervous system do? 

a)
Activates the “fight or flight” response.
b)
Promotes relaxation and calmness.
c)
Regulates digestive functions.
d)
Inhibits the body's stress response.
122.

Q: What is the function of the autonomic nervous system? 

a)
It manages sensory information such as sight and sound.
b)
It controls involuntary functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration.
c)
It influences conscious thought processes and decision making.
d)
It regulates voluntary movements like walking and talking.
123.

Q: What does the PNS include? 

a)
Autonomic nerves and sensory receptors.
b)
Spinal cord and central pathways.
c)
Cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and peripheral pathways.
d)
Cerebral cortex and brainstem pathways.
124.

Q: What does the CNS include? 

a)
The brain and nerves.
b)
The brain and spinal cord.
c)
The heart and lungs.
d)
The skull and vertebrae.
125.

Q: What are the two main parts of the nervous system? 

a)
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) and somatic nervous system (SNS).
b)
The sensory nervous system and motor nervous system.
c)
The brain and spinal cord only.
d)
The central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS).
126.

  1. Q: What sputum appearance indicates pulmonary edema? 

a)
Thick yellow sputum.
b)
Clear watery sputum.
c)
Dark brown sputum.
d)
Frothy pink sputum.
127.

  1. Q: Which medication causes orange-colored urine in TB treatment? 

a)
Ethambutol
b)
Pyrazinamide
c)
Isoniazid
d)
Rifampin
128.

  1. Q: What is the required PPE for TB precautions? 

a)
N95 mask and negative-pressure room.
b)
Respirator and standard hospital room.
c)
Face shield and open-air environment.
d)
Surgical mask and isolation room.
129.

  1. Q: What organism causes tuberculosis? 

a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b)
Bacillus anthracis.
c)
Escherichia coli.
d)
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
130.

  1. Q: What is the maintenance medication for asthma? 

a)
Oral corticosteroids (e.g., Prednisone).
b)
Inhaled corticosteroids (e.g., Fluticasone).
c)
Short-acting beta agonists (e.g., Albuterol).
d)
Leukotriene modifiers (e.g., Montelukast).
131.

  1. Q: What is the rescue medication for asthma? 

a)
Ipratropium (long-acting bronchodilator).
b)
Montelukast (leukotriene receptor antagonist).
c)
Albuterol (short-acting bronchodilator).
d)
Theophylline (methylxanthine medication).
132.

  1. Q: What triggers asthma attacks? 

a)
Smoke, bright lights, spicy food, or dehydration.
b)
Dust mites, high temperatures, strong odors, or laughter.
c)
Pollen, humidity, loud noises, or fatigue.
d)
Allergens, cold air, stress, or exercise.
133.

  1. Q: What is the primary treatment goal for COPD? 

a)
Improve ventilation and prevent CO₂ retention.
b)
Minimize inflammation and enhance exercise tolerance.
c)
Increase oxygen levels and improve blood flow.
d)
Enhance lung capacity and reduce mucus production.
134.

  1. Q: What oxygen flow rate is recommended for COPD patients? 

a)
0.5–1 L/min via face mask.
b)
2–3 L/min via nasal cannula.
c)
3–4 L/min via nasal cannula.
d)
1–2 L/min via nasal cannula.
135.

  1. Q: What ABG pattern is typical in COPD? 

a)
Metabolic acidosis (↑HCO₃, ↓O₂).
b)
Respiratory acidosis (↑CO₂, ↓O₂).
c)
Respiratory alkalosis (↓CO₂, ↑O₂).
d)
Normal acid-base balance (normal CO₂, O₂).
136.

  1. Q: Which two diseases are included under COPD? 

a)
Emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
b)
Allergies and sinusitis.
c)
Lung cancer and tuberculosis.
d)
Asthma and pneumonia.
137.

  1. Q: What is the most common cause of COPD? 

a)
Chronic smoking.
b)
Chronic respiratory infections.
c)
Genetic predisposition.
d)
Air pollution exposure.
138.

  1. Q: What are the hallmark symptoms of pneumonia? 

a)
Headache, dry cough, wheezing, and fatigue.
b)
Nausea, non-productive cough, chest pain, and chills.
c)
Sore throat, high blood pressure, shortness of breath, and fatigue.
d)
Fever, productive cough, crackles, and dyspnea.
139.

  1. Q: What type of infection causes pneumonia? 

a)
Bacterial, viral, or fungal infection of the alveoli.
b)
Fungal infection of the skin.
c)
Viral infection of the throat.
d)
Bacterial infection of the lungs only.
140.

  1. Q: What position promotes lung expansion in pneumonia patients? 

a)
Supine position.
b)
High Fowler’s position.
c)
Prone position.
d)
Lateral position.
141.

  1. Q: What is the priority nursing action after a bronchoscopy? 

a)
Administer a sedative to the patient.
b)
Encourage the patient to eat immediately.
c)
Monitor vital signs every hour.
d)
Keep the patient NPO until gag reflex returns.
142.

  1. Q: Why is a bronchoscopy performed? 

a)
To assess heart health and blood circulation.
b)
To visualize airways and collect biopsies.
c)
To remove foreign objects from the lungs.
d)
To examine lung function and measure airflow.
143.

  1. Q: What is the purpose of a sputum culture? 

a)
To evaluate the effectiveness of antibiotics.
b)
To measure lung capacity and function.
c)
To assess the presence of allergens in the air.
d)
To identify the causative organism of infection.
144.

  1. Q: What breath sound indicates upper airway obstruction? 

a)
Wheezing.
b)
Rhonchi.
c)
Stridor.
d)
Crackles.
145.

  1. Q: What breath sound indicates mucus in large airways? 

a)
Wheezing.
b)
Crackles.
c)
Rhonchi.
d)
Stridor.
146.

  1. Q: What breath sound indicates narrowed airways? 

a)
Stridor
b)
Wheezing.
c)
Rattling
d)
Crackling
147.

  1. Q: What breath sound is associated with fluid in the alveoli? 

a)
Wheezes.
b)
Stridor.
c)
Crackles.
d)
Rhonchi.
148.

  1. Q: What oxygen saturation level indicates hypoxemia? 

a)
Less than 85%
b)
Less than 90%
c)
Less than 95%
d)
Less than 80%
149.

  1. Q: What is the normal respiratory rate for adults? 

a)
10–15 breaths per minute.
b)
15–25 breaths per minute.
c)
20–30 breaths per minute.
d)
12–20 breaths per minute.
150.

  1. Q: What stimulates breathing in patients with COPD? 

a)
Increased physical activity levels.
b)
High carbon dioxide levels (hypercapnic drive).
c)
Normal oxygen saturation levels.
d)
Low oxygen levels (hypoxic drive).
151.

  1. Q: Which part of the brain controls breathing? 

a)
The cerebellum and thalamus.
b)
The hippocampus and amygdala.
c)
The frontal lobe and occipital lobe.
d)
The medulla oblongata and pons.
152.

  1. Q: What substance prevents alveolar collapse? 

a)
Alveolar fluid.
b)
Pulmonary mucus.
c)
Bronchial secretions.
d)
Surfactant.
153.

  1. Q: What is the primary function of the alveoli? 

a)
Oxygen storage for the body.
b)
Carbon dioxide production in the lungs.
c)
Nutrient absorption from the bloodstream.
d)
Gas exchange between oxygen and carbon dioxide.
154.

  1. Q: What are the main structures of the lower respiratory tract? 

a)
Lungs, diaphragm, pleura, trachea.
b)
Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.
c)
Alveoli, capillaries, bronchi, larynx.
d)
Bronchioles, trachea, pleura, pharynx.
155.

  1. Q: What are the main structures of the upper respiratory tract? 

a)
Lungs, diaphragm, alveoli, pleura.
b)
Sinuses, tongue, epiglottis, uvula.
c)
Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx.
d)
Mouth, throat, trachea, bronchi.

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